ISTQB Foundation Level - 500 questions

Frage 1 von 200

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Q. 1: Given the following state transition table Which of the test cases below will cover the following series of state transitions? S1 SO S1 S2 SO

Wähle eine der folgenden:

A. D, A, B, C.
B. A, B, C, D.
C. D, A, B.
D. A, B, C.

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Frage 2 von 200

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Q. 2: From a Testing perspective, what are the MAIN purposes of Configuration
Management?:
i) Identifying the version of software under test.
ii) Controlling the version of testware items.
iii) Developing new testware items.
iv) Tracking changes to testware items.
v) Analysing the need for new testware items.

Wähle eine der folgenden:

A. ii, iv and v.
B. ii, iii and iv.i
C. i, ii and iv.
D. i, iii and v.

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Frage 3 von 200

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Q. 3: Which of the following is a MAJOR task of test planning?

Wähle eine der folgenden:

A. Scheduling test analysis and design tasks.
B. Initiating corrective actions.
C. Monitoring progress and test coverage.
D. Measuring and analyzing results.

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Frage 4 von 200

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Q. 4: Which of the following BEST describes the difference between an inspection and a
walkthrough?

Wähle eine der folgenden:

A. Both inspections and walkthroughs are led by the author.
B. An inspection is led by a moderator and a walkthrough is led by the author.
C. Both inspections and walkthroughs are led by a trained moderator.
D. A walkthrough is led by the author. The author is not present during inspections.

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Frage 5 von 200

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Q. 5: Where may functional testing be performed?

Wähle eine der folgenden:

A. At system and acceptance testing levels only.
B. At all test levels.
C. At all levels above integration testing.
D. At the acceptance testing level only.

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Frage 6 von 200

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Q. 6: What is the MAIN objective when reviewing a software deliverable?

Wähle eine der folgenden:

A. To identify potential application failures by use of a test specification.
B. To identify defects in any software work product.
C. To identify spelling mistakes in a requirements specification.
D. To identify standards inconsistencies in the code.

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Frage 7 von 200

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Q. 7: Who would USUALLY perform debugging activities?

Wähle eine der folgenden:

A. Developers.
B. Analysts.
C. Testers.
D. Incident Managers.

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Frage 8 von 200

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Q. 8: Which of the following would you NOT usually find on a software incident report?

Wähle eine der folgenden:

A. The name and/or organisational position of the person raising the problem.
B. Version of the Software Under Test.
C. Suggestions as to how to fix the problem.
D. Actual and expected results.

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Frage 9 von 200

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Q. 9: Which of the following defines the expected results of a test?

Wähle eine der folgenden:

A. Test case specification.
B. Test design specification.
C. Test procedure specification.
D. Test results.

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Frage 10 von 200

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Q. 10: Some tools are geared more for developer use. For the 5 tools listed, which
statement BEST details those for developers

i) Performance testing tools.
ii) Coverage measurement tools.
iii) Test comparators.
iv) Dynamic analysis tools.
v) Incident management tools.

Wähle eine der folgenden:

A. i, iii. and iv. are more for developers.
B. ii. and iv. are more for developers.
C. ii, iii. and iv. are more for developers.
D. ii. and iii. are more for developers.

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Frage 11 von 200

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Q. 11: Which of the following is correct?

Wähle eine der folgenden:

A. Impact analysis assesses the effect on the system of a defect found in regression testing.
B. Impact analysis assesses the effect of a new person joining the regression test team.
C. Impact analysis assesses whether or not a defect found in regression testing has been
fixed correctly.
D. Impact analysis assesses the effect of a change to the system to determine how much
regression testing to do.

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Frage 12 von 200

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Q. 12: As part of which test process do you determine the exit criteria?

Wähle eine der folgenden:

A. Test planning.
B. Evaluating exit criteria and reporting.
C. Test closure.
D. Test control.

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Frage 13 von 200

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Q. 13: Given the following state transition diagram Which of the following series of
state transitions contains an INVALID transition which may indicate a fault in the system
design?

Wähle eine der folgenden:

A. Login Browse Basket Checkout Basket Checkout Pay Logout.
B. Login Browse Basket Checkout Pay Logout.
C. Login Browse Basket Checkout Basket Logout.
D. Login Browse Basket Browse Basket Checkout Pay Logout.

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Frage 14 von 200

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Q. 14: Which of the following is a MAJOR task of test implementation and execution?

