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Operational Procedures 11-22

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Quiz on Operational Procedures 11-22, created by 72 promocion on 05/05/2020.
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Quiz by 72 promocion, updated more than 1 year ago
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Created by 72 promocion almost 4 years ago
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Resource summary

Question 1

Question
11.1) When are we considered to be acclimatized?
Answer
  • a) Being in the 2-hour wide time zone surrounding local time of arrival
  • b) Being in the 1-hour wide time zone surrounding local time of arrival
  • c) Being in the 2-hour wide time zone surrounding local time of departure
  • d) Being in the 1-hour wide time zone surrounding local time of departure

Question 2

Question
11.2) What does disruptive schedule means?
Answer
  • a) Cannot rest 10 hours at least
  • b) Cannot rest 8 hours at least
  • c) Work in the middle of the night
  • d) Not having the optimal sleep window due to work

Question 3

Question
11.3) Flight duty period is related with the next concept
Answer
  • a) Schedule delays
  • b) Route, take-offs and landings
  • c) Flight without autopilot
  • d) All of the above

Question 4

Question
11.4) Total flight hours done by operating crew member shall be:
Answer
  • a) 100 hours in 30 days
  • b) 1000 hours in 24 months
  • c) 100 hours in 28 days
  • d) 900 hours in 13 months

Question 5

Question
11.5) Flight departure time is 0800z from Paris. Cabin crew members request more than an hour to prepare the cabin. Flight crew should send FDP time. Which time should send?
Answer
  • a) Adjust time to flight crew activity
  • b) Start flight duty period according with cabin crew member´s time
  • c) FDP will be from takeoff to landing time
  • d) Cabin crew members have no time restrictions

Question 6

Question
11.6) In case of unforeseen circumstances, maximum FDP can be modified by:
Answer
  • a) The State Authority
  • b) The operator
  • c) Pilot in Command
  • d) None of the above

Question 7

Question
11.7) If on the final sector of a flight, after takeoff an unforeseen circumstance occurs and the allowed increase time is exceeded:
Answer
  • a) Proceed to the departure or destination aerodrome, it does not matter
  • b) Fly back to the departure aerodrome
  • c) Continue to the planned destination/alternate aerodrome
  • d) Call The operator to be authorized

Question 8

Question
11.8) Which is the minimum rest period after a FDP?
Answer
  • a) 8 hours minimum but no more than 10 hours
  • b) 8 hours minimum
  • c) 10 hours
  • d) 12hours

Question 9

Question
12.1) An operational flight plan must specify the takeoff alternate aerodrome for use in the event of a flight emergency shortly after takeoff when:
Answer
  • a) The RVR and cloud ceiling at the departure aerodrome is below minima
  • b) The length of runway at the departure aerodrome is not long enough to allow the aircraft to roll to a standstill if the brakes fail
  • c) The aircraft is carrying dangerous goods and a full fuel load
  • d) There is insufficient time to jettison fuel to landing weight to use the departure aerodrome

Question 10

Question
12.2) Which of the following is valid criteria for a takeoff diversion aerodrome?
Answer
  • a) Not more than 2 hours flying distance for a twin engine aeroplane
  • b) Not less than 2 hours flying distance for 3 engine aeroplane with one engine out
  • c) Not more than 1 hour flying distance for any aeroplane with one engine out
  • d) 2 hours or less flying time at “one engine out” cruise speed for a 4 engine aeroplane

Question 11

Question
12.3) In deciding if an aerodrome is usable as takeoff diversion, which of the following is correct:
Answer
  • a) It must be capable CAT III A operations
  • b) The OCH must not be less than that of the aerodrome departure
  • c) The RVR cloud ceiling must be at or above the aerodrome minima at the time of takeoff
  • d) For IFR flights the aerodrome minima must be greater than that approved by the Operator or the State of Registration and no approach have is permitted to have a visual element (ie no circling approaches)

Question 12

Question
12.4) A destination alternative aerodrome must be specify for:
Answer
  • a) Any flight for public transport over 40 Km
  • b) Any IFR flight unless there is reasonable certainly That at ETA a visual approach can be made
  • c) A flight to a remote aerodrome where no local diversion exits
  • d) Any flight where a takeoff diversion has been planned

