Copy and Edit

ATP EASA Qatar Yellow 2

Description

Aviacion (Examen ) Quiz on ATP EASA Qatar Yellow 2, created by Alejandro Castillo on 22/05/2018.
Alejandro Castillo
Quiz by Alejandro Castillo, updated more than 1 year ago
Alejandro Castillo
Created by Alejandro Castillo almost 6 years ago
302
2
0

Resource summary

Question 1

Question
31.2.1.3 (1565) The take-off mass of an aeroplane is 141000 kg. Total fuel on board is 63000 kg including 14000 kg reserve fuel and 1000 kg of unusable fuel. The traffic load is 12800 kg. The zero fuel mass is:
Answer
  • 65200 kg.
  • 78000 kg
  • 79000 kg
  • 93000 kg

Question 2

Question
31.2.1.4 (1567) 'Standard Mass' as used in the computation of passenger load establish the mass of a child as
Answer
  • 35 kg for children over 2 years occupying a seat and 10 kg for infants (less than 2 years) occupying a seat.
  • 35 kg for children over 2 years occupying a seat and 10 kg for infants (less than 2 years) not occupying a seat.
  • 35 kg irrespective of age provided they occupy a seat.
  • 35 kg only if they are over 2 years old and occupy a seat.

Question 3

Question
31.2.1.4 (1567) 'Standard Mass' as used in the computation of passenger load establish the mass of a child as
Answer
  • 35 kg irrespective of age provided they occupy a seat
  • 35 kg only if they are over 2 years old and occupy a seat.
  • 35 kg for children over 2 years occupying a seat and 10 kg for infants (less than 2 years) occupying a seat.
  • 35 kg for children over 2 years occupying a seat and 10 kg for infants (less than 2 years) not occupying a seat.

Question 4

Question
31.2.1.4 (1568) On an aeroplane with a seating capacity of more than 30, it is decided to use standard mass values for computing the total mass of passengers. If the flight is not a holiday charter, the mass value which may be used for an adult is
Answer
  • 76 kg
  • 84 kg
  • 84 kg (male) 76 kg (female).
  • 88 kg (male) 74 kg (female).

Question 5

Question
31.2.1.4 (1569) The standard mass for a child is
Answer
  • 35 kg for holiday charters and 38 kg for all other flights.
  • 38 kg for all flights.
  • 35 kg for all flights.
  • 30 kg for holiday charters and 35 kg for all other flights.

Question 6

Question
31.2.1.4 (1571) In determining the Dry Operating Mass of an aeroplane it is common practice to use 'standard mass' values for crew. These values are
Answer
  • flight crew 85 kg., cabin crew 75 kg. each. These do not include a hand baggage allowance. c) flight crew (male) 88 kg. (female) 75 kg., cabin crew 75 kg. each. These include an allowance for hand baggage.
  • flight crew (male) 88 kg. (female) 75 kg., cabin crew 75 kg. each. These do not include an allowance for hand baggage.p
  • light crew 85 kg., cabin crew 75 kg. each. These are inclusive of a hand baggage allowance.
  • flight crew (male) 88 kg. (female) 75 kg., cabin crew 75 kg. each. These include an allowance for hand baggage.

Question 7

Question
31.2.1.5 (1577) The actual 'Take-off Mass' is equivalent to:
Answer
  • Dry Operating Mass plus the take-off fuel
  • Dry Operating Mass plus take-off fuel and the traffic load
  • Actual Zero Fuel Mass plus the traffic load
  • Actual Landing Mass plus the take-off fuel

Question 8

Question
31.2.1.5 (1578) Traffic load is the:
Answer
  • Zero Fuel Mass minus Dry Operating Mass
  • Dry Operating Mass minus the disposable load
  • Take-off Mass minus Zero Fuel Mass.
  • Dry Operating Mass minus the variable load.

Question 9

Question
31.2.1.5 (1579) The term 'useful load' as applied to an aeroplane includes
Answer
  • the revenue-earning portion of traffic load only.
  • traffic load plus useable fuel.
  • the revenue-earning portion of traffic load plus useable fuel.
  • traffic load only.

Question 10

Question
31.2.1.5 (1580) An aeroplane is performance limited to a landing mass of 54230 kg. The Dry Operating Mass is 35000 kg and the zero fuel mass is 52080 kg. If the take-off mass is 64280 kg the useful load is
Answer
  • 29280 kg.
  • 17080 kg
  • 12200 kg.
  • 10080 kg.

Question 11

Question
31.2.1.5 (1588) The crew of a transport aeroplane prepares a flight using the following data:- Block fuel: 40 000 kg- Trip fuel: 29 000 kg- Taxi fuel: 800 kg- Maximum take-off mass: 170 000 kg- Maximum landing mass: 148 500 kg- Maximum zero fuel mass: 112 500 kg- Dry operating mass: 80 400 kgThe maximum traffic load for this flight is:
Answer
  • 18 900 kg
  • 32 100 kg
  • 32 900 kg
  • 40 400 kg

Question 12

Question
31.2.1.5 (1589) The crew of a transport aeroplane prepares a flight using the following data:- Dry operating mass: 90 000 kg- Block fuel: 30 000 kg- Taxi fuel: 800 kg- Maximum take-off mass: 145 000 kgThe traffic load available for this flight is:
Answer
  • 25 000 kg
  • 25 800 kg
  • 55 000 kg
  • 55 800 kg

Question 13

Question
31.2.1.5 (1590) An aircraft basic empty mass is 3000 kg.The maximum take-off, landing, and zerofuel mass are identical, at 5200 kg. Ramp fuel is 650 kg, the taxi fuel is 50 kg.The payload available is :
Answer
  • 1 550 kg
  • 1 600 kg
  • 2 150 kg
  • 2 200 kg

Question 14

Question
31.2.2.0 (1591) The take-off mass of an aeroplane is 117 000 kg, comprising a traffic load of 18 000 kg and fuel of 46 000 kg. What is the dry operating mass?
Answer
  • 53 000 kg
  • 64 000 kg
  • 71 000 kg
  • 99 000 kg

Question 15

Question
31.2.2.1 (1593) An aeroplane may be weighed
Answer
  • in a quiet parking area clear of the normal manoeuvring area.
  • at a specified 'weighing location' on the airfield.
  • in an enclosed, non-air conditioned, hangar
  • in an area of the airfield set aside for maintenance

Question 16

Question
31.2.2.2 (1595) If individual masses are used, the mass of an aeroplane must be determined prior to initial entry into service and thereafter
Answer
  • at intervals of 4 years if no modifications have taken place.
  • at regular annual intervals.
  • at intervals of 9 years.
  • only if major modifications have taken place.

Question 17

Question
31.2.3.4 (1602) For the purpose of completing the Mass and Balance documentation, the Operating Mass is considered to be Dry Operating Mass plus
Answer
  • Take-off Fuel Mass
  • Ramp Fuel Mass.
  • rip Fuel Mass.
  • Ramp Fuel Mass less the fuel for APU and run-up.

Question 18

Question
31.2.3.5 (1608) Given:Dry Operating Mass= 29 800 kgMaximum Take-Off Mass= 52 400 kgMaximum Zero-Fuel Mass= 43 100 kgMaximum Landing Mass= 46 700 kgTrip fuel= 4 000 kgFuel quantity at brakes release= 8 000 kgThe maximum traffic load is:
Answer
  • 9 300 kg
  • 12 900 kg
  • 13 300 kg
  • 14 600 kg

Question 19

Question
31.2.3.5 (1609) Given the following :- Maximum structural take-off mass 48 000 kg- Maximum structural landing mass: 44 000 kg- Maximum zero fuel mass: 36 000 kg-Taxi fuel: 600 kg-Contingency fuel: 900 kg-Alternate fuel: 800 kg-Final reserve fuel: 1 100kg-Trip fuel: 9 000 kgDetermine the actual take-off mass:
Answer
  • 47 800 kg
  • 48 000 kg
  • 48 400 kg
  • 53 000 kg

Question 20

Question
31.2.3.5 (1621) A revenue flight is to be made by a jet transport. The following are the aeroplane's structural limits:-Maximum Ramp Mass: 69 900 kg-Maximum Take Off Mass: 69 300 kg-Maximum Landing Mass: 58 900 kg-Maximum Zero Fuel Mass: 52 740 kgTake Off and Landing mass are not performance limited.Dry Operating Mass: 34 930 kgTrip Fuel: 11 500 kgTaxi Fuel: 250 kgContingency & final reserve fuel: 1 450 kgAlternate Fuel: 1 350 kg The maximum traffic load that can be carried is:
Answer
  • 17 810 kg
  • 21 070 kg
  • 20 420 kg
  • 21 170 kg

Question 21

Question
31.2.3.5 (1624) The flight preparation of a turbojet aeroplane provides the following data: Take-off runway limitation: 185 000 kg Landing runway limitation: 180 000 kg Planned fuel consumption: 11 500 kg Fuel already loaded on board the aircraft: 20 000 kgKnowing that: Maximum take-off mass (MTOM): 212 000 kg Maximum landing mass (MLM): 174 000 kg Maximum zero fuel mass (MZFM): 164 000 kg Dry operating mass (DOM): 110 000 kgThe maximum cargo load that the captain may decide to load on board is:
Answer
  • 54 000 kg
  • 55 000 kg
  • 55 500 kg
  • 61 500 kg

Question 22

Question
31.2.3.5 (1625) To calculate a usable take-off mass, the factors to be taken into account include:
Answer
  • Maximum landing mass augmented by fuel on board at take-off.
  • Maximum zero fuel mass augmented by the fuel burn.
  • Maximum landing mass augmented by the fuel burn.
  • Maximum take-off mass decreased by the fuel burn.

