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EASA ATP Qatar Yellow 6

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Aviacion (Examen ) Quiz on EASA ATP Qatar Yellow 6, created by Alejandro Castillo on 24/05/2018.
Alejandro Castillo
Quiz by Alejandro Castillo, updated more than 1 year ago
Alejandro Castillo
Created by Alejandro Castillo almost 6 years ago
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Resource summary

Question 1

Question
81.1.10.1 (5446) Spoiler deflection causes :
Answer
  • an increase in lift and drag
  • an increase in lift only
  • an increase in drag and decrease in lift
  • decrease in lift and drag

Question 2

Question
81.1.10.1 (5447) Upon extension of a spoiler on a wing:
Answer
  • only CL is decreased (CD remains unaffected)
  • CD is increased and CL is decreased.
  • CD is increased, while CL remains unaffected.
  • both CL and CD are increased.

Question 3

Question
81.2.1.0 (5451) The formula for the Mach Number is:(a= speed of sound)
Answer
  • M= a / TAS
  • M= TAS / a
  • M= TAS*a
  • M= IAS / a

Question 4

Question
81.2.1.0 (5452) The Mach number:
Answer
  • is the ratio between the TAS of the aeroplane and the speed of sound at sea level.
  • is the ratio between the IAS of the aeroplane and the local speed of sound.
  • is the ratio between the TAS of the aeroplane and the local speed of sound.
  • increases at a given TAS, when the temperature rises.

Question 5

Question
81.2.1.1 (5453) Climbing at a constant Mach Number up to FL 350 the TAS will:
Answer
  • decrease.
  • increase.
  • remain constant.
  • first increase, then decrease.

Question 6

Question
81.2.1.1 (5455) Which statement with respect to the speed of sound is correct ?
Answer
  • Is independent of altitude.
  • Varies with the square root of the absolute temperature.
  • Increases always if the density of the air decreases.
  • Doubles if the temperature increases from 9° to 36° Centigrade.

Question 7

Question
81.2.1.2 (5456) If the altitude is increased and the TAS remains constant in the standard troposphere the Mach Number will:
Answer
  • increase.
  • not change.
  • decrease.
  • increase or decrease, depends of the type of aeroplane.

Question 8

Question
81.2.1.2 (5457) The speed of sound is affected by the:
Answer
  • density of the air.
  • temperature of the air.
  • humidity of the air.
  • pressure of the air.

Question 9

Question
81.2.1.2 (5458) An aeroplane is descending at a constant Mach number from FL 350. What is the effect on true airspeed ?
Answer
  • It increases as temperature increases
  • It decreases as altitude decreases
  • It decreases as pressure increases
  • It remains constant

Question 10

Question
81.2.2.0 (5460) A normal shock wave:
Answer
  • can occur at different points on the aeroplane in transonic flight.
  • is a discontinuity plane in an airflow, in which the pressure drops suddenly.
  • is a discontinuity plane in an airflow, in which the temperature drops suddenly.
  • is a discontinuity plane in an airflow, which is always normal to the surface.

Question 11

Question
81.2.2.0 (5461) Which statement is correct about a normal shock wave ?
Answer
  • The airflow changes from supersonic to subsonic
  • The airflow changes direction
  • The airflow expands when passing the aerofoil
  • The airflow changes from subsonic to supersonic

Question 12

Question
81.2.2.1 (5466) When the Mach number is slowly increased in straight and level flight the first shockwaves will occur:
Answer
  • on the underside of the wing
  • at the wing root segment, upperside.
  • somewhere on the fin.
  • somewhere on the hoizontal tail.

Question 13

Question
81.2.2.1 (5469) The critical Mach number for an aerofoil equals the free stream airfoil Mach number at which:
Answer
  • the maximum operating temperature is reached.
  • sonic speed (M=1) is reached at a certain point on the upper side of the aerofoil.
  • a shock-wave appears on the upper surface.
  • a ""supersonic bell"" appears on the upper surface.

Question 14

Question
81.2.2.1 (5474) Just above the critical Mach number the first evidence of a shock wave will appear at the
Answer
  • upper side of the wing.
  • lower side of the wing.
  • leading edge of the wing.
  • trailing edge of the wing.