Question 13

Question
12.5) According to EU-OPS rules, the route of a twin-engined turbo propeller aircraft with a maximum certificated takeoff mass exceeding 8.618 Kg and a maximum approved setting configuration of more than 19 passengers must be planned in such a way that on one engine an appropriate aerodrome can be reached within:
Answer
  • a) 90 min at the cruise speed, one engine inoperative
  • b) 30 min at the cruise speed, one engine inoperative
  • c) 60 min at the cruise speed, one engine inoperative
  • d) 120 min at the cruise speed, one engine inoperative

Question 14

Question
12.6) According to EU-OPS 1, an operator must select two destinations alternates when the appropriate weather reports or forecast for destination, or any combination thereof, indicate that during a period commencing __ hour(s) before and ending __ hour(s) after the estimated, the weather conditions will be below the applicable planning minima.
Answer
  • a) 2; 2; time of arrival
  • b) 1; 1; time of arrival
  • c) 2; 2; time of departure
  • d) 1; 1; time of departure

Question 15

Question
12.7) For 3 and 4 engine aeroplanes, the takeoff alternate, if required, shall be located (in still air conditions) within:
Answer
  • a) 2 hours flight time at one engine inoperative cruising speed
  • b) 2 hours flight time at cruising speed with all engines operating
  • c) 1 hours flight time at one engine inoperative cruising speed
  • d) 1 hours flight time at cruising speed with all engines operating

Question 16

Question
12.8) According to EU-OPS 1, what is the planning minima for a destination alternate with a CAT I approach available?
Answer
  • a) Non-precision minima (RVR and ceiling at or above minima)
  • b) Non-precision minima plus 200ft/1000m
  • c) RVR according to CAT I
  • d) Circling minima

Question 17

Question
12.9) According to EU-OPS 1, what is the planning minima for a destination alternate with a CAT II approach available?
Answer
  • a) RVR according to CAT I
  • b) Circling minima
  • c) Non-precision minima plus 200ft/1000m
  • d) Non-precision minima

Question 18

Question
12.10) According to EU-OPS 1, what is the planning minima for a destination aerodrome if it is equipped with a non-precision approach only?
Answer
  • a) Non-precision minima (RVR and ceiling at or above MDH) plus 200ft/1000m
  • b) RVR/ visibility specify in accordance with EU-OPS 1.225, and the ceiling at or above MDH
  • c) RVR/ visibility specify in accordance with EU-OPS 1.225
  • d) Circling minima

Question 19

Question
13-14.1) An aircraft flying at FL 370 on MNPS airspace is unable to continue flight in accordance with its air traffic control clearance (degradation of navigational performance requirements, mechanics troubles etc), but is able to maintain its assigned level (FL 370), and due to a total loss of communications capability, could not obtain a revised clearance from ATC. The aircraft should leave its assigned route or track by turning 45ºto the right or left whenever this is possible, and the subsequent action will be, turn to acquire and maintain in either direction a track laterally separated from its assigned route and climb:
Answer
  • a) or descent 1000ft or descend 500ft
  • b) or descent 1000ft
  • c) or descend 500ft
  • d) 500ft or descend 1000ft

Question 20

Question
13-14.2) If the whole flight is in MNSPA on the organized track system, what should be entered on the flight plan?
Answer
  • a) PTS + daily code
  • b) Position at every 10 deg latitude
  • c) NAT + daily code
  • d) OTS + daily code

Question 21

Question
13-14.3) The frecuency designated for VHF air to air comnunicationswhen out of range of VHF ground stations in NAT region is:
Answer
  • a) 121.5 Mhz
  • b) 123.45 Mhz
  • c) 243 Mhz
  • d) 118.5 Mhz

Question 22

Question
13-14.4) An aircraft may operate in MNSPA along a number of special routes, if the aircraft is equipped with at least:
Answer
  • a) 1 inertial navigation system (INS)
  • b) 2 inertial systems (INS)
  • c) 2 independent long range navigation systems (LRNS)
  • d) 1 long range navigation system (LNRS)

Question 23

Question
13-14.5) A flight via SHANNON-GANDER great circle with no MNPS certification can be planned:
Answer
  • a) At FL 280 or less
  • b) outside schedules flight time
  • c) at mach number 0.7 or less
  • d) at a constant airspeed of 480 kts

