Pharmacology XVI

Description

Praxis Tests: Pharmacology Quiz on Pharmacology XVI, created by ACAPUN INSTITUTE on 07/11/2021.
ACAPUN INSTITUTE
Quiz by ACAPUN INSTITUTE, updated more than 1 year ago
ACAPUN INSTITUTE
Created by ACAPUN INSTITUTE over 2 years ago
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Resource summary

Question 1

Question
Administration of digitalis glycosides
Answer
  • A) increase the heart rate
  • B) decrease the ejection fraction
  • C) increase the end-diastolic volume
  • D) increase the sympathetic activity
  • E) decrease the peripheral resistance

Question 2

Question
Each of the following statements about sodium bisulfite is true when used in local anesthetic solutions EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION?
Answer
  • A) It delays the oxidation of the vasoconstrictor
  • B) It prolongs the anesthetic shelf life up to 18 months
  • C) It slightly enhances the onset of anesthesia
  • D) It considerably increases the acidity of the anesthetic solution
  • E) It transforms into sodium bisulfate scavenging the oxygen in anesthetic cartridge

Question 3

Question
The vasoconstrictor that is NOT recommended for hemostasis due to its predominant effect on the venous rather than the arterial circulation is?
Answer
  • A) phenylephrine
  • B) levonordefrin
  • C) norepinephrine
  • D) felypressin
  • E) isoproterenol

Question 4

Question
Which of the following is an anticholinesterase that is used in reversing the CNS effects caused due to overdosage of drugs such as atropine, phenothiazines and tricyclic antidepressants?
Answer
  • A) edrophonium
  • B) pyridostigmine
  • C) physostigmine
  • D) echothiophase
  • E) neostigmine

Question 5

Question
If applied topically, local anesthetics are absorbed almost as rapid as intravenous administration on
Answer
  • A) pharyngeal mucosa
  • B) bladder mucosa
  • C) esophageal mucosa
  • D) tracheal mucosa
  • E) oral mucosa

Question 6

Question
The neuroleptic agent that has high potential for extra pyramidal effects but minimal weight gain when administered is
Answer
  • A) risperidone
  • B) haloperidol
  • C) aripiprazole
  • D) quetiapine
  • E) olanzepine

Question 7

Question
Death by asphyxiation can immediately result if asthmatics are inadvertently administered with
Answer
  • A) acebutolol
  • B) atenolol
  • C) propranolol
  • D) metoprolol
  • E) timolol

Question 8

Question
Each of the following H1 histamine receptor blocking agents are indicated for preventing motion sickness symptoms EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION?
Answer
  • A) diphenhydramine
  • B) meclizine
  • C) hydroxyzine
  • D) scopolamine
  • E) doxepin

Question 9

Question
A 40 yr old female patient complains of difficulty sleeping and frequent awakenings. After she was put on Drug A for 3 months she started complaining of early morning insomnia, daytime anxiety along with amnesia and confusion. Then her physician withdraws drug A and puts her on Drug B. Within a few days of Drug A’s withdrawal she develops rebound insomnia. The drugs A and B prescribed in her case are respectively:
Answer
  • A) Clonazepam and Diazepam
  • B) Alprazolam and Diazepam
  • C) Triazolam and Flurazepam
  • D) Triazolam and Alprazolam
  • E) Alprazolam and Oxazepam

Question 10

Question
The NSAID which is an inactive prodrug used in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis, ankylosing spondylytis, osteoarthritis is
Answer
  • A) indomethacin
  • B) sulindac
  • C) mefenamic acid
  • D) aspirin
  • E) diclofenac

Question 11

Question
The life-saving drug for methicillin resistant staphylococcal epidermidis (MRSE) is
Answer
  • A) carbenicillin
  • B) imipenem/cilastatin
  • C) cefepime
  • D) vancomycin
  • E) ceftriaxome

Question 12

Question
Each of the following statements are true about neuromuscular blocking agents EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION?
Answer
  • A) They do not cross blood-brain barrier
  • B) They are excreted unchanged in urine
  • C) Drug actions are terminated only by distribution
  • D) They are therapeutically used as adjuvant drugs in anesthesia during surgery
  • E) They paralyze the limbs, neck and trunk muscles rapidly compared to any other muscles

Question 13

Question
On a prescription, directions to the patient are always written at the
Answer
  • A) superscription
  • B) inscription
  • C) subscription
  • D) transcription
  • E) signature

Question 14

Question
The anticancer drug that alkylates the DNA and eventually kills the tumor cells is
Answer
  • A) bleomycin
  • B) 5-fluorouracil
  • C) carmustine
  • D) paclitaxel
  • E) cisplatin

Question 15

Question
The anticoagulant of choice for pregnant women with prosthetic heart valves is
Answer
  • A) warfarin
  • B) heparin
  • C) alteplase
  • D) aprotinin
  • E) streptokinase

Question 16

Question
The salicylate that does not cross both the blood-brain barrier and placenta is
Answer
  • A) sodium salicylate
  • B) choline salicylate
  • C) choline magnesium salicylate
  • D) aspirin
  • E) diflunisal

Question 17

Question
Each of the following statements is true about Barbiturates EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION?
Answer
  • A) At low doses, barbiturates produce sedation
  • B) At high doses, barbiturates produce hypnosis, followed by anesthesia
  • C) Barbiturates raise the pain threshold level
  • D) Barbiturates induce p450 microsomal enzymes in the liver
  • E) Barbiturates can readily cross the placenta and depress the fetus