Wähle eine der folgenden:

A. Measuring and analyzing results.
B. Reporting discrepancies as incidents.
C. Identifying test conditions or test requirements.
D. Assessing if more tests are needed.

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Frage 15 von 200

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Q. 15: What is beta testing?

Wähle eine der folgenden:

A. Testing performed by potential customers at the developers location.
B. Testing performed by potential customers at their own locations.
C. Testing performed by product developers at the customer's location.
D. Testing performed by product developers at their own locations.

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Frage 16 von 200

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Q. 16: Given the following fragment of code, how many tests are required for 100%
decision coverage?

if width > length
then
biggest_dimension = width
if height > width
then
biggest_dimension = height
end_if
else
biggest_dimension = length
if height > length
then
biggest_dimension = height
end_if
end_if

Wähle eine der folgenden:

A. 3
B. 4
C. 2
D. 1

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Frage 17 von 200

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Q. 17: You have designed test cases to provide 100% statement and 100% decision
coverage for the following fragment of code.

if width > length
then
biggest_dimension = width
else
biggest_dimension = length
end_if

The following has been added to the bottom of the code fragment above.

print "Biggest dimension is " & biggest_dimension
print "Width: " & width
print "Length: " & length

How many more test cases are required?

Wähle eine der folgenden:

A. One more test case will be required for 100 % decision coverage.
B. Two more test cases will be required for 100 % statement coverage, one of which will be
used to provide 100% decision coverage.
C. None, existing test cases can be used.
D. One more test case will be required for 100" statement coverage.

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Frage 18 von 200

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Q. 18: A thermometer measures temperature in whole degrees only. If the temperature
falls below 18 degrees, the heating is switched off. It is switched on again when the
temperature reaches 21 degrees. What are the best values in degrees to cover all
equivalence partitions?

Wähle eine der folgenden:

A. 15, 19 and 25.
B. 17, 18 and 19.
C. 18, 20 and 22.
D. 16, 26 and 32.

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Frage 19 von 200

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Q. 19: Which activity in the fundamental test process creates test suites for efficient
test execution?

Wähle eine der folgenden:

A. Implementation and execution.
B. Planning and control.
C. Analysis and design.
D. Test closure.

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Frage 20 von 200

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Q. 20: Which of the following is TRUE?

Wähle eine der folgenden:

A. Confirmation testing is testing fixes to a set of defects and Regression testing is testing
to establish whether any defects have been introduced as a result of changes.
B. Confirmation testing is testing to establish whether any defects have been introduced as
a result of changes and Regression testing is testing fixes to a set of defects.
C. Confirmation testing and Regression testing are both testing to establish whether any
defects have been introduced as a result of changes.
D. Confirmation testing and Regression testing are both testing fixes to a set of defects.

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Frage 21 von 200

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Q. 21: Given the following decision table: Which of the following test cases and
expected results is VALID?

Wähle eine der folgenden:

A. 23 year old in insurance class A Premium is 0 and excess is,500.
B. 51 year old in insurance class C Premium is 0 and excess is 00.
C. 31 year old in insurance class B Premium is 0 and excess is ,500.
D. 43 year old in insurance class C Premium is 0 and excess is ,000.

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Frage 22 von 200

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Q. 22: When should configuration management procedures be implemented?

Wähle eine der folgenden:

A. During test planning.
B. During test analysis.
C. During test execution.
D. When evaluating exit criteria

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Frage 23 von 200

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Q. 23: Which of the following are characteristic of regression testing ?

i) Regression testing is run ONLY once
ii) Regression testing is used after fixes have been made
iii) Regression testing is often automated
iv) Regression tests need not be maintained

Wähle eine der folgenden:

A. ii, iv.
B. ii, iii.
C. i, iii, iv.
D. iii.

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Frage 24 von 200

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Q. 24: A wholesaler sells printer cartridges. The minimum order quantity is 5. There is
a 20% discount for orders of 100 or more printer cartridges. You have been asked to
prepare test cases using various values for the number of printer cartridges ordered.
Which of the following groups contain three test inputs that would be generated using
Boundary Value Analysis?

Wähle eine der folgenden:

A. 5, 6, 20
B. 4, 5, 80
C. 4, 5, 99
D. 1, 20, 100

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Frage 25 von 200

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Q. 25: Which of the following activities should be performed during the selection and
implementation of a testing tool?

i) Investigate the organisation's test process.
ii) Conduct a proof of concept.
iii) Implement the selected tool on a project behind schedule to save time.
iv) Identify coaching and mentoring requirements for the use of the selected tool.