Question 24

Question
13-14.6) What is the track message?
Answer
  • a) The publication of the preferred route message (PRM)
  • b) The ATC clearance given before the boundary window
  • c) The complete MNSP flight plan
  • d) The publication of organized track system (OTS)

Question 25

Question
13-14.7) In the area where MNSP is applicable, the vertical separation that can be applied between FL290 and FL410 inclusive is:
Answer
  • a) 2000 fts
  • b) 500 fts
  • c) 1000 fts
  • d) 1500 fts

Question 26

Question
13-14.8) RVSM in-flight procedure-cross checks of the primary altimeters shall be made at intervals of approximately one hour. This primary altimeters shall agree within:
Answer
  • a) 50fts
  • b) 100fts
  • c) 150fts
  • d) 200fts

Question 27

Question
13-14.9) In MNPA, the speed reference of a turbo-jet aircraft is the:
Answer
  • a) Indicated airspeed
  • b) Mach number
  • c) ground speed
  • d) true airspeed

Question 28

Question
13-14.10) MNPS is the abbreviation for:
Answer
  • a) Minimum Navigation Positioning System
  • b) Maximum North-Atlantic Precision System
  • c) Military Network Performance Structure
  • d) Minimum Performance Navigation Specification

Question 29

Question
13-14.11) How does one define the planned tracks north of 70ºN?
Answer
  • a) Latitude in degrees with meridians spaced at 10º
  • b) Latitude degrees with meridians spaced at 20º
  • c) longitude spaced at 5º intervals
  • d) latitude spaced at 5 intervals

Question 30

Question
13-14.12) In the NMPSA, a pilot should first of all take the following action in the event of a failure of the last inertial navigation system:
Answer
  • a) Notify air traffic control and wait for a reply within a reasonable time
  • b) request authorization from control to track another aircraft
  • c) set a different heading approximately 45º from the previous one
  • d) immediately climb or descent 1000fts

Question 31

Question
13-14.13) Contingency at FL410 necessitates diversion to an alternate against NAT traffic without ATC clearance but able to maintain altitude:
Answer
  • a) turn left or right and climb 1000fts/ descend 500fts
  • b) climb or descend 500fts
  • c) climb 500fts
  • d) descend 500fts

Question 32

Question
13-14.14) The validity period of a night time OTS in MNPSA is normally at 30ºW, between:
Answer
  • a) 0100 UTC to 0800UTC
  • b) 1030 UTC to 1900 UTC
  • c) 1130 UTC to 1800 UTC
  • d) 0000 UTC to 0800 UTC

Question 33

Question
13-14.15) The minimum time track is defined for:
Answer
  • a) a period of 12 hours
  • b) a given travel
  • c) a period of 24 hours
  • d) aircraft flying in MNPSA

Question 34

Question
15.1) Which of the following statements concerning the MEL is correct?
Answer
  • a) It draws attention to the possibility of furhter failures and their effects
  • b) The MEL is required by ICAO and must be approved by the State of Registration
  • c) The responsibility if acceptance of any unserviceability within the MEL rests ultimately over the Operator.
  • d) The MEL allows airplanes to be flown with unserviceabilities which would otherwise require immediate certification

Question 35

Question
15.2) The purpose of the Master Minimum Equipment List (MMEL) is:
Answer
  • a) To permit the Authority to specify what equipment must be carried in an aircraft with mas take off mass greater than 5700 Kg
  • b) To permit one MEL to exist for the operator´s entire fleet
  • c) To permit the operator to change the content of the MEL Whilst keeping a master copy
  • d) Not to be used as an operator MEL

Question 36

Question
15.3) The purpose of the Minimum Equipment List (MEL) is to enable the ______ to determine whether a flight may commence or continue from any intermediate stop, should _____ become inoperative. Which of the following completes the statement?
Answer
  • a) Maintenance supervisor / any system
  • b) Chief Steward / the galley equipment
  • c) Operator / any aircraft safety system
  • d) Commander / any instrumentation or system of equipment

Question 37

Question
15.4) The MEL of an aircraft is found in the:
Answer
  • a) Operations manual
  • b) Flight record
  • c) Flight manual
  • d) EU-OPS

Question 38

Question
15.5) The MMEL is drawn up by :
Answer
  • a) The operator
  • b) The manufacturer/the type certificate holder
  • c) The aircraft manufacturer list
  • d) The aircraft state of registry

