FINAL REVIEW

1

Which of the following is NOT indicative of accelerated red cell destruction?

1

Which feature is present in BOTH intra- and extravascular hemolysis?

1

Select all that apply for INTRAVASCULAR hemolysis:

1

Select all that apply for EXTRAVASCULAR hemolysis:

1

Normal adult hemoglobin consists of:
95% - 100% HbA
0% - 2% HbF
0% - 3.5% HbA2

1

Sickle Solubility screening test is a qualitative screening test that dectects the presence of sickling hemoglobins mainly HbA.

1

What are the components of an alkaline hemoglobin electrophoresis?

1

Alkaline electrophoresis runs SDG and CEOA2 together.

1

What techniques can be used to separate hemoglobin?

1

A positively charges cellulose attracts a negatively charged hemoglobin molecule. Which separation technique does this describe?

1

During HbA2 Column Chromatography, A2 is eluted as the 3mL glycine reagent and the absorbance of the A2 fraction and total hemoglobin are measured to determine the %HbA2.

1

Which hemoglobin fractions is HPLC able to detect and distinguish?

1

Which hemoglobin separation technique separates fractions based on the difference in charge to size ratio through an electric field?

1

An increase in HbA2 is associated with which condition?

1

The principle behind the Kleihauer-Betke Acid Elution test is eluting HbF out of the solution, making the cells colourless, while HbA are resistant to elution and will stain pink.

1

Which clinical condition is screened for using the sucrose hemolysis test?

1

Less than 5% hemolysis indicates that RBCs of PNH are more sensitive to complement on their cell surface.

1

HAM test for PNH is based on:

1

Which of the following interpretations matches G6PD deficiency screening test?

1

The amount of NAD produced is proportional to the amount of PK in patient cells

1

What stain is required to see Heinz bodies?

1

Cells that are osmotically fragile will start to lyse at:

1

Which of the following is not included in the major hemostatic system?

1

Which of the following is an example of an anticoagulant?

1

What is needed for platelets to adhere to the sub-endothelium?

1

Which of the following is true about thromboxane A2?

1

Which platelet membrane binding site is associated with aggregation?

1

Which of the following is not a primary hemostasis disorder?

1

Reduced aggregation with Ristocetin is associated with vWD and BSS.

1

Which condition is present if a patient has vWF, but lacks the receptor site on the platelet for it?

1

What is the condition called if the platelets lack the receptor fibrinogen?

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Which of the following does not contribute to clot formation?

1

Which of the following does thrombin not have an effect on?

1

Which of the following factors is not Vitamin K dependent?

1

Select all that are TRUE:

1

vWF is synthesized by:

1

vWD is associated with a deficiency in:

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A decreased concentration of fibrinogen leads to bleeding disorders.

1

A congenital deficiency in fibrinogen will result in:

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Which of the Hemophilia conditions is most rare?

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Which of the following is not a coagulation regulator?

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Which of the following regarding Protein C and Protein S is incorrect?

1

Tissue factor pathway inhibitor only affects the extrinsic pathway.

1

What cofactor does Antithrombin III (AT) need to effectively inhibit IXa, Xa, IIa, and XIa?

1

Why is fibrinogen important?

1

Which of the following are components of the fibrinolytic system?

1

Thrombocytopenia can be a result of:

1

Thrombosis refers to:

1

Which of the following would cause a clotting disorder?

1

Where do the majority of pulmonary emboli originate from?

1

Strokes results from the acute blockage of arterial blood flow in which artery?

1

Which of the following will affect platelet adhesion?

1

Which of the following regarding Lupus Anticoagulant is true?

1

Which of the following regarding DIC is false?

1

Identify the correct lab results for DIC:

1

D-dimer has a negative predicative value for DIC because:

1

Which of the following tests is normal in a patient with vWD?

1

Congenital deficiencies of which proteins will cause thrombosis?

1

How is antithrombin deficiency acquired?

1

Protein C and Protein S are Vitamin K independent.

1

If APC is added, aPTT is prolonged due to inhibition of coagulation.

1

Which is the most common inherited cause of thrombosis?

1

Prothrombin nucleotide 20210 is:

1

FXII deficiency can lead to a bleeding disorder.

1

An increase in plasminogen activator inhibitor 1 will result in

1

In a mixing study, a prolonged aPTT is corrected with FVIII deficient plasma, but not with FIX deficient plasma. What is the deficiency due to?

1

A short-filled sodium citrate tube will have what effect on coagulation results?

1

Platelet poor plasma is required for which studies?

1

Which factors would be used up in a clotted specimen?