Question 15

Question
81.2.2.1 (5475) Critical Mach-number is the :
Answer
  • speed at which there is subsonic airflow over all parts of the aircraaeroplane Mach number < 1).
  • highest speed without supersonic flow over any part of the aeroplane.
  • highest speed at which the aeroplane is certificated for operation (MMO).
  • speed at which there is supersonic airflow over all parts of the aeroplane.

Question 16

Question
81.2.2.1 (5476) The loss of total pressure in a shock wave is due to the fact that
Answer
  • the speed reduction is too high.
  • the static pressure decrease is comparatively high.
  • kinetic energy in the flow is changed into heat energy.
  • the friction in the boundary layer is higher.

Question 17

Question
81.2.2.2 (5479) Which of the following flight phenomena can happen at Mach Numbers below the critical Mach Number?
Answer
  • Tuck under.
  • Dutch roll.
  • Shock stall.
  • Mach buffet.

Question 18

Question
81.2.2.2 (5480) The critical Mach Number of an aeroplane can be increased by:
Answer
  • sweep back of the wings.
  • control deflection
  • vortex generators.
  • dihedral of the wings

Question 19

Question
81.2.2.2 (5481) In transonic flight the ailerons will be less effective than in subsonic flight because:
Answer
  • behind the shock wave pressure is lower.
  • aileron down deflection moves the shock wave forward.
  • aileron deflection only partly affects the pressure distribution around the wing.
  • aileron deflection only affects the air in front of the shock wave.

Question 20

Question
81.2.2.2 (5485) The critical Mach number can be increased by
Answer
  • positive dihedral of the wings.
  • sweepback of the wings
  • an increase in wing aspect ratio
  • a T-tail.

Question 21

Question
81.2.2.2 (5487) The application of the area rule on aeroplane design will decrease the
Answer
  • skin friction drag.
  • wave drag.
  • form drag.
  • induced drag.

Question 22

Question
81.2.2.3 (5491) How does stalling speed (IAS) vary with altitude?
Answer
  • It increases with increasing altitude, because the density decreases.
  • It remains constant.
  • It remains constant at lower altitudes but increases at higher altitudes due to compressibility effects.
  • It remains constant at lower altitudes but decreases at higher altitudes due to compressibility effects.

Question 23

Question
81.2.2.5 (5495) Which of the following flight phenomena can only happen at Mach Numbers above the critical Mach Number?
Answer
  • Mach buffet.
  • Speed instability.
  • Dutch roll.
  • Elevator stall.

Question 24

Question
81.2.2.5 (5496) Shock induced separation results in
Answer
  • constant lift.
  • increasing lift.
  • decreasing lift.
  • decreasing drag.

Question 25

Question
81.2.2.5 (5498) The high speed buffet is induced by
Answer
  • boundary layer control.
  • boundary layer separation due to shock waves.
  • a shift of the centre of gravity.
  • expansion waves on the wing upper side.

Question 26

Question
81.2.2.6 (5501) The Mach trim system will:
Answer
  • pump the fuel from tank to tank, depending on the Mach Number.
  • keep the Mach Number automatically constant.
  • adjust the stabilizer, depending on the Mach Number.
  • adjust the elevator trim tab, depending on the Mach Number

Question 27

Question
81.2.2.6 (5502) The Mach trim system will prevent:
Answer
  • tuck under.
  • buffeting.
  • dutch roll.
  • shock stall.

Question 28

Question
81.2.2.6 (5503) When an aeroplane is flying through the transonic range with increasing Mach Number the centre of the pressure of the wing will move aft. This requires:
Answer
  • much more thrust from the engine.
  • a pitch up input of the stabilizer.
  • a stability augmentation system.
  • a higher IAS to compensate the nose down effect

Question 29

Question
81.2.2.6 (5504) Tuck under will happen
Answer
  • only below the critical Mach number.
  • only above the critical Mach number
  • above or below the critical Mach number depending on the angle of attack.
  • only at the critical Mach number.

Question 30

Question
81.2.2.7 (5508) The maximum acceptable cruising altitude is limited by a minimum acceptable loadfactor because exceeding that altitude:
Answer
  • turbulence may exceed the limit load factor.
  • turbulence may induce Mach buffet.
  • Mach buffet will occur immediately.
  • a sudden necessary bankangle may exceed the limit load factor.

Question 31

Question
81.2.2.7 (5511) The buffet margin :
Answer
  • is always greatest after a stepclimb has been executed.
  • decreases during a descent with a constant Mach number.
  • increases during a descent with a constant IAS.
  • is always positive at Mach numbers below MMO.