Wähle eine der folgenden:

A. i, ii, iii.
B. ii, iii, iv.
C. i, iii, iv.
iv.

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Frage 26 von 200

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Q. 26: What is the MAIN benefit of designing tests early in the life cycle?

Wähle eine der folgenden:

A. It is cheaper than designing tests during the test phases.
B. It helps prevent defects from being introduced into the code.
C. Tests designed early are more effective than tests designed later.
D. It saves time during the testing phases when testers are busy.

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Frage 27 von 200

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Q. 27: Which of the following benefits are MOST likely to be achieved by using test
tools?

i) Easy to access information about tests and testing.
ii) Reduced maintenance of testware.
iii) Easy and cheap to implement.
iv) Greater consistency of tests.

Wähle eine der folgenden:

A. ii and iv
B. ii and iii
C. i and iv
D. i and iii

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Frage 28 von 200

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Q. 28: What is the KEY difference between preventative and reactive approaches to
testing?

Wähle eine der folgenden:

A. Preventative tests and reactive tests are designed as early as possible.
B. Preventative tests are designed early; reactive tests are designed after the software has
been produced.
C. Preventative testing is always analytical; reactive testing is always heuristic.
D. Preventative tests are designed after the software has been produced; reactive tests are
designed early in response to review comments.

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Frage 29 von 200

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Q. 29: What is the purpose of exit criteria?

Wähle eine der folgenden:

A. To define when a test level is complete.
B. To determine when a test has completed.
C. To identify when a software system should be retired.
D. To determine whether a test has passed.

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Frage 30 von 200

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Q. 30: What determines the level of risk?

Wähle eine der folgenden:

A. The cost of dealing with an adverse event if it occurs.
B. The probability that an adverse event will occur.
C. The amount of testing planned before release of a system.
D. The likelihood of an adverse event and the impact of the event.

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Frage 31 von 200

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Q. 31: With which of the following categories is a test comparator tool USUALLY
associated?

Wähle eine der folgenden:

A. Tool support for performance and monitoring.
B. Tool support for static testing.
C. Tool support for test execution and logging.
D. Tool support for the management of testing and tests.

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Frage 32 von 200

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Q. 32: Which activities form part of test planning?

i) Developing test cases.
ii) Defining the overall approach to testing.
iii) Assigning resources.
iv) Building the test environment
v) Writing test conditions.

Wähle eine der folgenden:

A. i, ii & iv are true, iii & v are false.
B. ii & iii are true, i, iv & v are false.
C. iv & v are true, i, ii & iii are false.
D. i, ii & iii are true iv & v are false.

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Frage 33 von 200

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Q. 33: Match the following terms and statements.

1.Decision Table Testing
2.Decision Testing
3.State Transition Testing
4.Exploratory Testing

W. Testing carried out w boxes to achieve specific test objectives, possibly to complement
structured testing.
X. A test technique used which may be used to verify different system re depending on
current conditions or previous history.
Y. A test technique which combines combinations of inputs that might not otherwise have
been exercised during testing.
Z. A form of control flow testing based on decision outcomes.

Wähle eine der folgenden:

A. 1Y, 2Z, 3X, 4W.
B. 1X ,2W, 3Z, 4Y.
C. 1Z, 2X, 3W, 4Y.
D. 1Z, 2Y, 3X, 4W.

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Frage 34 von 200

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Q. 34: Which type of test design techniques does the following statement best describe
a procedure to derive test cases based on the specification of a component?

Wähle eine der folgenden:

A. Black Box Techniques.
B. White Box Techniques.
C. Glass Box Techniques.
D. Experience Based Techniques.

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Frage 35 von 200

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Q. 35: For which of the following would a static analysis tool be MOST useful?

Wähle eine der folgenden:

A. Supporting reviews.
B. Validating models of the software.
C. Testing code executed in a special test harness.
D. Enforcement of coding standards.

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Frage 36 von 200

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Q. 36: Which of the following types of defects is use case testing MOST LIKELY to
uncover?

i) Defects in the process flows during real-world use of the system.
ii) Defects in the interface parameters in integration testing.
iii) Integration defects caused by the interaction and interference of different components.
iv) Defects in the system as it transitions between one state and another.