Question 39

Question
15.6) The MEL is drawn up by:
Answer
  • a) The aircraft manufacturer´s list
  • b) The aircraft State of registry
  • c) The operator
  • d) The manufacturer

Question 40

Question
15.7) Which of the following statements is NOT true:
Answer
  • a) The most favorable temperatures for icing are between 5ºC and -5ºC
  • b) The most favorable temperatures for icing are between 0ºC and -10ºC
  • c) Icing becomes rare at -18ºC
  • d) While flying, we must avoid icing conditions

Question 41

Question
15.8) In icing conditions, if you have exceeded the holdover time, the correct procedure is:
Answer
  • a) De-ice again the aircraft, then apply anti-icing fluid
  • b) Apply directly anti-icing fluid without conducting previous de-icing procedures
  • c) Operate the aircraft de-icing/anti-icing systems
  • d) De-ice the aircraft

Question 42

Question
15.9) When taking off, in winter conditions, the wing contamination by ice or frost will cause the following effects: 1. An increase in the T/O distance 2. A decrease of the T/O run 3. An increase in the stalling speed 4. A decrease of the stalling speed 5. A decrease of the climb gradient
Answer
  • a) 1,3,5
  • b) 2,4,5
  • c) 1,2,3
  • d) 2,3,5

Question 43

Question
15.10) During the winter an aircraft is parked overnight prior to an early morning departure. The crew notice a slight glistening ice deposit on top of the wings or blades which appears translucent. Under these conditions:
Answer
  • a) The T/O performance of the aircraft will not be affected
  • b) There is no risk of ice accretion
  • c) The aircraft should be sprayed with de-icing fluid of the correct type
  • d) A longer start procedure will be necessary to warm up the aircraft

Question 44

Question
16.1) The highest risk of bird strikes occurs:
Answer
  • a) Above 5000ft
  • b) Below 2500ft
  • c) Between 2500ft and 3500ft
  • d) Between 3500ft and 5000ft

Question 45

Question
16.2) Whenever a potential bird hazard is observed, the commander shall:
Answer
  • a) Immediately inform the local ATS unit
  • b) Inform immediately the bird control unit (BCU) directly by radio
  • c) Submit a written hazard bird strike upon arrival and within 48 hours
  • d) Inform other aircraft in the vicinity by radio

Question 46

Question
16.3) The ICAO procedure designed to collect and disseminate information on bird strikes to aircraft is called:
Answer
  • a) IBHA (ICAO Bird Hazard Annex)
  • b) IBSA (ICAO Bird Safety Alert)
  • c) IBIS (ICAO Bird Strike Information System)
  • d) IBSR (ICAO Bird Strike Report)

Question 47

Question
16.4) When can the required noise abatement procedure be disregarded?
Answer
  • a) At PIC´s discretion where safety is an issue
  • b) If there is work in progress on the aerodrome
  • c) If the RVR is less than 1500 m
  • d) Never, it must always be complied with

Question 48

Question
16.5) When using ICAO noise abatement procedure (NADP 1) the flap retraction is commenced at:
Answer
  • a) 1000ft
  • b) 2000ft
  • c) 1500ft
  • d) 3000ft

Question 49

Question
16.6) According to ICAO Doc 8168, a noise abatement departure procedure is not to be initiated at less than:
Answer
  • a) 1500ft above aerodrome elevation
  • b) 1000ft above aerodrome elevation
  • c) 800ft above aerodrome elevation
  • d) 2000ft above aerodrome elevation

Question 50

Question
17-18.1) Who is responsible to provide emergency and abnormal procedures?
Answer
  • a) The Operator
  • b) The Flight Engineer
  • c) Commander
  • d) The Authority

Question 51

Question
17-18.2) What must the commander ensure that all those on the flight deck are familiar with?
Answer
  • a) Check list
  • b) Standard operating procedures (SOPs)
  • c) Contents of the Operations manual
  • d) Safety procedures

Question 52

Question
17-18.3) Which statement is most correct with regard to the use of fire extinguishers?
Answer
  • a) CO2 is best used in a cargo airplane on cargo fires
  • b) Water is the best used on small fires
  • c) Halon is the best used on fires within the passenger compartment
  • d) Dry powder is the best used on cockpit fires