Question 32

Question
81.2.3.1 (5512) Vortex generators on the upper side of the wing surface will:
Answer
  • increase the critical Mach Number.
  • decrease the span wise flow at high Mach Numbers
  • decrease the intensity of shock wave induced air separation
  • increase the magnitude of the shock wave.

Question 33

Question
81.2.3.1 (5513) Vortex generators on the upper side of the wing:
Answer
  • increase wave drag.
  • increase critical Mach Number.
  • decrease wave drag.
  • decrease critical Mach Number.

Question 34

Question
81.2.3.1 (5514) Vortex generators mounted on the upper wing surface will
Answer
  • decrease the stalling speed by increase of the tangential velocity of the swept wing.
  • increase the effectiveness of the spoiler due to increase in parasite drag.
  • decrease the interference drag of the trailing edge flaps.
  • decrease the shock wave induced separation.

Question 35

Question
81.3.1.3 (5526) Which statement is correct about an expansion wave in supersonic flow ?1. The temperature in front of an expansion wave is higher than the temperature behind it.2. The speed in front of an expansion wave is higher than the speed behind it.
Answer
  • 1 is correct and 2 is incorrect.
  • 1 and 2 are correct.
  • 1 is incorrect and 2 is correct.
  • 1 and 2 are incorrect.

Question 36

Question
81.3.1.4 (5529) The aft movement of the centre of pressure during the acceleration through the transonic flight regime will:
Answer
  • decrease the longitudinal stability.
  • increase the static lateral stability.
  • increase the static longitudinal stability.
  • decrease the static lateral stability.

Question 37

Question
81.3.1.5 (5532) The additional increase of drag at Mach Numbers above the critical Mach Number is due to:
Answer
  • increased interference drag.
  • increased angle of attack.
  • wave drag.
  • increased skin friction.

Question 38

Question
81.4.1.2 (5534) In which situation would the wing lift of an aeroplane in straight and level flight have the highest value ?
Answer
  • Forward centre of gravity and idle thrust.
  • Aft centre of gravity and idle thrust.
  • Forward centre of gravity and take-off thrust.
  • Aft centre of gravity and take-off thrust.

Question 39

Question
81.4.2.2 (5538) In a twin-engined jet powered aeroplane (engines mounted below the low wings) the thrust is suddenly increased. Which elevator deflection will be required to maintain the pitching moment zero ?
Answer
  • Up
  • Down.
  • No elevator movement will required because the thrust line of the engines remains unchanged.
  • It depends on the position of the centre of gravity.

Question 40

Question
81.4.3.1 (5539) Which of the following statements is correct?
Answer
  • Static stability means that the aeroplane is also dynamically satble about the relevant axis.
  • Dynamic stability means that after being displaced from original equilibrium condition, the aeroplane will return to that condition without oscillation.
  • Dynamic stability is possible only when the aeroplane is statically stable about the relevant axis.
  • A dynamically stable aeroplane would be almost impossible to fly manually.

Question 41

Question
81.4.3.2 (5547) The manoeuvrability of an aeroplane is best when the:
Answer
  • C.G. position is on the forward C.G. limit.
  • C.G. is on the aft C.G. limit.
  • speed is low
  • flaps are down

Question 42

Question
81.4.3.5 (5551) The max aft position of the centre of gravity is amongst others limited by the:
Answer
  • maximum longitudinal stability of the aeroplane.
  • minimum value of the stick force per g.
  • maximum elevator deflection.
  • too small effect of the controls on the aeroplane.

Question 43

Question
81.4.3.7 (5554) Which part of an aeroplane provides the greatest positive contribution to the static longitudinal stability ? 
Answer
  • The engine.
  • The fuselage.
  • The horizontal tailplane.
  • The wing.

Question 44

Question
81.4.3.11 (5557) ""Tuck under"" is:
Answer
  • the tendency to nose up when speed is increased into the transonic flight regime.
  • shaking of the control column at high Mach Number.
  • the tendency to nose down when speed is increased into the transonic flight regime
  • the tendency to nose down when the control column is pulled back.

Question 45

Question
81.4.3.11 (5558) ""Tuck under"" may happen at:
Answer
  • low Mach numbers.
  • high Mach numbers.
  • all Mach numbers.
  • only at low altitudes.