Question 23

Question
31.2.4.1 (1629) Prior to departure an aeroplane is loaded with 16500 litres of fuel at a fuel density of 780 kg/m³. This is entered into the load sheet as 16500 kg and calculations are carried out accordingly. As a result of this error, the aeroplane is
Answer
  • lighter than anticipated and the calculated safety speeds will be too high
  • lighter than anticipated and the calculated safety speeds will be too low
  • heavier than anticipated and the calculated safety speeds will be too high
  • heavier than anticipated and the calculated safety speeds will be too low.

Question 24

Question
31.2.4.1 (1632) When considering the effects of increased mass on an aeroplane, which of the following is true?
Answer
  • Gradient of climb for a given power setting will be higher.
  • Flight endurance will be increased.
  • Stalling speeds will be higher.
  • Stalling speeds will be lower.

Question 25

Question
31.2.4.4 (1634) If an aeroplane is at a higher mass than anticipated, for a given airspeed the angle of attack will
Answer
  • remain constant, drag will decrease and endurance will decrease.
  • remain constant, drag will increase and endurance will increase.
  • be decreased, drag will decrease and endurance will increase.
  • be greater, drag will increase and endurance will decrease.

Question 26

Question
31.2.4.4 (1635) In order to provide an adequate ""buffet boundary"" at the commencement of the cruise a speed of 1.3Vs is used. At a mass of 120000 kg this is a CAS of 180 knots. If the mass of the aeroplane is increased to 135000 kg the value of 1.3Vs will be
Answer
  • increased to 202 knots but, since the same angle of attack is used, drag and range will remain the same.
  • unaffected as Vs always occurs at the same angle of attack.
  • increased to 191 knots, drag will increase and air distance per kg of fuel will decrease
  • increased to 191 knots, drag will decrease and air distance per kg of fuel will increase.

Question 27

Question
31.3.1.1 (1643) The datum is a reference from which all moment (balance) arms are measured. Its precise position is given in the control and loading manual and it is located
Answer
  • at or near the focal point of the aeroplane axis system.
  • at or near the natural balance point of the empty aeroplane.
  • at or near the forward limit of the centre of gravity.
  • at a convenient point which may not physically be on the aeroplane.

Question 28

Question
31.3.1.3 (1653) A mass of 500 kg is loaded at a station which is located 10 metres behind the present Centre of Gravity and 16 metres behind the datum. (Assume: g=10 m/s^2)The moment for that mass used in the loading manifest is :
Answer
  • 30000 Nm
  • 50000 Nm
  • 80000 Nm
  • 130000 Nmg

Question 29

Question
31.3.2.2 (1669) Given:Total mass: 7500 kgCentre of gravity (cg) location station: 80.5 Aft cg limit station: 79.5How much cargo must be shifted from the aft cargo compartment at station 150 to the forward cargo compartment at station 30 in order to move the cg location to the aft limit?
Answer
  • 62.5 kg.
  • 65.8 kg.
  • 68.9 kg.
  • 73.5 kg.

Question 30

Question
31.3.2.4 (1717) Length of the mean aerodynamic chord = 1 mMoment arm of the forward cargo: -0,50 mMoment arm of the aft cargo: + 2,50 mThe aircraft mass is 2 200 kg and its centre of gravity is at 25% MACTo move the centre of gravity to 40%, which mass has to be transferred from the forward to the aft cargo hold?
Answer
  • 104 kg
  • 110 kg
  • 165 kg
  • 183 kg

Question 31

Question
32.1.1.0 (1724) Regarding take-off, the take-off decision speed V1:
Answer
  • is the airspeed of the aeroplane upon reaching 35 feet above the take-off surface.
  • is an airspeed at which the aeroplane is airborne but below 35 ft and the pilot is assumed to have made a decision to continue or discontinue the take-off .
  • is the airspeed on the ground at which the pilot is assumed to have made a decision to continue or discontinue the take-off.
  • is always equal to VEF (Engine Failure speed).

Question 32

Question
32.1.1.0 (1726) Which of the following statements is correct?
Answer
  • Induced drag decreases with increasing speed.
  • nduced drag increases with increasing speed.
  • Induced drag is independant of the speed.
  • Induced drag decreases with increasing angle of attack.

Question 33

Question
32.1.1.0 (1734) The speed VS is defined as
Answer
  • safety speed for take-off in case of a contaminated runway.
  • stalling speed or minimum steady flight speed at which the aeroplane is controllable.
  • design stress speed
  • speed for best specific range.

Question 34

Question
2.1.1.0 (1733) The coefficient of lift can be increased either by flap extension or by
Answer
  • increasing the CAS.
  • increasing the angle of attack.
  • increasing the TAS.
  • decreasing the 'nose-up' elevator trim setting.

Question 35

Question
32.1.1.0 (1735) The stalling speed or the minimum steady flight speed at which the aeroplane is controllable in landing configuration is abbreviated as
Answer
  • VS
  • VS1
  • VSO
  • VMC

Question 36

Question
32.1.1.0 (1738) The rate of climb
Answer
  • is approximately climb gradient times true airspeed divided by 100.
  • is the downhill component of the true airspeed.
  • is the horizontal component of the true airspeed
  • is angle of climb times true airspeed.

Question 37

Question
32.1.1.0 (1742) The load factor in a turn in level flight with constant TAS depends on
Answer
  • the radius of the turn and the bank angle.
  • the true airspeed and the bank angle.
  • the bank angle only.
  • the radius of the turn and the weight of the aeroplane.

Question 38

Question
32.1.1.0 (1743) The induced drag of an aeroplane
Answer
  • decreases with increasing gross weight.
  • decreases with increasing airspeed.
  • is independent of the airspeed.
  • increases with increasing airspeed

Question 39

Question
32.1.1.0 (1744) The induced drag of an aeroplane at constant gross weight and altitude is highest at
Answer
  • VSO (stalling speed in landing configuration)
  • VS1 (stalling speed in clean configuration)
  • VMO (maximum operating limit speed)
  • VA (design manoeuvring speed)

Question 40

Question
32.1.2.1 (1750) An increase in atmospheric pressure has, among other things, the following consequences on take-off performance:
Answer
  • a reduced take-off distance and improved initial climb performance
  • an increases take-off distance and degraded initial climb performance
  • an increased take-off distance and improved initial climb performance
  • a reduced take-off distance and degraded initial climb performance0

Question 41

Question
32.1.3.0 (1767) A higher outside air temperature
Answer
  • increases the angle of climb but decreases the rate of climb.
  • does not have any noticeable effect on climb performance.
  • reduces the angle and the rate of climb.
  • reduces the angle of climb but increases the rate of climb.

Question 42

Question
32.1.3.0 (1767) A higher outside air temperature
Answer
  • increases the angle of climb but decreases the rate of climb.
  • does not have any noticeable effect on climb performance.
  • reduces the angle and the rate of climb.
  • reduces the angle of climb but increases the rate of climb.

Question 43

Question
32.1.3.0 (1768) A headwind component increasing with altitude, as compared to zero wind condition, (assuming IAS is constant)
Answer
  • does not have any effect on the angle of flight path during climb.
  • improves angle and rate of climb.
  • has no effect on rate of climb.
  • decreases angle and rate of climb.

Question 44

Question
32.1.3.3 (1786) What affect has a tailwind on the maximum endurance speed?
Answer
  • Tailwind only effects holding speed.
  • The IAS will be increased.
  • The IAS will be decreased.
  • No affect

Question 45

Question
32.2.1.1 (1788) The critical engine inoperative
Answer
  • increases the power required because of the greater drag caused by the windmilling engine and the compensation for the yaw effect
  • does not affect the aeroplane performance since it is independent of the power plant.
  • decreases the power required because of the lower drag caused by the windmilling engine.
  • increases the power required and decreases the total drag due to the windmilling engine.

