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Quiz on Figuras, created by Andres Felipe Londono on 02/03/2017.
Andres Felipe Londono
Quiz by Andres Felipe Londono, updated more than 1 year ago
Andres Felipe Londono
Created by Andres Felipe Londono over 9 years ago
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Resource summary

Question 1

Question
(Refer to figure 1) The vertical line from point D to point G is represented on the airspeed indicator by the maximum speed limit of the
Answer
  • Green Arc
  • Yellow Arc
  • White Arc

Question 2

Question
(Refer to figure 2.) Select the correct statement regarding stall speeds. The airplane will stall
Answer
  • 10 knots higher in a power-on, 60° bank, with gear and flaps up, than with gear and flaps down.
  • 25 knots lower in a power-off, flaps-up, 60° bank, than in a power-off, flaps-down, wings-level configuration.
  • 10 knots higher in a 45° bank, power-on stall, than in a wings-level stall with flaps up.

Question 3

Question
(Refer to Figure 4) What is the height of the tropopause over Kentucky?
Answer
  • FL390.
  • FL300 sloping to FL 400 feet MSL.
  • FL340.

Question 4

Question
(Refer to figure 5, SFC-PROG.) The chart symbols shown in the Gulf of Mexico at 12Z and extending into AL, GA, SC and northern FL indicate a
Answer
  • vTropical storm.
  • Hurricane.
  • Tornado originating in the Gulf of Mexico.

Question 5

Question
(Refer to figure 4.) What is the maximum wind velocity forecast in the jet stream shown on the high level Significant Weather Prognostic Chart over Canada?
Answer
  • 80
  • 103
  • 130

Question 6

Question
(Refer to figure 6.) What is the meaning of the symbol depicted as used on the U.S. Low- Level Significant Weather Prog Chart?
Answer
  • Showery precipitation (e.g. rainshowers) embedded in an área of continuous rain covering half or more of the area.
  • Continuous precipitation (e.g. rain showers) covering half or more of the area.
  • Showery precipitation (e.g. thunderstorms/rain showers) covering half or more of the area.

Question 7

Question
(Refer to figure 5, SFC-400MB.) The U.S. Low Level Significant Weather Surface Prog Chart at 00Z indicates that northwestern Colorado and eastern Utah can expect
Answer
  • Moderate or greater turbulence from the surface to FL 240.
  • Moderate or greater turbulence above FL 240.
  • No turbulence is indicated.

Question 8

Question
(Refer to figure 7.) What weather conditions are depicted within the area indicated by arrow E?
Answer
  • Occasional cumulonimbus, 1/8 to 4/8 coverage, bases below 24.000 feet MSL, and tops at 40.000 feet MSL.
  • Frequent embedded thunderstorms, less than 1/8 coverage, and tops at FL370.
  • Frequent lighting in thunderstorms at FL370.

Question 9

Question
(Refer to figure 7.) What weather conditions are depicted within the area indicated by arrow D?
Answer
  • Forecast isolated thunderstorm, tops at FL 440, more than 1/8 coverage.
  • Existing isolated cumulonimbus clouds, tops above 43.000 feet with less than 1/8 coverage.
  • Forecastisolatedembeddedcumulonimbuscloudswithtopsat43.000feetMSL, andlessthan1/8coverage.

Question 10

Question
(Refer to figure 7.) What weather conditions are predicted within the area indicated by arrow C?
Answer
  • Light turbulence at FL 370 within the area outlined by dashes.
  • Moderate turbulence at 32.000 feet MSL.
  • Moderate to sever CAT has been reported at FL 320.

Question 11

Question
(Refer to figure 7.) What information in indicated by arrow A?
Answer
  • The height of the tropopause in meters above sea level.
  • The height of the existing layer of CAT.
  • The height of the tropopause in hundreds of feet above MSL.