Question 53

Question
17-18.4) In case of an engine exhaust pipe (tailpipe) fire while on the ground, you should abort the starting procedure and:
Answer
  • a) Put the fire shut off handle and trigger the engine fire extinguishers
  • b) Fight the nozzle fire with a water fire extinguisher
  • c) Carry out a dry cranking
  • d) Carry out a dump cranking

Question 54

Question
17-18.5) A hand water fire extinguisher should be used on a fire of:
Answer
  • a) Paper, fabric, carpet
  • b) Metals
  • c) Flammable gases
  • d) Flammable liquids

Question 55

Question
17-18.6) Apart from fire extinguishers the following equipment for fire fighting is tipically located on board
Answer
  • a) Crash axes or crowbars
  • b) Water and all type of beverage
  • c) A hydraulic winch and a big box of tools
  • d) A big bunch of fire extinguishing blankets

Question 56

Question
17-18.7) What items for use in firefighting would you expect to see close to a fire extinguisher?
Answer
  • a) Axe
  • b) Gloves
  • c) Breathing equipment
  • d) All of the above

Question 57

Question
17-18.8) If smoke appears in the air conditioning, the initial action to be taken by the flight deck crew is to:
Answer
  • a) Determine the origin of the smoke
  • b) Start an emergency descend
  • c) Put on the oxygen masks and goggles
  • d) Cut off all air conditioning units

Question 58

Question
19.1) Due to risk of tire explosion, after landing, when the breaks are at a very high temperature, one should approach the landing gear
Answer
  • a) From any direction
  • b) Sidewards
  • c) Either from the front or the rear
  • d) From the inboard side

Question 59

Question
19.2) Following a heavy mass landing on a short RWY, you should check:
Answer
  • a) Temperature of the hydraulic fluid
  • b) Pressure of the hydraulic fluid
  • c) Pressure of the pneumatic tires
  • d) Temperature of the breaks

Question 60

Question
19.3) In the case of overheating of the breaks following the landing, the appropriate acton at the parking position is: 1) Set parking brake on 2) Set parking break off, with chokes in position 3) Spray water on the breaks 4) Ventilate the breaks
Answer
  • a) 2, 4
  • b) 2, 3
  • c) 1, 3
  • d) 1, 4

Question 61

Question
19.4) A warning device alerts the crew in case if excessive cabin altitude. This warning must be triggered on reaching the following altitude
Answer
  • a) 10.000fts
  • b) 14.000fts
  • c) 8.000fts
  • d) 12.000fts

Question 62

Question
19.5) Following an explosive decompression at FL370, your first action will be:
Answer
  • a) To put on the oxygen mask
  • b) To set the transponder to 7700
  • c) To warn the ATC
  • d) To comfort your passengers

Question 63

Question
19.6) A rapid decompression may be caused by: 1) A leak in a door seal during normal pressurized flight 2) Loss of cabin compartment window 3) Malfunction of all pressurization systems 4) Loss of a cargo-hold door
Answer
  • a) 1, 3
  • b) 1, 2, 3, 4
  • c) 2, 4
  • d) 1, 2, 3

Question 64

Question
19.7) Gradual decompression is caused by: 1) Window leak 2) Door leak 3) Window blown 4) Emergency escape hatch open
Answer
  • a) 1, 2
  • b) 1, 2, 3, 4
  • c) 3, 4
  • d) 2, 3

Question 65

Question
19.8) What would be evident during a rapid decompression? 1) Violent rush of gas from lungs 2) Expansion of body gases 3) Blast of air to the exterior 4) Mist in the cabin
Answer
  • a) 1, 2, 3, 4
  • b) 1, 2, 4
  • c) 2, 3, 4
  • d) 1, 2, 3

Question 66

Question
20.1) The Windshear is:
Answer
  • a) A vertical wind velocity variation over a short distance
  • b) A horizontal wind velocity variation over a short distance
  • c) A vertical or horizontal wind velocity and/or wind direction variation over a short distance
  • d) A vertical or horizontal wind velocity and/or wind direction variation over a large distance

Question 67

Question
20.2) To counter the effects of windshear, the amount of control action that is required is:
Answer
  • a) medium
  • b) small
  • c) substantial
  • d) none