Wähle eine der folgenden:

A. ii, iii.
B. i, iii.
C. iii, iv.
D. i, ii

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Frage 37 von 200

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Q. 37: Which of the following is MOST important in the selection of a test approach?

Wähle eine der folgenden:

A. Availability of tools to support the proposed techniques.
B. The budget allowed for training in proposed techniques.
C. Available skills and experience in the proposed techniques.
D. The willingness of the test team to learn new techniques.

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Frage 38 von 200

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Q. 38: Which of the following is a benefit of test independence?

Wähle eine der folgenden:

A. It does not require familiarity with the code.
B. It is cheaper than using developers to test their own code.
C. It avoids author bias in defining effective tests.
D. Testers are better at finding defects than developers.

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Frage 39 von 200

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Q. 39: The above diagram represents the following paths through the code.

A. vwy
B. vwz
C. vxy
D. vxz

What is the MINIMUM combination of paths required to provide full statement coverage?

Wähle eine der folgenden:

A. A
B. ABD
C. ABCD
D. ACD

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Frage 40 von 200

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Q. 40: Which of the following is MOST characteristic of specification based (black-box)
techniques?

Wähle eine der folgenden:

A. Test cases can be easily automated.
B. Test cases are independent of each other.
C. Test cases are derived systematically from models of the system .
D. Test cases are derived systematically from the delivered code.

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Frage 41 von 200

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Q. 41: Which of the following combinations correctly describes a valid approach to
component testing:

i) Functional testing of the component in isolation.
ii) Structure-based testing of the code without recording incidents.
iii) Automated tests that are run until the component passes.
iv) Functional testing of the interfaces between modules.

Wähle eine der folgenden:

A. i and ii.
B. I, ii and iii
C. iii.
D. ii and iv

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Frage 42 von 200

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Q. 42: Which of the following is a purpose of the review planning phase?

Wähle eine der folgenden:

A. Log defects.
B. Explain the documents to the participants.
C. Gather metrics.
D. Allocate the individual roles.

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Frage 43 von 200

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Q. 43: A defect arrival rate curve:

Wähle eine der folgenden:

A. Shows the number of newly discovered defects per unit time
B. Shows the number of open defects per unit time.
C. Shows the cumulative total number of defects found up to this time.
D. Any of these, depending on the company.

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Frage 44 von 200

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Q. 44: Which is the best definition of complete testing:

Wähle eine der folgenden:

A. You have discovered every bug in the program.
B. You have tested every statement, branch, and combination of branches in the program.
C. You have completed every test in the test plan.
D. You have reached the scheduled ship date.

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Frage 45 von 200

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Q. 45: Complete statement and branch coverage means:

Wähle eine der folgenden:

A. That you have tested every statement in the program.
B. That you have tested every statement and every branch in the program.
C. That you have tested every IF statement in the program.
D. That you have tested every combination of values of IF statements in the program

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Frage 46 von 200

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Q. 46: There are several risks of managing your project's schedule with a statistical
reliability model. These include (choose one or more of the following):

Wähle eine der folgenden:

A. Testers spend more energy early in the product trying to find bugs than preparing to do
the rest of the project's work more efficiently
B. Managers might not realize that the testing effort is ineffective, late in the project,
because they expect a low rate of bug finding, so the low rate achieved doesn't alarm
them.
C. It can increase the end-of-project pressure on testers to not find bugs, or to not report
bugs.
D. All of the above

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Frage 47 von 200

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Q. 47: Typical defects that are easier to find in reviews than in dynamic testing are:

Wähle eine der folgenden:

A. Deviations from standards,
B. Requirement defects,
C. Design defects,
D. Insufficient maintainability and incorrect interface specifications.
E. All of the above.

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Frage 48 von 200

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Q. 48: Reviews, static analysis and dynamic testing have the same objective

Wähle eine der folgenden:

A. Identifying defects.
B. Fixing defects.
C. A. and B
D. None of the above

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Frage 49 von 200

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Q. 49: We can achieve complete statement coverage but still miss bugs because:

Wähle eine der folgenden:

A. The failure occurs only if you reach a statement taking the TRUE branch of an IF
statement, and you got to the statement with a test that passed through the FALSE branch.
B. The failure depends on the program's inability to handle specific data values, rather than on the program's flow of control.
C. We are not required to test code that customers are unlikely to execute.
D. All of the above

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Frage 50 von 200

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Q. 50: Measurement dysfunction is a problem because:

Wähle eine der folgenden:

A. Even though the numbers you look at appear better, to achieve these numbers, people
are doing other aspects of their work much less well.
B. We don't know how to measure a variable (our measurement is dysfunctional) and so we don't know how to interpret the result.
C. You are measuring the wrong thing and thus reaching the wrong conclusions.
D. All of the above.