Question 46

Question
32.2.1.1 (1790) The speed V1 is defined as
Answer
  • take-off climb speed.
  • speed for best angle of climb.
  • take-off decision speed.
  • engine failure speed.

Question 47

Question
32.2.1.1 (1792) VX is
Answer
  • the speed for best rate of climb.
  • the speed for best angle of climb.
  • the speed for best specific range.
  • the speed for best angle of flight path.

Question 48

Question
32.2.1.1 (1793) The speed for best rate of climb is called
Answer
  • VX.
  • VY.
  • V2
  • VO

Question 49

Question
32.2.2.1 (1794) Which of the following speeds can be limited by the 'maximum tyre speed'?
Answer
  • Lift-off IAS.
  • Lift-off TAS.
  • Lift-off groundspeed.
  • Lift-off EAS.

Question 50

Question
32.2.2.2 (1798) Which of the following combinations adversely affects take-off and initial climb performance ?
Answer
  • High temperature and low relative humidity
  • Low temperature and low relative humidity
  • High temperature and high relative humidity
  • Low temperature and high relative humidity

Question 51

Question
32.2.2.2 (1799) What effect has a downhill slope on the take-off speeds? The slope
Answer
  • decreases the take-off speed V1.
  • decreases the TAS for take-off.
  • increases the IAS for take-off.
  • has no effect on the take-off speed V1.

Question 52

Question
32.2.2.2 (1802) Due to standing water on the runway the field length limited take-off mass will be
Answer
  • lower.
  • higher.
  • unaffected.
  • only higher for three and four engine aeroplanes.

Question 53

Question
32.2.2.2 (1804) Which of the following are to be taken into account for the runway in use for takeoff ?
Answer
  • Airport elevation, runway slope, standard temperature, standard pressure and wind components.
  • Airport elevation, runway slope, standard temperature, pressure altitude and wind components.
  • Airport elevation, runway slope, outside air temperature, pressure altitude and wind components.
  • Airport elevation, runway slope, outside air temperature, standard pressure and wind components.

Question 54

Question
32.2.2.2 (1806) A higher pressure altitude at ISA temperature
Answer
  • decreases the field length limited take-off mass.
  • increases the climb limited take-off mass.
  • decreases the take-off distance.
  • has no influence on the allowed take-off mass.

Question 55

Question
32.2.3.1 (1817) An aircraft has two certified landing flaps positions, 25° and 35°.If a pilot chooses 35° instead of 25°, the aircraft will have:
Answer
  • a reduced landing distance and degraded go-around performance
  • a reduced landing distance and better go-around performance
  • an increased landing distance and degraded go-around performance
  • an increased landing distance and better go-around performance

Question 56

Question
32.2.3.1 (1819) If the airworthiness documents do not specify a correction for landing on a wet runway, the landing distance must be increased by:
Answer
  • 5%
  • 10%
  • 15%
  • 20%

Question 57

Question
32.2.3.2 (1828) In a steady descending flight (descent angle GAMMA) equilibrium of forces acting on the aeroplane is given by:(T = Thrust, D = Drag, W = Weight)
Answer
  • T - W sin GAMMA = D
  • T - D = W sin GAMMA
  • T + W sin GAMMA = D
  • T + D = - W sin GAMMA

Question 58

Question
32.2.3.2 (1829) An aeroplane executes a steady glide at the speed for minimum glide angle. If the forward speed is kept constant, what is the effect of a lower mass? Rate of descent / Glide angle / CL/CD ratio
Answer
  • increases / increases / decreases
  • decreases / constant / decreases
  • increases / increases / constant
  • increases / constant / increases

Question 59

Question
32.2.3.2 (1832) Which of the following factors will lead to an increase of ground distance during a glide, while maintaining the appropriate minimum glide angle speed?
Answer
  • Decrease of aircraft mass
  • Increase of aircraft mass.
  • Tailwind.
  • Headwind.

Question 60

Question
32.2.3.2 (1833) Which of the following factors leads to the maximum flight time of a glide?
Answer
  • Low mass
  • High mass.
  • Headwind.
  • Tailwind.

Question 61

Question
32.2.3.3 (1844) The maximum horizontal speed occurs when:
Answer
  • The maximum thrust is equal to the total drag
  • The thrust is equal to the maximum drag.
  • The thrust is equal to minimum drag
  • The thrust does not increase further with increasing speed.

Question 62

Question
32.2.3.3 (1846) How does the lift coefficient for maximum range vary with altitude?(No compressibility effects.
Answer
  • The lift coefficient decreases with increasing altitude.
  • The lift coefficient increases with increasing altitude.
  • The lift coefficient is independant of altitude
  • Only at low speeds the lift coefficient decreases with increasing altitude

Question 63

Question
32.2.3.3 (1847) The optimum altitude
Answer
  • decreases as mass decreases.
  • is the altitude at which the specific range reaches its minimum
  • increases as mass decreases and is the altitude at which the specific range reaches its maximum.
  • is the altitude up to which cabin pressure of 8 000 ft can be maintained

Question 64

Question
32.2.3.3 (1849) The absolute ceiling
Answer
  • can be reached only with minimim steady flight speed
  • is the altitude at which the rate of climb theoretically is zero.
  • is the altitude at which the best climb gradient attainable is 5%
  • is the altitude at which the aeroplane reaches a maximum rate of climb of 100 ft/min.

Question 65

Question
32.2.3.3 (1850) The pilot of a light twin engine aircraft has calculated a 4 000 m service ceiling, based on the forecast general conditions for the flight and a take-off mass of 3 250 kg.If the take-off mass is 3 000 kg, the service ceiling will be:
Answer
  • less than 4 000 m.
  • higher than 4 000 m.
  • unchanged, equal to 4 000 m.
  • only a new performance analysis will determine if the service ceiling is higher or lower than 4 000 m.¹úw

Question 66

Question
32.3.1.0 (1858) Provided all other parameters stay constant. Which of the following alternatives will decrease the take-off ground run?
Answer
  • Increased pressure altitude, increased outside air temperature, increased take-off mass.
  • Decreased take-off mass, increased density, increased flap setting.
  • Decreased take-off mass, increased pressure altitude, increased temperature.
  • Increased outside air temperature, decreased pressure altitude, decreased flap setting.

Question 67

Question
32.3.1.1 (1860) During the certification flight testing of a twin engine turbojet aeroplane, the real take-off distances are equal to:- 1547 m with all engines running- 1720 m with failure of critical engine at V1, with all other things remaining unchanged.The take-off distance adopted for the certification file is:
Answer
  • 1547 m.
  • 1720 m.
  • 1779 m.
  • 1978 m.

Question 68

Question
32.3.1.1 (1868) Which statement is correct?
Answer
  • The climb limited take-off mass increases when a larger take-off flap setting is used
  • The performance limited take-off mass is the highest of:field length limited take-off massclimb limited take-off massobstacle limited take-off mass.
  • The climb limited take-off mass depends on pressure altitude and outer air temperature
  • The climb limited take-off mass will increase if the headwind component increases.

Question 69

Question
32.3.1.1 (1871) The minimum value of V2 must exceed ""air minimum control speed"" by:
Answer
  • 10%
  • 15%
  • 20%
  • 30%

Question 70

Question
32.3.1.1 (1875) During the flight preparation a pilot makes a mistake by selecting a V1 greater than that required. Which problem will occur when the engine fails at a speed immediatly above the correct value of V1?
Answer
  • The one engine out take-off distance required may exceed the take-off distance available.
  • V2 may be too high so that climb performance decreases.
  • It may lead to over-rotation.
  • The stop distance required will exceed the stop distance available.

Question 71

Question
32.3.1.1 (1877) Which of the following statements is correct?
Answer
  • VR is the speed at which the pilot should start to rotate the aeroplane.
  • VR should not be higher than V1.
  • VR should not be higher than 1.05 VMCG.
  • VR is the speed at which, during rotation, the nose wheel comes off the runway.

Question 72

Question
32.3.1.1 (1878) Complete the following statement regarding the take-off performance of an aeroplane in performance class A. Following an engine failure at (i) ........... and allowing for a reaction time of (ii) ........... a correctly loaded aircraft must be capable of decelerating to a halt within the (iii) .........
Answer
  • (i) V1 (ii) 2 seconds (iii) Take-off distance available.
  • (i) V1 (ii) 1 second (iii) Accelerate - stop distance available.
  • (i) V1 (ii) 2 seconds (iii) Accelerate - stop distance available.
  • (i) V2 (ii) 3 seconds (iii) Take-off distance available.