Question 12

Question
(Refer to figure 7.) What information in indicated by arrow A?
Answer
  • The height of the tropopause in meters above sea level.
  • The height of the existing layer of CAT.
  • The height of the tropopause in hundreds of feet above MSL.

Question 13

Question
(Refer to figure 7.) What weather conditions are depicted within the area indicated by arrow F?
Answer
  • 1/8 to 4/8 coverage, occasional embedded thunderstorms, maximum tops at 51.000 feet MSL.
  • Occasionally embedded cumulonimbus, bases below 24.000 feet with tops to 48.000 feet.
  • 2/8 to 6/8 coverage, occasional embedded thunderstorms, tops at FL 540.

Question 14

Question
(Refer to Figure 8.) Which illustration indicates a skidding turn?
Answer
  • 2
  • 1
  • 3

Question 15

Question
(Refer to Figure 8.) What changes in control displacement should be made so that “2” would result in a coordinated standard rate turn?
Answer
  • Increase left rudder and increase rate of turn.
  • Increase left rudder and decrease rate of turn.
  • Decrease left rudder and decrease angle of bank.

Question 16

Question
Refer to Figure 8.) Which illustration indicates a coordinated turn?
Answer
  • 3
  • 1
  • 2

Question 17

Question
(Refer to Figure 8.) What changes in control displacement should be made so that “1” would result in a coordinated standard rate turn?
Answer
  • Increase right rudder and decrease rate of turn.
  • Increase right rudder and increase rate of turn.
  • Decrease right rudder and increase angle of bank.

Question 18

Question
(Refer to Figure 8.) Which illustration indicates a slipping turn?
Answer
  • 1
  • 3
  • 2

Question 19

Question
(Refer to Figure 9.) Identify the system that has failed and determine a corrective action to return the airplane to straight-and-level flight.
Answer
  • Static/pitot system is blocked, lower the nose and level the wings to level-flight attitude by use of attitude indicator.
  • Vacuum system has failed, reduce power, roll left to level wings, and pitchup to reduce air speed.
  • Electrical system has failed, reduce power, roll left to level wings, and raise the nose to reduce air speed.

Question 20

Question
(Refer to Figure 10.) What is the flight attitude? One instrument has malfunctioned.
Answer
  • Climbing turn to the right.
  • Climbing turn to the left.
  • Descending turn to the right.

Question 21

Question
(Refer to Figure 11.) What is the flight attitude? One system which transmits information to the instruments has malfunctioned.
Answer
  • Level turn to the right.
  • Level turn to the left.
  • Straight-and-level flight.

Question 22

Question
(Refer to Figure 12.) What is the correct sequence for recovery from the unusual attitude indicated?
Answer
  • Reduce power, increase back elevator pressure, and level the wings.
  • Reduce power, level the wings, bring pitch attitude to level flight.
  • Level the wings, raise the nose of the aircraft to level flight attitude, and obtain desired airspeed.

Question 23

Question
(Refer to Figure 13.) Which is the correct sequence for recovery from the unusual attitude indicated?
Answer
  • Level wings, add power, lower nose, descend to original attitude, and heading.
  • Add power, lower nose, level wings, return to original attitude and heading.
  • Stopturnbyraisingrightwingandaddpoweratthesametime, lowerthenose, andreturntooriginalattitude and heading.

Question 24

Question
(Refer to figure 14.) Which symbol does not directly address runway incursion with other aircraft?
Answer
  • Top red.
  • Middle yellow.
  • Bottom yellow.

Question 25

Question
(Refer to figure 14.) The red symbol at the top would most likely be found
Answer
  • Upon exiting all runways prior to calling ground control.
  • At an intersection where a roadway may be mistaken as a taxiway.
  • Near the approach end of ILS runways.

Question 26

Question
(Refer to figure 14.) The pilot generally calls ground control after landing when the aircraft is completely clear of the runway. This is when the aircraft
Answer
  • Passes the red symbol shown at the top of the figure.
  • Is on the dashed-line side of the middle symbol.
  • Is past the solid-line side of the middle symbol.