Question 46

Question
81.4.3.11 (5559) Which of the following statements about a Mach trimmer is correct?
Answer
  • A Mach trimmer corrects the change in stick force stability of a swept wing aeroplane above a certain Mach number.
  • A Mach trimmer reduces the stick force stability of a straight wing aeroplane to zero at high Mach numbers.
  • A straight wing aeroplane always needs a Mach trimmer for flying at Mach numbers close to MMO.
  • The Mach trimmer corrects the natural tendency of a swept wing aeroplane to pitch-up

Question 47

Question
81.4.6.3 (5576) Which one of the following systems suppresses the tendency to ""Dutch roll""?
Answer
  • Yaw damper
  • Roll spoilers.
  • Spoiler mixer.
  • Rudder limiter

Question 48

Question
81.4.6.3 (5577) Which aeroplane behaviour will be corrected by a yaw damper ?
Answer
  • Tuck under.
  • Spiral dive.
  • Dutch roll.
  • Buffeting.

Question 49

Question
81.5.1.1 (5581) Rolling is the rotation of the aeroplane about the:
Answer
  • vertical axis.
  • longitudinal axis.
  • lateral axis.
  • wing axis.

Question 50

Question
81.5.3.2 (5586) An advantage of locating the engines at the rear of the fuselage, in comparison to a location beneath the wing, is :
Answer
  • easier maintenance of the engines.
  • less influence on longitudinal control of thrust changes.
  • a wing which is less sensitive to flutter.
  • lighter wing construction.

Question 51

Question
81.5.4.3 (5591) During initiation of a turn with speedbrakes extended, the roll spoiler function induces a spoiler deflection:
Answer
  • upward on the upgoing wing and downward on the downgoing wing.
  • on the upgoing wing only.
  • downward on the upgoing wing and upward on the downgoing wing.
  • on the downgoing wing only.

Question 52

Question
81.5.4.5 (5592) Differential aileron deflection:
Answer
  • increases the CLmax.
  • is required to keep the total lift constant when ailerons are deflected.
  • equals the drag of the right and left aileron
  • is required to achieve the required roll-rate.

Question 53

Question
81.5.6.1 (5605) Examples of aerodynamic balancing of control surfaces are:
Answer
  • upper and lower rudder, seal between wing's trailing edge and leading edge of a control surface
  • seal between wing's trailing edge and leading edge of a control surface, horn balance
  • Fowler flaps, upper and lower rudder
  • weight in the nose of the control surface, horn balance

Question 54

Question
81.5.6.1 (5606) Examples of aerodynamic balancing of control surfaces are:
Answer
  • spring tab, servo tab, and power assisted control.
  • mass in the nose of the control surface, horn balance and mass balance.
  • servo tab, spring tab, seal between the wing trailing edge and the leading edge of control surface.
  • balance tab, horn balance, and mass balance.

Question 55

Question
81.5.8.2 (5612) In general transport aeroplanes with power assisted flight controls are fitted with an adjustable stabilizer instead of trim tabs on the elevator. This is because :
Answer
  • the pilot does not feel the stick forces at all
  • effectiveness of trim tabs is insufficient for those aeroplanes
  • mechanical adjustment of trim tabs creates too many problems
  • trim tab deflection increases Mcrit

Question 56

Question
81.6.1.0 (5619) ""Flutter"" may be caused by:
Answer
  • low airspeed aerodynamic wing stall.
  • distorsion by bending and torsion of the structure causing increasing vibration in the resonance frequency.
  • high airspeed aerodynamic wing stall.
  • roll control reversal.

Question 57

Question
81.6.1.1 (5620) A commercial jet aeroplane is performing a straight descent at a constant Mach Number with constant weight. The operational limit that may be exceeded is:
Answer
  • VMO.
  • VNE.
  • VD.
  • MMO

Question 58

Question
81.6.1.2 (5622) A jet transport aeroplane is in a straight climb at a constant IAS and constant weight. The operational limit that may be exceeded is:
Answer
  • VMO.
  • MMO.
  • VA.
  • MD.

Question 59

Question
81.6.1.2 (5623) Which statement with respect to the climb is correct ?
Answer
  • At constant IAS the Mach number increases
  • At constant Mach number the IAS increases
  • At constant IAS the TAS decreases
  • At constant TAS the Mach number decreases

Question 60

Question
81.6.2.1 (5630) Load factor is :
Answer
  • Lift/Weight
  • 1/Bank angle
  • Weight/Lift
  • Wing loading

Question 61

Question
81.6.3.1 (5639) Which combination of speeds is applicable for structural strength in gust (clean configuration) ?
Answer
  • 66 ft/sec and VD.
  • 65 ft/sec at all speeds.
  • 50 ft/sec and VC.
  • 55 ft/sec and VB.