Question 73

Question
32.3.1.1 (1893) Which of the following is true with regard to VMCA (air minimum control speed)?
Answer
  • Straight flight can not be maintained below VMCA, when the critical engine has failed.
  • The aeroplane is uncontrollable below VMCA
  • The aeroplane will not gather the minimum required climb gradient
  • VMCA only applies to four-engine aeroplanes

Question 74

Question
32.3.1.1 (1894) Which of the following will decrease V1?
Answer
  • Inoperative anti-skid.
  • Increased take-off mass.
  • Inoperative flight management system.
  • Increased outside air temperature.

Question 75

Question
32.3.1.1 (1895) In case of an engine failure recognized below V1
Answer
  • the take-off may be continued if a clearway is available.
  • the take-off should only be rejected if a stopway is available.
  • the take-off must be rejected.
  • the take-off is to be continued unless V1 is less than the balanced V1.

Question 76

Question
32.3.1.1 (1896) In case of an engine failure which is recognized at or above V1
Answer
  • the take-off must be rejected if the speed is still below VLOF
  • a height of 50 ft must be reached within the take-off distance.
  • the take-off must be continued.
  • the take-off should be rejected if the speed is still below VR.

Question 77

Question
32.3.1.2 (1901) How does runway slope affect allowable take-off mass, assuming other factors remain constant and not limiting?
Answer
  • Allowable take-off mass is not affected by runway slope.
  • A downhill slope increases allowable take-off mass.
  • A downhill slope decreases allowable take-off mass.
  • An uphill slope increases take-off mass

Question 78

Question
32.3.1.2 (1902) Uphill slope
Answer
  • increases the take-off distance more than the accelerate stop distance.
  • decreases the accelerate stop distance only.
  • decreases the take-off distance only.
  • increases the allowed take-off mass.

Question 79

Question
32.3.1.3 (1906) The required Take-off Distance (TOD) and the field length limited Take-off Mass (TOM) are different for the zero flap case and take-off position flap case. What is the result of flap setting in take-off position compared to zero flap position?
Answer
  • Increased TOD required and increased field length limited TOM.
  • Decreased TOD required and decreased field length limited TOM.
  • Decreased TOD required and increased field length limited TOM.
  • Increased TOD required and decreased field length limited TOM.

Question 80

Question
32.3.1.3 (1908) Reduced take-off thrust should normally not be used when: 
Answer
  • windshear is reported on the take-off path.
  • it is dark.
  • he runway is dry.
  • the runway is wet

Question 81

Question
32.3.1.3 (1910) Reduced take-off thrust should normally not be used when: 
Answer
  • the runway is contaminated.
  • it is dark.
  • the runway is wet
  • obstacles are present close to the end of the runway

Question 82

Question
32.3.1.3 (1906) The required Take-off Distance (TOD) and the field length limited Take-off Mass (TOM) are different for the zero flap case and take-off position flap case. What is the result of flap setting in take-off position compared to zero flap position?
Answer
  • Increased TOD required and increased field length limited TOM.
  • Decreased TOD required and increased field length limited TOM.
  • Increased TOD required and decreased field length limited TOM.
  • Decreased TOD required and decreased field length limited TOM

Question 83

Question
32.3.1.3 (1912) Which statement about reduced thrust is correct?
Answer
  • Reduced thrust can be used when the actual take-off mass is less than the field length limited take-off mass.
  • Reduced thrust is primarily a noise abatement procedure.
  • In case of reduced thrust V1 should be decreased.
  • Reduced thrust is used in order to save fuel.

Question 84

Question
32.3.1.3 (1914) Reduced take-off thrust
Answer
  • can be used if the actual take-off mass is higher than the performance limited take-off mass.
  • is not recommended at very low temperatures (OAT).
  • can be used if the headwind component during take-off is at least 10 kt.;
  • has the benefit of improving engine life.

Question 85

Question
32.3.1.4 (1915) What will be the effect on an aeroplane's performance if aerodrome pressure altitude is decreased?
Answer
  • It will increase the take-off distance required.
  • It will decrease the take-off distance required.
  • It will increase the accelerate stop distance.
  • It will increase the take-off ground run.

Question 86

Question
32.3.1.4 (1916) What will be the influence on the aeroplane performance if aerodrome pressure altitude is increased?
Answer
  • It will decrease the take-off distance.
  • It will increase the take-off distance.
  • It will increase the take-off distance available.
  • It will increase the accelerate stop distance available.

Question 87

Question
32.3.1.4 (1919) Other factors remaining constant and not limiting, how does increasing pressure altitude affect allowable take-off mass?
Answer
  • Allowable take-off mass increases.
  • There is no effect on allowable take-off mass.
  • Allowable take-off mass decreases.
  • Allowable take-off mass remains uninfluenced up to 5000 ft PA.

Question 88

Question
32.3.1.4 (1920) For a take-off from a contaminated runway, which of the following statements is correct?
Answer
  • he greater the depth of contamination at constant take-off mass, the more V1 has to be decreased to compensate for decreasing friction.
  • The performance data for take-off must be determined in general by means of calculation, only a few values are verified by flight tests.
  • Dry snow is not considered to affect the take-off performance
  • A slush covered runway must be cleared before take-off, even if the performance data for contaminated runway is available

Question 89

Question
32.3.1.5 (1927) Which of the following represents the maximum value for V1 assuming max tyre speed and max brake energy speed are not limiting?
Answer
  • VR
  • VMCA
  • VREF
  • V2

Question 90

Question
32.3.2.0 (1935) If the antiskid system is inoperative, which of the following statements is true?
Answer
  • The accelerate stop distance decreases.
  • Take-off with antiskid inoperative is not permitted.
  • The accelerate stop distance increases.
  • It has no effect on the accelerate stop distance

Question 91

Question
32.3.2.2 (1941) Before take-off the temperature of the wheel brakes should be checked. For what reason?
Answer
  • Because overheated brakes will not perform adequately in the event of a rejected take-off.
  • To ensure that the brake wear is not excessive.
  • To ensure that the wheels have warmed up evenly.
  • o ensure that the thermal blow-out plugs are not melted.

Question 92

Question
32.3.2.2 (1943) Which combination of circumstances or conditions would most likely lead to a tyre speed limited take-off?
Answer
  • A low runway elevation and a cross wind.
  • A high runway elevation and a head wind.
  • A high runway elevation and tail wind.
  • A low runway elevation and a head wind.

Question 93

Question
32.3.2.2 (1944) The 'maximum tyre speed' limits:
Answer
  • VR, or VMU if this is lower than VR.
  • VLOF in terms of ground speed.
  • V1 in kt TAS.
  • V1 in kt ground speed.

Question 94

Question
32.3.3.1 (1951) The minimum climb gradient required on the 2nd flight path segment after the take-off of a jet aeroplane is defined by the following parameters:1 Gear up2 Gear down3 Wing flaps retracted4 Wing flaps in take-off position5 N engines at the take-off thrust6 (N-1) engines at the take-off thrust7 Speed over the path equal to V2 + 10 kt8 Speed over the path equal to 1.3 VS9 Speed over the path equal to V210 At a height of 35 ft above the runwayThe correct statements are:
Answer
  • 1, 4, 6, 9
  • 1, 4, 5, 10
  • 2, 3, 6, 9
  • 1, 5, 8, 10

Question 95

Question
32.3.3.1 (1957) Which statement, in relation to the climb limited take-off mass of a jet aeroplane, is correct?
Answer
  • The climb limited take-off mass is determined at the speed for best rate of climb
  • The climb limited take-off mass decreases with increasing OAT.
  • On high elevation airports equipped with long runways the aeroplane will always be climb limited.\x
  • 50% of a head wind is taken into account when determining the climb limited take-off mass

Question 96

Question
32.3.3.1 (1963) On a segment of the take-off flight path an obstacle requires a minimum gradient of climb of 2.6% in order to provide an adequate margin of safe clearance. At a mass of 110000 kg the gradient of climb is 2.8%. For the same power and assuming that the sine of the angle of climb varies inversely with mass, at what maximum mass will the aeroplane be able to achieve the minimum gradient?
Answer
  • 102150 kg
  • 118455 kg
  • 121310 kg
  • 106425 kg

Question 97

Question
32.3.3.4 (1968) An operator shall ensure that the net take-off flight path clears all obstacles. The half-width of the obstacle-corridor at the distance D from the end of the TODA is at least:
Answer
  • 0.125D
  • -90m + 1.125D
  • 90m + 0.125D
  • 90m + D/0.125

Question 98

Question
32.3.4.2 (1983) A jet aeroplane is climbing at a constant IAS and maximum climb thrust, how will the climb angle / the pitch angle change?
Answer
  • Remain constant / decrease.
  • Reduce / decrease.
  • Reduce / remain constant.
  • Remain constant / become larger

Question 99

Question
32.3.4.2 (1992) As long as an aeroplane is in a positive climb
Answer
  • VX is sometimes below and sometimes above VY depending on altitude.
  • VX is always above VY.
  • VX is always below VY.
  • VY is always above VMO.