Question 27

Question
(Refer to Figure 15.) Rwy 30 is being used for landing. Which surface wind would exceed the airplane’s crosswind capability of 0.2 V(SO), if V(SO) is 60 knots?
Answer
  • 260° at 20 knots.
  • 275° at 25 knots.
  • 315° at 35 knots.

Question 28

Question
(Refer to Figure 15.) If the tower-reported surface wind is 010° at 18 knots, what is the crosswind component for a Rwy 08 landing?
Answer
  • 7 Ktos
  • 15 Ktos
  • 17 Ktos

Question 29

Question
(Refer to Figure 15.) The surface wind is 180° at 25 knots. What is the crosswind component for a Rwy 13 landing?
Answer
  • 19 knots.
  • 21 knots.
  • 23 knots.

Question 30

Question
(Refer to Figure 30.) At the position indicated by instrument group 1, to intercept the 330° magnetic bearing to the NDB at a 30° angle, the aircraft should be turned
Answer
  • Left to a heading of 270°.
  • Right to a heading of 330°.
  • Right to a heading of 360°.

Question 31

Question
(Refer to figure 31, point 1) The floor of the Class E airspace above Georgetown Airport (Q61) is at
Answer
  • The surface.
  • 3, 823 feet MSL.
  • 700 feet AGL.

Question 32

Question
(Refer to figure 32, point 4) The thinner outer magenta circle depicted around San Francisco International Airport is
Answer
  • The outer segment of Class B airspace.
  • An area within which an appropriate transponder must be used from outside of the Class B airspace from the surface to 10,000 feet MSL.
  • AModeCveilboundarywhereaballoonmaypenetratewithoutatransponderprovideditremainsbelow 8,000 feet MSL.

Question 33

Question
(Refer to figure 31, point 9) The alert area depicted within the blue lines is an area in which
Answer
  • There is a high volume of pilot training activities or an unusual type of aerial activity, neither of which is hazardous to aircraft.
  • The flight of aircraft is prohibited.
  • The flight of aircraft, while not prohibited, is subject to restriction.

Question 34

Question
(Refer to figure 31, point 7) The floor of Class E airspace over the town of Woodland is
Answer
  • 700 feet AGL over part of the town and no floor over the remainder.
  • 1, 200 feet AGL over part of the town and no floor over the remainder.
  • Both 700 feet and 1, 200 feet AGL.

Question 35

Question
(Refer to figure 31, point 5) The floor of the Class E airspace over University Airport (0O5) is
Answer
  • The surface.
  • 700 feet AGL.
  • 1, 200 feet AGL.

Question 36

Question
(Refer to figure 14.) While clearing an active runway, you are most likely clear of the ILS critical area when you pass which sign?
Answer
  • Top red.
  • Middle yellow.
  • Bottom yellow.

Question 37

Question
(Refer to figure 14.) When taxiing up to an active runway, you are likely to be clear of the ILS critical area when short of which symbol?
Answer
  • Top red.
  • Middle yellow.
  • Bottom yellow.

Question 38

Question
(Refer to figures 33) The final approach fix for the ILS precision approach is located at
Answer
  • DENAY intersection.
  • Glide slope intercept.
  • ROMEN intersection/locator outer marker.

Question 39

Question
(Refer to figure 34.) In the DEN ILS RWY 35R procedure, the glide slope intercept altitude is
Answer
  • 11,000 feet MSL.
  • 7,000 feet MSL.
  • 9,000 feet MSL.

Question 40

Question
(Refer to figure 36) When approaching the ATL ILS RWY 8L, how far from the FAF is the missed approach point?
Answer
  • 4.8 NM.
  • 5.2 NM.
  • 12.0 NM.

Question 41

Question
(Refer to figure 37.) During the ILS RWY 31R procedure at DSM, the minimum altitude for glide slope interception is
Answer
  • 2,365 feet MSL.
  • 2,400 feet M SL.
  • 3,000 feet MSL.