Question 62

Question
81.6.3.2 (5644) Which statement is correct about the gust load on an aeroplane (IAS and all other factors of importance remaining constant) ?1. the gust load increases, when the weight decreases.2. the gust load increases, when the altitude increases.
Answer
  • 1 and 2 are correct.
  • 1 is correct and 2 is incorrect.
  • 1 is incorrect and 2 is correct.
  • 1 and 2 are incorrect.

Question 63

Question
81.8.1.4 (5671) Which of the following factors will lead to an increase of ground distance during a glide ?
Answer
  • headwind
  • tailwind
  • increase of aeroplane weigh
  • decrease of aeroplane weight

Question 64

Question
81.8.1.5 (5675) A light twin is in a turn at 20 degrees bank and 150 kt TAS. A more heavy aeroplane at the same bank and the same speed will:
Answer
  • turn at the same turn radius.
  • turn at a smaller turn radius.
  • turn at a bigger turn radius.
  • turn at a higher turn rate

Question 65

Question
81.8.2.9 (5680) Which of the following statements is correct ?I When the critical engine fails during take-off the speed VMCL can be limiting.II The speed VMCL is always limited by maximum rudder deflection.
Answer
  • I is correct, II is correct
  • I is incorrect, II is incorrect
  • I is correct, II is incorrect
  • I is incorrect, II is correct

Question 66

Question
91.1.1.0 (5690) What does the term ""blind transmission"" mean?
Answer
  • A transmission from one station to another station in circumstances where twoway communication cannot be established but it is believed that the called station is able to receive the transmission.
  • A transmission of messages relating to en-route weather information which may affect the safety of aircraft operations that is not addressed to a specific station or stations.
  • A transmission of information relating to air navigation that is not addressed to a specific station or stations.
  • A transmission where no reply is required from the receiving station.±jLœZתe

Question 67

Question
91.1.2.0 (5694) What does the abbreviation ""HJ"" mean?
Answer
  • Sunrise to sunset.
  • No specific working hours.
  • Sunset to sunrise.
  • Continuous day and night service.

Question 68

Question
91.1.3.0 (5697) What does QTE mean?
Answer
  • True bearing from the station.
  • True heading to the station (no wind).
  • Magnetic bearing from the station.
  • Magnetic heading to the station.

Question 69

Question
91.1.3.0 (5698) What is the Q-code for ""true bearing from the station""?
Answer
  • QTE
  • QDR
  • QDM
  • QFE

Question 70

Question
91.1.3.0 (5699) What does QDR mean?
Answer
  • True bearing from the station
  • Magnetic bearing from the station
  • Magnetic heading to the station (no wind)
  • True heading to the station

Question 71

Question
91.1.3.0 (5700) What is the Q-code for ""magnetic bearing from the station""?
Answer
  • QTE
  • QDR
  • QDM
  • QFE

Question 72

Question
91.1.3.0 (5701) If you are requested to report your height, to which Q-code-setting would you refer ?
Answer
  • QNH
  • QDM
  • QBI
  • QFE

Question 73

Question
91.1.3.0 (5702) Which Q-code is used to report altitude ?
Answer
  • QFE
  • QNH
  • QFF
  • QNJ

Question 74

Question
91.1.3.0 (5703) What does QDM mean?
Answer
  • Magnetic bearing from the station
  • Magnetic heading to the station (no wind)
  • True bearing from the station
  • True heading to the station (no wind)

Question 75

Question
91.1.3.0 (5704) What is the Q-code for ""magnetic heading to the station (no wind)?
Answer
  • QDR
  • QDM.
  • QTE
  • QNE

Question 76

Question
91.1.4.0 (5714) The order of priority of the following messages in the aeronautical mobile service is:
Answer
  • Distress message, flight safety message, urgency message.
  • Distress message, urgency message, direction finding message.
  • Meteorological message, direction finding message, flight regularity message
  • Direction finding message, distress message, urgency message.