Question 100

Question
32.3.5.1 (1997) Which of the following factors determines the maximum flight altitude in the ""Buffet Onset Boundary"" graph? 
Answer
  • Aerodynamics.
  • Theoretical ceiling.
  • Service ceiling.
  • Economy

Question 101

Question
32.3.5.1 (2000) The maximum operating altitude for a certain aeroplane with a pressurised cabin
Answer
  • is dependent on the OAT.
  • is dependent on aerodynamic ceiling.
  • is the highest pressure altitude certified for normal operation
  • is only certified for four-engine aeroplanes.

Question 102

Question
32.3.5.1 (2001) Why are 'step climbs' used on long distance flights ?
Answer
  • Step climbs do not have any special purpose for jet aeroplanes, they are used for piston engine aeroplanes only
  • To respect ATC flight level constraints
  • To fly as close as possible to the optimum altitude as aeroplane mass reduces.
  • Step climbs are only justified if at the higher altitude less headwind or more tailwind can be expected

Question 103

Question
32.3.5.2 (2007) For jet-engined aeroplanes, what is the effect of increased altitude on specific range?
Answer
  • Increases.
  • Decreases.
  • Does not change.
  • Increases only if there is no wind

Question 104

Question
32.3.5.2 (2009) Long range cruise is a flight procedure which gives:
Answer
  • a 1% higher TAS for maximum specific range.
  • an IAS which is 1% higher than the IAS for maximum specific range.
  • a specific range which is about 99% of maximum specific range and higher cruise speed
  • a specific range which is 99% of maximum specific range and a lower cruise speed

Question 105

Question
32.3.5.2 (2011) Two identical turbojet aeroplane (whose specific fuel consumptions are considered to be equal) are at holding speed at the same altitude.The mass of the first aircraft is 130 000 kg and its hourly fuel consumption is 4300 kg/h. The mass of the second aircraft is 115 000 kg and its hourly fuel consumption is:
Answer
  • 3804 kg/h
  • 3365 kg/h.
  • 4044 kg/h
  • 3578 kg/h.

Question 106

Question
32.3.5.2 (2012) A jet aeroplane is flying long range cruise. How does the specific range / fuel flow change?
Answer
  • Increase / decrease.
  • Increase / increase.
  • Decrease / increase
  • Decrease / decrease

Question 107

Question
32.3.5.2 (2019) The pilot of a jet aeroplane wants to use a minimum amount of fuel between two airfields. Which flight procedure should the pilot fly?
Answer
  • Maximum range.
  • Maximum endurance.
  • Holding.
  • Long range.

Question 108

Question
32.3.5.2 (2020) Which of the following is a reason to operate an aeroplane at 'long range speed'?
Answer
  • In order to achieve speed stability.
  • he aircraft can be operated close to the buffet onset speed
  • In order to prevent loss of speed stability and tuck-under.
  • It is efficient to fly slightly faster than with maximum range speed

Question 109

Question
32.3.5.2 (2021) ""Maximum endurance""
Answer
  • can be flown in a steady climb only.
  • can be reached with the 'best rate of climb' speed in level flight
  • is achieved in unaccelerated level flight with minimum fuel consumption.
  • is the same as maximum specific range with wind correction

Question 110

Question
32.3.5.2 (2026) Moving the center of gravity from the forward to the aft limit (gross mass, altitude and airspeed remain unchanged)
Answer
  • decreases the induced drag and reduces the power required.
  • increases the power required.
  • increases the induced drag.
  • affects neither drag nor power required.

Question 111

Question
32.3.5.2 (2028) The speed range between low speed buffet and high speed buffet
Answer
  • decreases with increasing mass and is independent of altitude.
  • is only limiting at low altitudes
  • narrows with increasing mass and increasing altitude
  • increases with increasing mass

Question 112

Question
32.3.5.2 (2029) The danger associated with low speed and/or high speed buffet
Answer
  • limits the maneuvering load factor at high altitudes.
  • can be reduced by increasing the load factor.
  • has to be considered at take-off and landing.?
  • exists only above MMO.

Question 113

Question
32.3.5.2 (2038) The optimum cruise altitude is
Answer
  • the pressure altitude at which the best specific range can be achieved
  • the pressure altitude at which the fuel flow is a maximum
  • the pressure altitude up to which a cabin altitude of 8000 ft can be maintained.
  • the pressure altitude at which the speed for high speed buffet as TAS is a maximum.

Question 114

Question
32.3.5.2 (2039) The optimum cruise altitude increases
Answer
  • if the temperature (OAT) is increased
  • if the aeroplane mass is decreased.
  • if the aeroplane mass is increased
  • if the tailwind component is decreased.

Question 115

Question
32.3.5.2 (2040) Below the optimum cruise altitude
Answer
  • the IAS for long range cruise increases continuously with decreasing altitude
  • the TAS for long range cruise increases continuously with decreasing altitude.
  • the Mach number for long range cruise decreases continuously with decreasing altitude
  • the Mach number for long range cruise increases continuously with decreasing altitude

Question 116

Question
32.3.5.2 (2041) Under which condition should you fly considerably lower (4 000 ft or more) than the optimum altitude ?
Answer
  • If at the lower altitude either considerably less headwind or considerably more tailwind can be expected.
  • If the maximum altitude is below the optimum altitude
  • If the temperature is lower at the low altitude (high altitude inversion).
  • If at the lower altitude either more headwind or less tailwind can be expected.

Question 117

Question
32.3.5.2 (2042) On a long distance flight the gross mass decreases continuously as a consequence of the fuel consumption. The result is:
Answer
  • The speed must be increased to compensate the lower mass.
  • The specific range and the optimum altitude increases
  • The specific range increases and the optimum altitude decreases.
  • The specific range decreases and the optimum altitude increases

Question 118

Question
32.3.5.2 (2043) If the thrust available exceeds the thrust required for level flight
Answer
  • the aeroplane descends if the airspeed is maintained.
  • the aeroplane decelerates if it is in the region of reversed command
  • the aeroplane accelerates if the altitude is maintained.
  • the aeroplane decelerates if the altitude is maintained.

Question 119

Question
32.3.5.3 (2046) An aeroplane operating under the 180 minutes ETOPS rule may be up to :
Answer
  • 180 minutes flying time to a suitable airport in still air with one engine inoperative.
  • 180 minutes flying time to a suitable airport under the prevailing weather condition with one engine inoperative
  • 180 minutes flying time from suitable airport in still air at a normal cruising speed
  • 90 minutes flying time from the first enroute airport and another 90 minutes from the second enroute airport in still air with one engine inoperative.

Question 120

Question
32.3.5.3 (2049) A twin jet aeroplane is in cruise, with one engine inoperative, and has to overfly a high terrain area. In order to allow the greatest clearance height, the appropriate airspeed must be the airspeed
Answer
  • of greatest lift-to-drag ratio.
  • giving the lowest Cl/Cd ratio.
  • for long-range cruise.
  • giving the highest Cd/Cl ratio.

Question 121

Question
32.3.5.3 (2050) The drift down requirements are based on:
Answer
  • the obstacle clearance during a descent to the new cruising altitude if an engine has failed.
  • the actual engine thrust output at the altitude of engine failure.
  • the maximum flight path gradient during the descent.
  • the landing mass limit at the alternate

Question 122

Question
32.3.5.3 (2052) With all engines out, a pilot wants to fly for maximum time. Therefore he has to fly the speed corresponding to:
Answer
  • the critical Mach number.
  • the minimum drag
  • the maximum lift
  • the minimum angle of descent

Question 123

Question
After engine failure the aeroplane is unable to maintain its cruising altitude. What is the procedure which should be applied? 
Answer
  • ETOPS.
  • Drift Down Procedure
  • Emergency Descent Procedure.
  • Long Range Cruise Descent

Question 124

Question
32.3.5.3 (2054) 'Drift down' is the procedure to be applied
Answer
  • to conduct an instrument approach at the alternate
  • to conduct a visual approach if VASI is available
  • after engine failure if the aeroplane is above the one engine out maximum altitude
  • after cabin depressurization

Question 125

Question
32.3.5.4 (2058) The drift down procedure specifies requirements concerning the:
Answer
  • obstacle clearance during descent to the net level-off altitude
  • engine power at the altitude at which engine failure occurs
  • climb gradient during the descent to the net level-off altitude
  • weight during landing at the alternate

Question 126

Question
32.3.6.1 (2061) During a glide at constant Mach number, the pitch angle of the aeroplane will:
Answer
  • decrease
  • increaseincrease at first and decrease later on
  • increase at first and decrease later on
  • remain constant

Question 127

Question
32.3.6.1 (2062) An aeroplane carries out a descent from FL 410 to FL 270 at cruise Mach number, and from FL 270 to FL 100 at the IAS reached at FL 270.How does the angle of descent change in the first and in the second part of the descent?Assume idle thrust and clean configuration and ignore compressibility effects.
Answer
  • Increases in the first part, decreases in the second
  • Increases in the first part, is constant in the second.
  • Decreases in the first part, increases in the second
  • Is constant in the first part, decreases in the second.