Question 42

Question
(Refer to figure 35.) What minimum navigation equipment is required to complete the VOR/DME-A procedure?
Answer
  • One VOR receiver.
  • One VOR receiver and DME.
  • Two VOR receivers and DME.

Question 43

Question
(Refer to figure 34.) The symbol [9200] in the MSA circle of the ILS RWY 35R procedure at DEN represents a minimum safe sector altitude within 25 NM of
Answer
  • Denver VORTAC.
  • Dymon outer marker.
  • Cruup I-AQD DME fix.

Question 44

Question
(Refer to figure 38) During the ILS RWY 13L procedure at DSM, what altitude minimum applies if the glide slope becomes inoperative?
Answer
  • 1, 420 feet.
  • 1, 340 feet.
  • 1, 121 feet.

Question 45

Question
(Refer to figure 32, point 6) The Class C airspace at Metropolitan Oakland International (OAK) which extends from the surface upward has a ceiling of
Answer
  • Both 2,100 feet and 3,000 feet MSL.
  • 8,000 feet MSL.
  • 2,100 feet AGL.

Question 46

Question
(Refer to Figures 39 and 40.) What is the significance of the symbol at GRICE intersection?
Answer
  • It signifies a localizer-only approach is available at Harry P. Williams Memorial.
  • The localizer has an additional navigation function.
  • GRICEintersectionalsoservesastheFAFfortheILSapproachproceduretoHarryP.WilliamsMemorial.

Question 47

Question
(Refer to Figure 41.) En route on V112 from BTG VORTAC to LTJ VORTAC, the minimum altitude crossing Gymme intersection is
Answer
  • 6, 400 feet.
  • 6, 500 feet.
  • 7, 000 feet.

Question 48

Question
(Refer to Figure 42.) Which VHF frequencies, other than 121.5, can be used to receive De Ridder FSS in the Lake Charles area?
Answer
  • 122.1, 126.4.
  • 123.6, 122.65.
  • 122.2, 122.3.

Question 49

Question
(Refer to Figures 43 and 43A.) What is the difference in elevation (in feet MSL) between the airport elevation and the TDZE for RWY 36L?
Answer
  • 15 feet.
  • 18 feet.
  • 22 feet.

Question 50

Question
(Refer to Figure 44.) What is the minimum altitude at which you should intercept the glide slope on the ILS RWY 6 approach procedure?
Answer
  • 3,000 feet MSL.
  • 1, 800 feet MSL.
  • 1, 690 feet MSL.

Question 51

Question
(Refer to Figure 45.) If cleared for NDB RWY 28 approach (Lancaster/Fairfield) over ZZV VOR, the flight would be expected to Category A aircraft Last assigned altitude 3,000 feet
Answer
  • Proceed straight in from CRISY, descending to MDA after CASER.
  • Proceed to CRISY, then execute the teardrop procedure as depicted on the approach chart
  • Proceed direct to CASER, then straight in to S-28 minimums of 1620-1.

Question 52

Question
(Refer to Figure 46.) What is the purpose of the 10,300 MSA on the Price/Carbon County Airport Approach Chart?
Answer
  • It provides safe clearance above the highest obstacle in the defined sector out to 25 NM.
  • It provides an altitude above which navigational course guidance is assured.
  • It is the mínimum vector altitude for radar vectors in the sector southeast of PUC between 020° and 290° magnetic bearing to PUC VOR.

Question 53

Question
(Refer to Figure 43A.) Which navigational information and services would be available to the pilot when using the localizer frequency?
Answer
  • Localizer and glide slope, DME, TACAN with no voice capability.
  • Localizer information only, ATIS and DME are available.
  • Localizer and glide slope, DME, and no voice capability.