Question 77

Question
91.2.5.0 (5730) What does the instruction ""Orbit right"" mean ?
Answer
  • Turn right to avoid other traffic
  • Make 360° turns to the right
  • Leave the runway to the right
  • Right-hand circuits are in use

Question 78

Question
91.2.5.0 (5731) What does the instruction ""Vacate left"" mean ?
Answer
  • Turn left to leave the runway
  • Clear the runway immediately
  • Give way to aircraft from the left
  • Hold position on the left side of the runway

Question 79

Question
91.2.9.0 (5755) On the readability scale what does ""Readability 3"" mean:
Answer
  • Readable but with difficulty
  • Loud and clear
  • No problem to understand
  • Unreadable

Question 80

Question
91.3.1.0 (5769) When the term ""Broken"" is used in an aviation routine weather report (METAR), the amount of clouds covering the sky is:
Answer
  • 1 to 4 octas
  • 5 to 7 octas
  • 8 octas below 10000 feet
  • No clouds below 5000 feet

Question 81

Question
91.3.1.0 (5771) When the term ""CAVOK"" is used in an aviation routine weather report (METAR), the values of visibility and clouds are:
Answer
  • Visibility 10 km or more, no clouds below 1500 feet/GND
  • Visibility 10 km or more, no clouds below 5000 feet/GND
  • Visibility more than 5000 m, no clouds below 1500 m/GND
  • Visibility more than 8 km, no clouds below 3000 feet/GND

Question 82

Question
91.3.1.0 (5772) How is the visibility in an aviation routine weather report (METAR) expressed in plain language: 
Answer
  • In feet and nautical miles
  • Up to 5000 m in metres, above in kilometres
  • Up to 1500 m in metres, above in kilometres
  • In nautical miles only

Question 83

Question
91.4.0.0 (5778) What is the transponder code for radio communication failure:
Answer
  • 7500
  • 7600
  • 7700
  • 6700

Question 84

Question
91.4.0.0 (5779) An aircraft is squawking 7600. This indicates:
Answer
  • It is diverting to the alternate aerodrome
  • It is requesting immediate level change
  • It is unable to establish communication due to radio equipment failure
  • It is about to make a forced landing

Question 85

Question
91.4.0.0 (5786) Under which of the following circumstances shall an aircraft station squawk 7600 ?
Answer
  • When entering bad weather areas c) When approaching a prohibited area
  • In case of radio communication failure
  • When flying over desert areas
  • When approaching a prohibited area

Question 86

Question
91.5.1.0 (5788) An aircraft in state of emergency shall squawk:
Answer
  • 6700
  • 7500
  • 7600
  • 7700

Question 87

Question
91.5.1.0 (5789) Under which of the following circumstances shall an aircraft squawk 7700 ?
Answer
  • In distress
  • When following a SID
  • When flying within controlled airspace
  • When passing the transition level

Question 88

Question
91.5.1.0 (5790) Distress is defined as:
Answer
  • A condition concerning the attitude of an aircraft when intercepting the localizer during an ILS approach
  • A condition of being threatened by serious and/or imminent danger and requiring immediate assistance
  • A condition concerning the safety of an aircraft or of a person on board, but which does not require immediate assistance
  • A condition concerning the safety of a person on board or within sight and requiring immediate assistance

Question 89

Question
91.5.1.0 (5791) An aircraft in distress shall send the following signal by radiotelephony:
Answer
  • DETRESFA, DETRESFA, DETRESFA
  • MAYDAY, MAYDAY, MAYDAY
  • PAN PAN, PAN PAN, PAN PAN
  • URGENCY, URGENCY, URGENCY

Question 90

Question
91.5.2.0 (5795) Urgency is defined as:
Answer
  • A condition concerning the safety of a person on board or within sight and requiring immediate assistance
  • A condition concerning the attitude of an aircraft when intercepting the localizer during an ILS approach
  • A condition concerning the safety of an aircraft other vehicles or of a person on board, but which does not require immediate assistance
  • A condition of being threatened by serious and/or imminent danger and of requiring immediate assistance

Question 91

Question
91.5.2.0 (5796) An urgency message shall be preceded by the radiotelephony urgency signal:
Answer
  • URGENCY,spoken three times
  • PAN PAN, spoken three times
  • MAYDAY, spoken three times
  • ALERFA, spoken three times"

Question 92

Question
92.1.2.0 (5823) What does the abbreviation ""RVR"" mean:
Answer
  • Runway visual range
  • Radar vectors requested
  • Recleared via route...
  • Runway visibility report

Question 93

Question
92.1.3.0 (5824) QFE is the RTF Q-code to indicate:
Answer
  • The altimeter sub-scale setting to obtain the flight level reference datum.
  • The atmospheric pressure at aerodrome elevation (or at runway threshold).
  • The atmospheric pressure corrected to the aircraft cockpit height.
  • The atmospheric pressure referred to the highest fixed obstacle located on the surface of an aerodrome.