Question 128

Question
32.3.6.1 (2065) Which statement is correct for a descent without engine thrust at maximum lift to drag ratio speed?
Answer
  • The higher the gross mass the greater is the speed for descent
  • The higher the gross mass the lower is the speed for descent.
  • The mass of an aeroplane does not have any effect on the speed for descent.
  • The higher the average temperature (OAT) the lower is the speed for descent.

Question 129

Question
32.3.6.1 (2066) Which statement is correct for a descent without engine thrust at maximum lift to drag ratio speed?
Answer
  • A tailwind component increases the ground distance
  • A headwind component increases the ground distance
  • A tailwind component decreases the ground distance
  • A tailwind component increases fuel and time to descent.

Question 130

Question
32.3.6.3 (2070) The approach climb requirement has been established so that the aeroplane will achieve:
Answer
  • minimum climb gradient in the event of a go-around with one engine inoperative.
  • manoeuverability in the event of landing with one engine inoperative.
  • manoeuverability during approach with full flaps and gear down, all engines operating.
  • obstacle clearance in the approach area.

Question 131

Question
32.3.6.3 (2073) To minimize the risk of hydroplaning during landing the pilot should:
Answer
  • use maximum reverse thrust, and should start braking below the hydroplaning speed.
  • postpone the landing until the risk of hydroplaning no longer exists.
  • make a ""positive"" landing and apply maximum reverse thrust and brakes as quickly as possible
  • use normal landing-, braking- and reverse technique.

Question 132

Question
32.3.6.3 (2074) Approaching in turbulent wind conditions requires a change in the landing reference speed (VREF):
Answer
  • Increasing VREF
  • Keeping same VREF because wind has no influence on IAS.
  • Lowering VREF
  • Increasing VREF and making a steeper glide path to avoid the use of spoilers.

Question 133

Question
32.3.6.3 (2075) What margin above the stall speed is provided by the landing reference speed VREF?
Answer
  • 1,05 VSO
  • 1,30 VSO
  • 1,10 VSO
  • VMCA x 1,2

Question 134

Question
32.3.6.3 (2078) The maximum mass for landing could be limited by
Answer
  • the climb requirements with one engine inoperative in the landing configuration
  • the climb requirements with all engines in the approach configuration.
  • the climb requirements with all engines in the landing configuration but with gear up.
  • the climb requirements with one engine inoperative in the approach configuration

Question 135

Question
32.3.6.3 (2082) The approach climb requirement has been established to ensure:
Answer
  • manoeuvrability in case of landing with one engine inoperative.
  • obstacle clearance in the approach area.
  • minimum climb gradient in case of a go-around with one engine inoperative.
  • manoeuvrability during approach with full flaps and gear down, all engines operating

Question 136

Question
33.1.1.1 (2088) VFR flights shall not be flown over the congested areas of cities at a height less than
Answer
  • 500 ft above the heighest obstacle
  • the heighest obstacle.
  • 1000 ft above the heighest obstacle within a radius of 600 m from the aircraft.
  • 2000 ft above the heighest obstacle within a radius of 600 ft from the aircraft.

Question 137

Question
33.1.1.4 (2110) An aeroplane flies at an airspeed of 380 kt. lt flies from A to B and back to A. Distance AB = 480 NM. When going from A to B, it experiences a headwind component = 60 kt. The wind remains constant.The duration of the flight will be:
Answer
  • 2h 35min
  • 3h 00min
  • 2h 10min
  • 2h 32min

Question 138

Question
33.1.1.4 (2113) Flight planning chart for an aeroplane states, that the time to reach the cruising level at a given gross mass is 36 minutes and the distance travelled is 157 NM component of 60kt ? (zero-wind). What will be the distance travelled with an average tailwind
Answer
  • 193 NM
  • 228 NM
  • 157 NM
  • 128 NM

Question 139

Question
33.1.2.0 (2116) You are to determine the maximum fuel load which can be carried in the following conditions :- dry operating mass : 2800 kg- trip fuel : 300 kg- payload : 400 kgmaximum take-off mass : 4200 kg- maximum landing mass : 3700 kg
Answer
  • 1000 kg
  • 700 kg
  • 800 kg
  • 500 kg

Question 140

Question
33.1.2.0 (2117) The fuel burn off is 200 kg/h with a relative fuel density of 0,8. If the relative density is 0,75, the fuel burn will be:
Answer
  • 200 kg/h
  • 213 kg/h
  • 267 kg/h
  • 188 kg/h

Question 141

Question
33.1.2.1 (2124) In the cruise at FL 155 at 260 kt TAS, the pilot plans for a 500 feet/min descent in order to fly overhead MAN VOR at 2 000 feet (QNH 1030). TAS will remain constant during descent, wind is negligible, temperature is standard.The pilot must start the descent at a distance from MAN of:
Answer
  • 110 NM
  • 130 NM
  • 140 NM
  • 120 NM

Question 142

Question
33.1.2.2 (2150) Given:Dry operating mass (DOM)= 33510 kgLoad= 7600 kgFinal reserve fuel= 983 kgAlternate fuel= 1100 kgContingency fuel 102 kgThe estimated landing mass at alternate should be :
Answer
  • 42093 kg.
  • 42210 kg.
  • 42195 kg.
  • 42312 kg.

Question 143

Question
33.1.2.3 (2158) In a flight plan when the destination aerodrome is A and the alternate aerodrome is B, the final reserve fuel for a turbojet engine aeroplane corresponds to:
Answer
  • 30 minutes holding 1,500 feet above aerodrome B
  • 15 minutes holding 2,000 feet above aerodrome A
  • 30 minutes holding 1,500 feeI above aerodrome A
  • 30 minutes holding 2,000 feet above aerodrome B

Question 144

Question
33.1.3.2 (2171) A multi engine piston aeroplane is on an IFR flight. The fuel plan gives a trip fuel of 65 US gallons. The alternate fuel, final reserve included, is 17 US gallons. Contingency fuel is 5% of the trip fuel. The usable fuel at departure is 93 US gallons. At a certain moment the fuel consumed according to the fuel gauges is 40 US gallons and the distance flown is half of the total distance. Assume that fuel consumption doesn't change. Which statement is right ?
Answer
  • At the destination there will still be 30 US gallons in the tanks
  • The remaining fuel is not sufficient to reach the destination with reserves intact
  • At departure the reserve fuel was 28 US gallons
  • At destination the required reserves remain intact.cep

Question 145

Question
33.2.1.1 (2182) A ""current flight plan"" is a :
Answer
  • filed flight plan.
  • filed flight plan with amendments and clearance included.
  • flight plan with the correct time of departure.
  • flight plan in the course of which radio communication should be practised between aeroplane and ATC.

Question 146

Question
33.2.1.1 (2187) In the ATS flight plan Item 13, in a flight plan submitted before departure, the departure time entered is the :
Answer
  • estimated time over the first point en route
  • estimated take-off time
  • estimated off-block time
  • allocated slot time

Question 147

Question
33.2.1.1 (2188) In the ATS flight plan Item 15 (Cruising speed), when not expressed as a Mach number, cruising speed is expressed as :
Answer
  • IAS
  • TAS
  • CAS
  • Groundspeed

Question 148

Question
33.2.1.1 (2196) An aircraft has a maximum certificated take-off mass of 137000 kg but is operating at take-off mass 135000 kg. In Item 9 of the ATS flight plan its wake turbulence category is :
Answer
  • heavy ""H""
  • heavy/medium ""H/M""
  • medium ""M""
  • medium plus ""M+""

Question 149

Question
33.2.1.1 (2197) For the purposes of Item 9 (Wake turbulence category) of the ATS flight plan, an aircraft with a maximum certificated take-off mass of 62000 kg is :
Answer
  • medium ""M""
  • heavy ""H""
  • light ""L""
  • unclassified ""U""

Question 150

Question
33.2.1.1 (2201) When completing an ATS flight plan for a European destination, clock times are to be expressed in :
Answer
  • Central European Time
  • local standard time
  • UTC
  • Local mean time

Question 151

Question
33.2.2.0 (2216) When a pilot fills in a flight plan, he must indicate the wake turbulence category. This category is a function of which mass?
Answer
  • estimated take-off mass
  • maximum certified take-off mass
  • maximum certified landing mass
  • actual take-off mass

Question 152

Question
33.2.2.0 (2219) In the appropriate box of a flight plan, for endurance, one must indicate the time corresponding to:
Answer
  • the required fuel for the flight plus the alternate and 45 minutes
  • the total usable fuel on board
  • the required fuel for the flight
  • the total usable fuel on board minus reserve fuel

Question 153

Question
33.2.2.1 (2222) The navigation plan reads:Trip fuel: 100 kgFlight time: 1h35minTaxi fuel: 3 kgBlock fuel: 181 kgThe endurance on the ICAO flight plan should read:
Answer
  • 1h 35min
  • 2h 04min
  • 2h 52min
  • 2h 49min

Question 154

Question
33.2.3.1 (2224) How many hours in advance of departure time should a flight plan be filed in the case of flights into areas subject to air traffic flow management (ATFM)?
Answer
  • 1:00 hour.
  • 0:30 hours.
  • 0:10 hours.
  • 3:00 hours.