Question 68

Question
20.3) What do you do in a microburst? 1) Apply engine power 2) Retract speed breaks 3) Retract flaps and gear 4) Retract all drag devices 5) Pitch up to steak shaker
Answer
  • a) 1, 3, 5
  • b) 1, 4, 5
  • c) 1, 2, 5
  • d) 2, 3, 5

Question 69

Question
20.4) In the “worst case” scenario of recovery from the effects of a microburst, having increased to full go-around power, in coordinating power and pitch it may be necessary to:
Answer
  • a) Reduce speed to V2 and hold
  • b) Climb away at Vat+20
  • c) Increase the pitch angle until the steak shaker is felt and hold at slightly below this angle
  • d) Slowly increase speed whilst maintaining a positive rate of climb

Question 70

Question
20.5) While approaching the outer marker, the tower informs you about the presence of a microburst. You will expect to encounter:
Answer
  • a) Windshear (vertical and horizontal)
  • b) Wake turbulence
  • c) Supercooled water
  • d) Convention motion of air mass

Question 71

Question
20.6) Wake turbulence is created by:
Answer
  • a) Behind high buildings less than 300 m from the RWY
  • b) The wingtips of heavy aircraft during the T/O and landing
  • c) Cumulonimbus clouds
  • d) Wind forces greater than 50 Kts

Question 72

Question
20.7) When a LIGHT aircraft is landing behind a MEDIUM aircraft, the wake turbulence non-radar time minimum approach separation is shall be:
Answer
  • a) 1 minute
  • b) 2 minute
  • c) 3 minute
  • d) 4 minute

Question 73

Question
20.8) What is the weight range for medium category aircraft?
Answer
  • a) 5.700kg to 100.000kg
  • b) 7.000 kg to 136.000kg
  • c) 5.700kg to 136.000kg
  • d) 7.001kg to 135.999kg

Question 74

Question
20.9) The wake turbulence:
Answer
  • a) Starts when pulling out the drag devices and stops when retracting the drag devices
  • b) Starts as soon as the airplane is running for T/O and stops as soon as it has come to a stop at landing
  • c) Starts when the airplane reaches a height of 300ft above the ground and stops when it crosses this height before landing
  • d) Starts during the rotation and stops as soon as the airplanes wheels touch the ground

Question 75

Question
20.10) To avoid the wake turbulence, when departing behind a larger aircraft, the pilot should maneuver:
Answer
  • a) Below and downwind from the larger aircraft
  • b) Above and downwind from the larger aircraft
  • c) Above and upwind the larger aircraft
  • d) Below and upwind the larger aircraft

Question 76

Question
21.1) If installed, the flight crew compartment door of all aircraft operated for the purpose of carrying passengers shall be capable of being:
Answer
  • a) Remotely locked from either inside or outside the compartment
  • b) Locked from within the compartment
  • c) Directly locked from outside the compartment
  • d) Remotely locked by cabin crew operation from outside the compartment

Question 77

Question
21.2) What transponder code should be used by the commander of an aircraft to provide recognition that the aircraft is being subjected to unlawful interference (hijack)
Answer
  • a) Code 7700
  • b) Code 7600
  • c) Code 7500
  • d) Code 2000

Question 78

Question
21.3) In case of a serious threat based on the presence of a bomb on board pressurized aircraft and disregarding fuel considerations:
Answer
  • a) You descend to the FL corresponding the indicated cabin altitude or the safety altitude if higher and take preventive steps by putting yourself in a landing approach configuration.
  • b) You carry out an emergency descent to reach the safety altitude
  • c) You limb to the maximum flight level which does not need to the use of pressurization
  • d) You go down to the level corresponding to the indicated cabin altitude and keep the airplane in clean configuration until the final approach

Question 79

Question
21.4) What is the evacuation time for an airplane with 149 seats?
Answer
  • a) 60 sec
  • b) 90 sec
  • c) 120 sec
  • d) 132 sec

Question 80

Question
21.5) The ICAO rules governing flight over water for a single engine airplane engaged in the public transport of passengers:
Answer
  • a) Limits such flights to a height sufficient to land safely if the engine fails
  • b) Does not permit such flight in any circumstances
  • c) Limits flight to up to 10 min flying time to the nearest shore
  • d) Limits flight to up to 8 NM from the nearest shore