Question 94

Question
92.3.0.0 (5887) An aircraft encountering radio communication failure on an IFR flight in VMC is assumed to:
Answer
  • Leave controlled airspace and continue the flight within uncontrolled airspace
  • Continue to fly in VMC, land at the nearest suitable aerodrome, report its arrival
  • Continue the flight to destination aerodrome in any caset
  • Squawk IDENT and proceed to the alternate aerodrome

Question 95

Question
92.3.0.0 (5889) An aircraft experiencing radio communication failure on an IFR flight in IMC is assumed to:
Answer
  • Proceed to an area from where the flight can be continued according to the visual flight rules
  • Proceed in accordance with the current flight plan to the designated navigation aid serving the destination aerodrome
  • Execute a VMC approach at the nearest suitable aerodrome
  • Divert to the most suitable aerodrome according to the route of flight

Question 96

Question
92.3.0.0 (5890) An aircraft encountering radio communication failure on an IFR flight in IMC has to hold over the designated navigation aid serving the destination aerodrome: a) c)d) 3 minutes, if an expected approach time is not acknowledged,"siteI
Answer
  • 5 minutes in any case
  • 3 minutes, if an expected approach time is not acknowledged
  • Until the expected approach time last received and acknowledged
  • Under no circumstances

Question 97

Question
92.3.0.0 (5891) An aircraft encountering radio communication failure on an IFR flight in IMC has to commence descent over the designated navigation aid serving the destination aerodrome (no EAT received):
Answer
  • 5 minutes after the last expected approach time acknowledged
  • After 3 minutes, if an expected approach time is not acknowledgeds
  • At, or as close to, the ETA resulting from the current flight plan
  • Immediately after reaching in any case

Question 98

Question
92.3.0.0 (5892) An aircraft encountering radio communication failure on an IFR flight in IMC has to land, if possible, within:
Answer
  • 30 minutes after waiting for the EAT
  • 30 minutes after ETA or the last EAT, whichever is later
  • 15 minutes after vacating the transition layer
  • 30 minutes after noticing the radio failure

Question 99

Question
92.3.0.0 (5894) A departing aircraft experiencing radio communication failure on an IFR flight under radar vectors has to:
Answer
  • Squawk 7600 and thereafter return to the route indicated in the current flight plan in the most direct manner
  • Squawk 7600 and thereafter, regardless of any limitation instructed by ATC, return to the route indicated in the current flight plan on the shortest way
  • Squawk 7600 and maintain the heading last assigned by ATC for a period of 3 minutes and then return to the flight path in accordance with the current flight plan
  • Squawk 7600, maintain present heading for 1 minute and thereafter return to the route indicated in the current flight plan on the shortest way

Question 100

Question
92.4.2.0 (5901) An aircraft squawking 7700 indicates to the ground station that:
Answer
  • The aircraft is being hijacked
  • The aircraft is in distress
  • The aircraft's transceiver is unserviceable
  • There is a sick passenger on board

Question 101

Question
92.4.3.0 (5910) A signal sent by radiotelephony consisting of the spoken words PAN PAN, PAN PAN, PAN PAN means:
Answer
  • Imminent danger threatens the aircraft and immediate assistance is required
  • The aircraft has a very urgent message to transmit concerning the safety of a ship, aircraft or other vehicle, but immediate assistance is not required
  • An aircraft on final approach is starting the missed approach procedure
  • The aircraft is diverting from the route cleared because of a thunderstorm and asks for immediate reclearance

Question 102

Question
92.5.1.0 (5915) What does ""Friction coefficient 45"" in a runway report mean:
Answer
  • Braking action medium
  • Braking action good
  • Braking action not measurable
  • Braking action poor

Question 103

Question
92.5.1.0 (5916) What does ""Friction coefficient 20"" in a runway report mean:
Answer
  • Braking action poor
  • Braking action medium
  • Braking action good
  • Braking action unreliable
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