Question 155

Question
33.2.3.1 (2228) For a flight plan filed before the flight, the indicated time of departure is:
Answer
  • the time of take-off.
  • the estimated off-block time
  • the time at which the flight plan is filed.
  • the time overhead the first reporting point after take-off.

Question 156

Question
33.2.3.3 (2229) From the options given below select those flights which require flight plan notification:I - Any Public Transport flight.2 - Any IFR flight3 - Any flight which is to be carried out in regions which are designated to ease the provision of the Alerting Service or the operations of Search and Rescue.4 - Any cross-border flights5 - Any flight which involves overflying water
Answer
  • 1+5
  • 2+4
  • 1+2+3
  • 3+4+5

Question 157

Question
33.2.5.1 (2231) When an ATS flight plan has been submitted for a controlled flight, the flight plan should be amended or cancelled in the event of the off-block time being delayed by :
Answer
  • 30 minutes or more
  • 45 minutes or more
  • 60 minutes or more
  • 90 minutes or more

Question 158

Question
33.3.2.1 (2244) The still air distance in the climb is 189 Nautical Air Miles (NAM) and time 30 minutes. What ground distance would be covered in a 30 kt head wind?
Answer
  • 174 NM
  • 203 NM
  • 193 NM
  • 188 NM

Question 159

Question
33.4.1.3 (2292) A METAR reads : SA1430 35002KY 7000 SKC 21/03 QI024 =Which of the following information is contained in this METAR ?
Answer
  • Temperature/dewpoint
  • runway in use
  • period of validity
  • day/month

Question 160

Question
33.4.2.4 (2339) An airway is marked 3500T 2100 a. This indicates that:
Answer
  • the minimum obstruction clearance altitude (MOCA) is 3500 ft
  • the airway base is 3500 ft MSL
  • The minimum enroute altitude (MEA) is 3500 ft
  • the airway is a low level link route 2100 ft - 3500 ft MSL

Question 161

Question
33.4.2.4 (2343) An airway is marked FL 80 1500 a. This indicates that:
Answer
  • 1500 ft MSL is the minimum radio reception altitude (MRA).
  • the airway base is 1500 ft MSL.
  • the minimum enroute altitude (MEA) is FL 80.
  • the airways extends from 1500 ft MSL to FL 80.

Question 162

Question
33.4.2.4 (2345) An airway is marked 5000 2900a. The notation 5000 is the : c) d) base of the airway (AGL)w
Answer
  • minimum enroute altitude (MEA)
  • maximum authorised altitude (MAA)
  • minimum holding altitude (MHA)
  • base of the airway (AGL)base of the airway (AGL)

Question 163

Question
33.4.2.5 (2347) Unless otherwise shown on charts for standard instrument departure the routes are given with:
Answer
  • magnetic headings
  • true course
  • magnetic course
  • true headings

Question 164

Question
33.4.3.1 (2361) From which of the following would you expect to find information regarding known short unserviceability of VOR, TACAN, and NDB ?
Answer
  • NOTAM
  • AIP (Air Information Publication)
  • SIGMET
  • ATCC broadcasts

Question 165

Question
33.4.3.1 (2363) From which of the following would you expect to find details of the Search and Rescue organisation and procedures (SAR) ?
Answer
  • ATCC broadcasts
  • SIGMET
  • NOTAM
  • AIP (Air Information Publication)

Question 166

Question
33.4.3.1 (2364) From which of the following would you expect to find facilitation information (FAL) regarding customs and health formalities ?
Answer
  • NAV/RAD charts
  • AIP (Air Information Publication)
  • ATCC
  • NOTAM

Question 167

Question
33.4.3.2 (2371) On an IFR navigation chart, in a 1° quadrant of longitude and latitude, appears the following information ""80"". This means that within this quadrant:
Answer
  • the minimum safe altitude is 8 000 ft
  • the minimum flight level is FL 80
  • the altitude of the highest obstacle is 8 000 ft
  • the floor of the airway is at 8 000 ft

Question 168

Question
33.4.3.2 (2382) On an instrument approach chart, a minimum sector altitude (MSA) is defined in relation to a radio navigation facility. Without any particular specification on distance, this altitude is valid to:
Answer
  • 20 NM
  • 10 NM
  • 25 NM
  • 15 NM

Question 169

Question
33.5.1.1 (2395) The required time for final reserve fuel for turbojet aeroplane is:
Answer
  • 30 min
  • 45 min
  • 60 min
  • Variable with wind velocity.

Question 170

Question
33.5.1.1 (2396) The purpose of the decision point procedure is ?
Answer
  • To increase the safety of the flight.
  • To reduce the landing weight and thus reduce the structural stress on the aircraft.
  • To reduce the minimum required fuel and therefore be able to increase the traffic load.
  • To increase the amount of extra fuel.

Question 171

Question
33.5.1.1 (2397) When using decision point procedure, you reduce the
Answer
  • contingency fuel by adding contingency only from the burnoff between decision point and destination.
  • contingency fuel by adding contingency only from the burnoff between the decision airport and destination.
  • reserve fuel from 10% down to 5%. 
  • holding fuel by 30%

Question 172

Question
33.5.1.1 (2399) Mark the correct statement:If a decision point procedure is applied for flight planning,
Answer
  • the trip fuel to the destination aerodrome is to be calculated via the suitable enroute alternate.
  • the trip fuel to the destination aerodrome is to be calculated via the decision point.
  • the fuel calculation is based on a contingency fuel from departure aerodrome to the decision point.
  • a destination alternate is not required.

Question 173

Question
33.5.1.1 (2403) A jet aeroplane is to fly from A to B. The minimum final reserve fuel must allow for :
Answer
  • 30 minutes hold at 1500 ft above mean sea level.
  • 30 minutes hold at 1500 ft above destination aerodrome elevation, when no alternate is required.
  • 20 minutes hold over alternate airfield.
  • 15 minutes hold at 1500 ft above destination aerodrome elevation.

Question 174

Question
33.5.1.1 (2408) Planning a flight from Paris (Charles de Gaulle) to London (Heathrow) for a twin - jet aeroplane.Preplanning:Maximum Take-off Mass: 62 800 kgMaximum Zero Fuel Mass: 51 250 kgMaximum Landing Mass: 54 900 kgMaximum Taxi Mass: 63 050 kgAssume the following preplanning results:Trip fuel: 1 800 kgAlternate fuel: 1 400 kgHolding fuel (final reserve): 1 225 kgDry Operating Mass: 34 000 kgTraffic Load: 13 000 kgCatering: 750 kgBaggage: 3 500 kgFind the Take-off Mass (TOM):
Answer
  • 51 515 kg.
  • 55 765 kg.
  • 51 425 kg.
  • 52 265 kg.

Question 175

Question
33.5.1.1 (2424) The final reserve fuel for aeroplanes with turbine engines is
Answer
  • fuel to fly for 30 minutes at holding speed at 1500 ft (450 m) above aerodrome elevation in standard conditions.
  • fuel to fly for 45 minutes at holding speed at 1500 ft (450 m) above aerodrome elevation in standard conditions.
  • fuel to fly for 60 minutes at holding speed at 1500 ft (450 m) above aerodrome elevation in standard conditions
  • fuel to fly for 45 minutes at holding speed at 1000 ft (300 m) above aerodrome elevation in standard conditions.