Question 81

Question
21.6) Following an emergency landing which will need an escape from the aircraft, you will: 1) Remain on the RWY 2) Clear the RWY using the first available taxiway 3) Keep one engine or the APU running in order to maintain the electrical supply on 4) Turn off all the systems
Answer
  • a) 2, 3
  • b) 1, 3
  • c) 1, 4
  • d) 2, 4

Question 82

Question
21.7) The correct definition of a safe forced landing is:
Answer
  • a) An inevitable landing on land or sea from which one may reasonable expect no injuries on board
  • b) A landing on land or sea from which is guaranteed no injuries will result to the occupants
  • c) A voluntary landing on land or sea carried out by the crew in order to protect the aircraft and its occupants
  • d) An inevitable landing on land or sea from which one may reasonable expect no injuries on board or on the surface

Question 83

Question
22.1) In what period of time must a jettisoning fuel system be capable of jettisoning sufficient fuel to meet the specified approach and landing climb performance requirements?
Answer
  • a) 15 min
  • b) 30 min
  • c) 60 min
  • d) 90 min

Question 84

Question
22.2) If obliged to jettison part of the fuel in flight, it would be better to do so:
Answer
  • a) Under FL50
  • b) In a holding stack, after control clearance
  • c) In a straight line at a relatively high level
  • d) During final phase of approach

Question 85

Question
22.3) During the certification flight teat regarding fuel jettisoning must be shown that: 1) Fuel jettisoning system and its operation are free from fire hazard 2) The fuel discharges clear from any part of the airplane 3) Fuel fumes do not enter any part of the airplane 4) Fuel jettisoning operation does not adversely affect the controllability f the airplane
Answer
  • a) 1, 3, 4
  • b) 1, 2, 3, 4
  • c) 1, 4
  • d) 2, 3

Question 86

Question
22.4) The regulation for transportation of dangerous goods are contained in:
Answer
  • a) ICAO Annex 8
  • b) ICAO Annex 18
  • c) The Washington convention
  • d) ICAO Annex 17

Question 87

Question
22.5) As a pilot in command, during flight preparation, if you are notified that a dangerous package has been damage during its loading, you:
Answer
  • a) Accept it after visual inspection
  • b) Mention it on the notification to captain
  • c) Ensure the arrangements are made for its removal
  • d) Mention it on the shipper´s declaration

Question 88

Question
22.6) Which of the following items, required to be on board an aircraft for operating reasons in accordance with the relevant OPS regulations, are classified as dangerous goods? 1) Fire extinguishers 2) Self-initiating life jackets 3) Portable oxygen supplies 4) First-aid kits
Answer
  • a) 1, 2, 3, 4
  • b) 1, 3, 4
  • c) 1, 3
  • d) 2, 4

Question 89

Question
22.7) Where dangerous goods are carried on a flight which takes place wholly or partly outside the territory of the state, which language must be used on transport documentin addition to any other language?
Answer
  • a) Spanish
  • b) French
  • c) English
  • d) English, Spanish, French, Russian, Chinese

Question 90

Question
22.8) What are Class 6 dangerous goods?
Answer
  • a) Explosives
  • b) Toxic
  • c) Radioactive
  • d) Flammable liquids

Question 91

Question
22.9) In case of landing on a flooded runway and in heavy rain:
Answer
  • a) Increase your approach speed and land firmly and immediately land the nose gear
  • b) Increase your approach speed and land softly and keep up the nose gear
  • c) Decrease your approach speed and land firmly and immediately land the nose gear
  • d) Decrease your approach speed and land softly and keep up the nose gear

Question 92

Question
22.10) A RWY is considered damp when:
Answer
  • a) Its surface is not dry, and when surface moisture does not give a shiny appearance
  • b) Surface moisture gives it a shiny appearance
  • c) It is covered with a film of water of less than 3mm
  • d) It is covered with a film of water of less than 1mm

Question 93

Question
22.11) When there is a risk of hydroplaning, the pilot:
Answer
  • a) Should make a positive landing, apply maximum reverse thrust and start braking as soon as possible
  • b) Should use maximum reverse thrust, however should start braking below the hydroplaning speed
  • c) Should use normal landing, braking and reverse technique
  • d) Must wait for landing until the risk for hydroplaning is no longer exists.
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