Question 18

Question
A 38 yr old male patient undergoing Anti HIV therapy the last 3 years started developing a buffalo hump at the base of the neck, breast enlargement and loss of fat from extremities. The drug used here is?
Answer
  • A) lamivudine
  • B) nevirapine
  • C) saquinavir
  • D) enfuvirtide
  • E) didanoside

Question 19

Question
Each of the following drugs are strictly avoided when prescribing for renal impaired patients EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION?
Answer
  • A) tetracycline
  • B) demeclocycline
  • C) doxycycline
  • D) minocycline
  • E) tobramycin

Question 20

Question
At high doses, the drug metabolism is
Answer
  • A) a second order kinetic reaction
  • B) constant and dependent on the drug dose
  • C) constant and independent on the drug dose
  • D) proportional to the drug dose
  • E) inversely proportional to the drug dose

Question 21

Question
Significant first-pass metabolism of morphine occurs in the liver; therefore the intramuscular, subcutaneous or IV injections produce the most reliable responses.
Answer
  • A) Both the statement and the reason are correct and related
  • B) Both the statement and the reason are correct but NOT related
  • C) The statement is correct, but the reason is NOT
  • D) The statement is NOT correct, but the reason is correct
  • E) NEITHER the statement NOR the reason is correct

Question 22

Question
The triptan group drug that is used in treating acute attacks of migraine due to its fast onset of action is
Answer
  • A) naratriptan
  • B) sumatriptan
  • C) rizatriptan
  • D) almotriptan
  • E) zolmitriptan

Question 23

Question
Naloxone readily reverses respiratory depression with only minimal reversal of analgesia; BECAUSE it has a ten-fold higher affinity for kappa receptors than for mu.
Answer
  • A) Both the statement and the reason are correct and related
  • B) Both the statement and the reason are correct but NOT related
  • C) The statement is correct, but the reason is NOT
  • D) The statement is NOT correct, but the reason is correct
  • E) NEITHER the statement NOR the reason is correct

Question 24

Question
The Drug that is used in the emergency management of serious ventricular arrhythmia is
Answer
  • A) quinidine
  • B) lidocaine
  • C) procainamide
  • D) propronolol
  • E) verapamil

Question 25

Question
Each of the following statements is true about postmenopausal estrogen replacement therapy EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION?
Answer
  • A) Estrogen decreases the resorption of bone but has no effect on its formation
  • B) Estrogen decreases the frequency of hip fracture
  • C) Estrogen treatment increases the frequency of hot flashes
  • D) Estrogen treatment reverses postmenopausal atrophy of the vulva, vagina, urethra
  • E) Amount of estrogen used in replacement therapy is substantially less than that used in oral contraception

Question 26

Question
A 60 yr old male African-American patient gives a history of hypertension. He has been taking anti-hypertensive pills the last 20 years and his hospital records reveal creatine clearance levels are never below 50 ml/min. He does not report first-dose syncope, postural hypotension, decreased libido, dry cough but does report occasional hypokalemia and hyperuricemia. The anti-hypertensive drug he has been taking is?
Answer
  • A) propronolol
  • B) enalapril
  • C) hydrochlorothiazide
  • D) sodium nitroprusside
  • E) prazosin

Question 27

Question
The immunosuppressant drug that selectively inhibits cytokine production and function preventing graft rejection is
Answer
  • A) azathioprine
  • B) cyclosporine
  • C) antithymocyte globulins
  • D) prednisone
  • E) muromunas - CD3

Question 28

Question
A 25 year old male patient complains of toothache and was diagnosed to be suffering from dentoalveolar abscess. His medical records show him to be asthmatic and under daily theophylline therapy. He is allergic to penicillin. Knowing his medical history and current dental infection the antibiotic/antimicrobial agent that should not be prescribed to avoid theophylline toxicity is
Answer
  • A) tetracycline
  • B) cephalosporin
  • C) erythromycin
  • D) metronidazole
  • E) doxycycline

Question 29

Question
Epilepsy that does not respond to phenytoin and may worsen if it is administered is
Answer
  • A) Myoclonic
  • B) Staus epilepticus
  • C) Petit mal
  • D) Grand mal
  • E) Complex partial

Question 30

Question
While treating subcutaneous and systemic mycotic infections, Amphotericin B is contraindicated to combine with
Answer
  • A) flucytosine
  • B) nystatin
  • C) ketaconazole
  • D) griseofulvin
  • E) clotrimazole

Question 31

Question
For a drug to be readily absorbed it must
Answer
  • A) be hydrophilic
  • B) be hydrophobic
  • C) not exhibit crystal polymorphism
  • D) move through the gastric contents very quickly
  • E) be hydrophobic with some solubility in aqueous solution

Question 32

Question
Each of the following signs and symptoms are related to the direct depressant action of the local anesthetic on the central nervous system EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION?
Answer
  • A) tinnitus
  • B) metallic taste
  • C) slurred speech
  • D) circumoral numbness
  • E) warm, flushed feeling of skin

Question 33

Question
A 50 yr old male patient gives a history of Gout. What can be safely prescribed in his case is?
Answer
  • A) aspirin
  • B) naproxen
  • C) ketoprofen
  • D) indomethacin
  • E) acetaminophen
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