Question 176

Question
33.5.1.2 (2455) Given :Distance A to B 3060 NMMean groundspeed 'out' 440 ktMean groundspeed 'back' 540 ktSafe Endurance 10 hoursThe time to the Point of Safe Return (PSR) is:
Answer
  • 3 hours 55 minutes
  • 5 hours 30 minutes
  • 5 hours 20 minutes
  • 5 hours 45 minutes

Question 177

Question
33.5.2.1 (2459) Which of the following statements is (are) correct with regard to computer flight plans 1. The computer takes account of bad weather on the route and adds extra fuel.2. The computer calculates alternate fuel sufficient for a missed approach, climb, cruise, descent and approach and landing at the destination alternate.
Answer
  • Statement 2 only
  • Both statements
  • Neither statement
  • Statement 1 only

Question 178

Question
33.7.1.1 (2517) To carry out a VFR flight to an off-shore platform, the minimum fuel quantity on board is:
Answer
  • that defined for VFR flights over land increased by 5 %
  • identical to that defined for VFR flights over land
  • at least equal to that defined for IFR flights
  • that defined for VFR flights over land increased by 10 %

Question 179

Question
40.1.1.1 (2520) Concerning the relation between performance and stress, which of the following statement(s) is (are) correct?
Answer
  • Domestic stress will not affect the pilot's performance because he is able to leave this stress on the ground.
  • A moderate level of stress may improve performance
  • A student will learn faster and better under severe stress
  • A well trained pilot is able to eleminate any kind of stress completely when he is scheduled to fly.

Question 180

Question
40.1.3.0 (2535) The errors resulting from an irrational indexing system in an operations manual are related to an interface mismatch between
Answer
  • Liveware - Software
  • Liveware - Hardware
  • Liveware - Environment
  • Liveware - Liveware

Question 181

Question
40.2.1.1 (2538) Gases of physiological importance to man are:
Answer
  • oxygen and carbon dioxide
  • nitrogen and carbon dioxide
  • oxygen, nitrogen and water vapor
  • oxygen and carbon monoxide

Question 182

Question
40.2.1.1 (2545) Fatigue and permanent concentration
Answer
  • increase the tolerance to hypoxia
  • lower the tolerance to hypoxia
  • do not affect hypoxia at all
  • will increase the tolerance to hypoxia when flying below 15 000 feet

Question 183

Question
40.2.1.1 (2546) The atmosphere contains the following gases:
Answer
  • 78% nitrogen, 21% oxygen, 0,03% carbon dioxide, rest: rare gases
  • 78% nitrogen, 21% oxygen, 1% carbon monoxide, rest: rare gases
  • 78% helium, 21% oxygen, 1% carbon monoxide, rest: rare gases
  • 78% helium, 21% oxygen, 0,03% carbon dioxide, rest: rare gases

Question 184

Question
40.2.1.1 (2547) An increase in the amount of carbon dioxide in the blood leads to:
Answer
  • shortness of breath
  • an improving resistance to hypoxia;
  • a decrease of acidity in the blood
  • a reduction of red blood cells

Question 185

Question
40.2.1.1 (2549) The chemical composition of the earth´s atmosphere (I C A O standard atmosphere) is
Answer
  • 78 % nitrogen, 21 % oxygen, 0,9 % carbon dioxide, 0,03 % argon
  • 78 % nitrogen, 21 % oxygen, 0,9 % argon, 0,03 % carbon dioxide
  • 78 % nitrogen, 28 % oxygen, 0,9 % carbon dioxide, 0,03 % argon
  • 71 % nitrogen, 28 % oxygen, 0,9 % argon, 0,03 % carbon dioxide

Question 186

Question
40.2.1.1 (2550) According to the I.C.A.O. standard atmosphere, the temperature lapse rate of the troposphere is approximately
Answer
  • - 2 °C every 1000 feet constant in the troposphere
  • 2 °C every 1000 metres
  • constant in the troposphere
  • 10 °C every 100 feet

Question 187

Question
40.2.1.1 (2554) Which data compose the ICAO standard atmosphere ?1. Density2. Pressure3. Temperature4. Humidity
Answer
  • 1,2 ,3
  • 1, 2 ,4
  • 2,3 ,4
  • 3 , 4

Question 188

Question
40.2.1.1 (2558) Oxygen, combined with hemoglobin in blood is transported by
Answer
  • platelets
  • red blood cells
  • white blood cells
  • blood plasma

Question 189

Question
40.2.1.2 (2562) In the following list you will find several symptoms listed for hypoxia and carbon monoxide poisoning. Please mark those referring to carbon monoxide poisoning.
Answer
  • High levels of arousal, increased error proneness, lack of accuracy
  • Euphoria, accomodation problems, blurred vision.
  • Headache, increasing nausea, dizziness
  • Muscular spasms, mental confusion, impairment of hearing.

Question 190

Question
40.2.1.2 (2565) The most dangerous symptoms of hypoxia at altitude are a) b) c) d) breathlessness and reduced night vision
Answer
  • sensation of heat and blurred vision
  • hyperventilation
  • breathlessness and reduced night vision
  • euphoria and impairment of judgement

Question 191

Question
40.2.1.2 (2569) At what altitude (breathing 100% oxygen without pressure) could symptoms of hypoxia be expected?
Answer
  • Approximately 38 - 40 000 ft.
  • Approximately 10 - 12 000 ft.
  • Approximately 35 000 ft.
  • 22 000 ft

Question 192

Question
40.2.1.2 (2576) Oxygen in the blood is primarily transported by
Answer
  • attaching itself to the hemoglobin in the red blood plasma
  • the hemoglobin in the red blood cells
  • the blood plasma
  • attaching itself to the hemoglobin in the white blood cells

Question 193

Question
40.2.1.2 (2578) Hypoxia is caused by
Answer
  • reduced partial oxygen pressure in the lung
  • reduced partial pressure of nitrogen in the lung
  • an increased number of red blood cells
  • a higher affinity of the red blood cells (hemoglobin) to oxygen

Question 194

Question
40.2.1.2 (2582) In the following list you find some symptoms for hypoxia and carbon monoxide poisoning. Please mark those indicating hypoxia:
Answer
  • Visual disturbances, lack of concentration, euphoria.
  • Nausea and barotitis.
  • Dull headache and bends.
  • Dizziness, hypothermia.

Question 195

Question
40.2.1.2 (2583) Which of the following is a/are symptom(s) of hypoxia ?
Answer
  • Pain in the joints
  • Low blood pressure
  • Lack of concentration, fatigue, euphoria
  • Excessive rate and depth of breathing combined with pains in the chest area

Question 196

Question
40.2.1.2 (2584) A symptom comparison for hypoxia and hyperventilation is:
Answer
  • cyanosis (blue color of finger-nail and lips) exists only in hypoxia
  • there are great differences between the two
  • altitude hypoxia is very unlikely at cabin pressure altitudes above 10 000 ft
  • symptoms caused by hyperventilation will immediately vanish when 100% oxygen is given

Question 197

Question
40.2.1.2 (2588) Which of the following applies to carbon monoxide poisoning? a) b) . c) The human body shows no sign of carbon monoxide poisoning. d) Inhaling carbon monoxide leads to hyperventilation.
Answer
  • Several days are needed to recuperate from a carbon monoxide poisoning.
  • A very early symptom for realising carbon monoxide poisoning is euphoria
  • The human body shows no sign of carbon monoxide poisoning.
  • Inhaling carbon monoxide leads to hyperventilation.

Question 198

Question
40.2.1.2 (2593) The rate and depth of breathing is primarily controlled by:
Answer
  • the total atmospheric pressurell
  • the amount of carbon dioxide in the blood
  • the amount of carbon monoxide in the blood
  • the amount of nitrogen in the blood

Question 199

Question
40.2.1.2 (2597) What could cause hyperventilation ?
Answer
  • Fear, anxiety and distress
  • Abuse of alcohol
  • Fatigue
  • Extreme low rate of breathing

Question 200

Question
40.2.1.2 (2606) Symptoms of decompression sickness
Answer
  • are only relevant when diving
  • can only develop at altitudes of more than 40000 FT
  • are bends, chokes, skin manifestations, neurological symptoms and circulatory shock
  • are flatulence and pain in the middle earA
Show full summary Hide full summary

Want to create your own Quizzes for free with GoConqr? Learn more.

Similar

EXAMEN DE MATEMÁTICAS 1ER GRADO SECUNDARIA 5to Bim
FELIPE SOLTERO
Test Agencia de Viajes
jesikgr
Aeropuertos
agustin.diez.dev
Pioneros en la aviacion
moni-94
Ciencias de la Aviación
jreyes7435
1 SIMULADOR EXAMEN LICENCIA ASA
DIEGO CORTAZAR
Resumen de Selectividad Inglés
maya velasquez
Examen Primer trimestre
jorgeluisparedes
Prueba de Sociales y Ciudadanas
D. Valenzuela
Exani II - Estructura
Gastón Amato
ELEMENTOS Y CONCEPTOS FUNDAMENTALES trabajo final
supervisortropi
Browse Library