Question 54

Question
(Refer to Figures 47 and 48.) Which aircraft approach category should be used for a circling approach for a landing on RWY 27?
Answer
  • a
  • b
  • c

Question 55

Question
(Refer to Figure 49.) Using an average ground speed of 90 knots, what constant rate of descent from 2, 400 feet MSL at the 6 DME fix would enable the aircraft to arrive at 2,000 feet MSL at the FAF?
Answer
  • 200 feet per minute.
  • 400 feet per minute.
  • 600 feet per minute.

Question 56

Question
(Refer to Figure 50.) If cleared for a straight-in LOC approach from over OALDY, it means the flight should
Answer
  • Land straight in on runway 31.
  • Comply with straight-in landing minimums.
  • Begin final approach without making a procedure turn.

Question 57

Question
(Refer to Figure 51.) The symbol on the plan view of the ILS RWY 35R procedure at DEN represents a minimum safe sector altitude within 25 NM of
Answer
  • Denver VORTAC.
  • Gandi outer marker.
  • Denver/Stapleton International Airport.

Question 58

Question
(Refer to Figure 43A.) What rate of descent should you plan to use initially to establish the glidepath for the ILS RWY 36L approach? (Use 120 knots ground speed.)
Answer
  • 425 feet per minute.
  • 530 feet per minute.
  • 635 feet per minute.

Question 59

Question
(Refer to Figure 52.) What is the elevation of the TDZE for RWY 4?
Answer
  • 70 feet MSL.
  • 54 feet MSL.
  • 46 feet MSL.

Question 60

Question
(Refer to Figure 53.) What is the TDZ elevation for RWY 16 on Eugene/Mahlon Sweet Field?
Answer
  • 363 feet MSL.
  • 365 feet MSL.
  • 396 feet MSL.

Question 61

Question
(Refer to Figure 53) Using a ground speed of 90 knots on the ILS final approach course, what rate of descent should be used as a reference to maintain the ILS glide slope?
Answer
  • 415 feet per minute.
  • 480 feet per minute.
  • 555 feet per minute.

Question 62

Question
(Refer to Figure 54.) With a ground speed of 120 knots, approximately what minimum rate of descent will be required between I-GPO 7 DME fix (ROBOT) and the I-GPO 4 DME fix?
Answer
  • 1, 200 fpm.
  • 500 fpm.
  • 800 fpm.

Question 63

Question
(Refer to Figure 55.) What indication should you get when it is time to turn inbound while in the procedure turn at LABER?
Answer
  • 4 DME miles from LABER.
  • 10 DME miles from the MAP.
  • 12 DME miles from LIT VORTAC.

Question 64

Question
(Refer to Figure 54.) What is the usable runway length for landing on runway 21 at PDX?
Answer
  • 5,957 feet.
  • 7,000 feet.
  • 7,900 feet.

Question 65

Question
(Refer to Figure 56.) Under which condition should the missed approach procedure for the VOR/DME RNAV RWY 33 approach be initiated?
Answer
  • Immediately upon reaching the 5.0 DME from the FAF.
  • When passage of the MAP waypoint is shown on the ambiguity indicator.
  • After the MDA is reached and 1.8 DME fix from the MAP waypoint.

Question 66

Question
(Refer to Figure 54.) You have been cleared to the CREAK intersection via the BTG 054° radial at 7,000 feet. Approaching CREAK, you are cleared for the LOC/DME RWY 21 approach to PDX. Descent to procedure turn altitude should not begin prior to
Answer
  • completion of the procedure turn, and established on the localizer.
  • intercepting the glide slope.
  • CREAK outbound.

Question 67

Question
(Refer to Figure 57.) If your aircraft was cleared for the ILS RWY 17R at Lincoln Municipal and crossed the Lincoln VOR at 5,000 feet MSL, at what point in the teardrop could a descent to 3,000 feet commence?
Answer
  • As soon as intercepting LOC inbound.
  • Immediately.
  • Only at the point authorized by ATC.
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