1

Plasma adsorbed with barium sulphate will remove which group of factors?

1

What is needed to initiate the intrinsic pathway in vitro?

1

INR is used to monitor heparin therapy.

1

Select all that are true for aPTT:

1

A mixing studies was performed on a sample and was corrected. To determine if the correction was a result of a factor deficiency or factor antibody, another mixing studies was performed and incubated. The mixing studies results were corrected. This suggests the presence of a factor antibody. Is this interpretation correct?

1

The euglobulin lysis time tests how long it takes for the sample to clot.

1

Which of the following can prolong thrombin time, which looks at how long it takes a sample to clot.

1

Clot formation time is proportional to the concentration of fibrinogen in the sample plasma.

1

The Clauss method of fibrinogen assay involves

1

5M Urea Test involves removing a clot and placing it in 5M urea and incubating it. Which of the following result interpretations are valid?

1

Low Molecular Weight Heparin (LMWH) monitors

1

In a plasma sample with APCr, we expect that

1

Reptilase time

1

Select all that apply to the DRVVT for LA:

1

PT 20s, aPTT 50s, TT 25s
What is the most probably diagnosis?

1

Which coagulation test(s) would be abnormal in a vitamin K-dependent patient?

1

Which of the following is an anticoagulant therapy treatment options?

1

How does Warfarin (Coumadin) act as a Vitamin K antagonist?

1

Which factor monitored by Warfarin therapy has the shortest half-life?

1

If INR low, patient is at risk of bleeding.

1

Which of the following can reduce the effect of Warfarin therapy?

1

Which of the following anti-clotting substances acts on factors V and VIII?

1

Which of the following is a cofactor?

1

Heparin activates antithrombin to neutralize serine proteases activated by thrombin.

1

How is Unfractionated Heparin administered?

1

How is a heparin overdose treated?

1

What side affect may arise as a result of long-term Heparin use?

1

Low Molecular Weight Heparin (LMWH) has minimal affect on FIIa activity because it is too short to properly bind IIa.

1

Fondaparinux is a

1

Which of the following are requires for coagulation in aPTT?

1

What is the most common inherited bleeding disorder?

1

Heparin Induced Thrombocytopenia:

1

Which of the following should be avoided when treating HIT?

1

Patients with which of the following diseases may have a normal PTT?

1

Which of the following does not directly inhibit FXa?

1

Which direct thrombin inhibitor is not primarily used to treat HIT?

1

Which of the following are advantages of using Dabigatran?

1

Which of the following is false regarding direct FXa inhibitors?

1

How does Aspirin inhibit platelets from aggregating?

1

Which condition may thrombolytic therapy be used for?

1

Which of the following is a "clot buster drug"?

1

Which of the following is not a thrombolytic therapy?

HEML240 Quiz am FINAL REVIEW , erstellt von Nadia Persaud am 05/12/2017.

FINAL REVIEW

Which of the following is NOT indicative of accelerated red cell destruction?

Which feature is present in BOTH intra- and extravascular hemolysis?

Select all that apply for INTRAVASCULAR hemolysis:

Select all that apply for EXTRAVASCULAR hemolysis:

Normal adult hemoglobin consists of: 95% - 100% HbA 0% - 2% HbF 0% - 3.5% HbA2

Sickle Solubility screening test is a qualitative screening test that dectects the presence of sickling hemoglobins mainly HbA.

What are the components of an alkaline hemoglobin electrophoresis?

Alkaline electrophoresis runs SDG and CEOA2 together.

What techniques can be used to separate hemoglobin?

A positively charges cellulose attracts a negatively charged hemoglobin molecule. Which separation technique does this describe?

During HbA2 Column Chromatography, A2 is eluted as the 3mL glycine reagent and the absorbance of the A2 fraction and total hemoglobin are measured to determine the %HbA2.

Which hemoglobin fractions is HPLC able to detect and distinguish?

Which hemoglobin separation technique separates fractions based on the difference in charge to size ratio through an electric field?

An increase in HbA2 is associated with which condition?

The principle behind the Kleihauer-Betke Acid Elution test is eluting HbF out of the solution, making the cells colourless, while HbA are resistant to elution and will stain pink.

Which clinical condition is screened for using the sucrose hemolysis test?

Less than 5% hemolysis indicates that RBCs of PNH are more sensitive to complement on their cell surface.

HAM test for PNH is based on:

Which of the following interpretations matches G6PD deficiency screening test?

The amount of NAD produced is proportional to the amount of PK in patient cells

Normal adult hemoglobin consists of:
95% - 100% HbA
0% - 2% HbF
0% - 3.5% HbA2