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Frage 51 von 200

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Q. 51: Important consequences of the impossibility of complete testing are (Choose one
or more answers):

Wähle eine der folgenden:

A. We can never be certain that the program is bug free.
B. We have no definite stopping point for testing, which makes it easier for some managers to argue for very little testing.
C. We have no easy answer for what testing tasks should always be required, because every task takes time that could be spent on other high importance tasks.
D. All of the above.

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Frage 52 von 200

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Q. 52: Poor software characteristics are

Wähle eine der folgenden:

A. Only Project risks
B. Only Product risks
C. Project risks and Product risks
D. Project risks or Product risks

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Frage 53 von 200

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Q. 53: System testing should investigate

Wähle eine der folgenden:

A. Non-functional requirements only not Functional requirements
B. Functional requirements only not non-functional requirements
C. Non-functional requirements and Functional requirements
D. Non-functional requirements or Functional requirements

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Frage 54 von 200

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Q. 54: Contract and regulation testing is a part of

Wähle eine der folgenden:

A. System testing
B. Acceptance testing
C. Integration testing
D. Smoke testing

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Frage 55 von 200

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Q. 55: Find the correct flow of the phases of a formal review

Wähle eine der folgenden:

A. Planning, Review meeting, Rework, Kick off
B. Planning, Individual preparation, Kick off, Rework
C. Planning, Review meeting, Rework, Follow up
D. Planning, Individual preparation, Follow up, Kick off

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Frage 56 von 200

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Q. 56: Which is not the testing objectives

Wähle eine der folgenden:

A. Finding defects
B. Gaining confidence about the level of quality and providing information
C. Preventing defects.
D. Debugging defects

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Frage 57 von 200

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Q. 57: Maintenance releases and technical assistance centers are examples of which of
the following costs of quality?

Wähle eine der folgenden:

A. External failure
B. Internal failure
C. Appraisal
D. Prevention

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Frage 58 von 200

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Q. 58: Which is not the project risks

Wähle eine der folgenden:

A. Supplier issues
B. Organization factors
C. Technical issues
D. Error-prone software delivered

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Frage 59 von 200

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Q. 59: Bug life cycle

Wähle eine der folgenden:

A. Open, Assigned, Fixed, Closed
B. Open, Fixed, Assigned, Closed
C. Assigned, Open, Closed, Fixed
D. Assigned, Open, Fixed, Closed

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Frage 60 von 200

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Q. 60: Who is responsible for document all the issues, problems and open point that
were identified during the review meeting

Wähle eine der folgenden:

A. Moderator
B. Scribe
C. Reviewers
D. Author

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Frage 61 von 200

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Q. 61: ‘X’ has given a data on a person age, which should be between 1 to 99. Using
BVA which is the appropriate one

Wähle eine der folgenden:

A. 0,1,2,99
B. 1, 99, 100, 98
C. 0, 1, 99, 100
D. –1, 0, 1, 99

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Frage 62 von 200

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Q. 62: Which is not a testing principle

Wähle eine der folgenden:

A. Early testing
B. Defect clustering
C. Pesticide paradox
D. Exhaustive testing

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Frage 63 von 200

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Q. 63: A project that is in the implementation phase is six weeks behind schedule.

The delivery date for the product is four months away. The project is not allowed to slip
the delivery date or compromise on the quality standards established for his product. Which
of the following actions would bring this project back on schedule?

Wähle eine der folgenden:

A. Eliminate some of the requirements that have not yet been implemented.
B. Add more engineers to the project to make up for lost work.
C. Ask the current developers to work overtime until the lost work is recovered.
D. Hire more software quality assurance personnel.

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Frage 64 von 200

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Q. 64: The ___________ Testing will be performed by the people at client own
locations

Wähle eine der folgenden:

A. Alpha testing
B. Field testing
C. Performance testing
D. System testing

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Frage 65 von 200

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Q. 65: Which of the following is the standard for the Software product quality

Wähle eine der folgenden:

A. ISO 1926
B. ISO 829
C. ISO 1012
D. ISO 1028

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Frage 66 von 200

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Q. 66: Which is not a black box testing technique

Wähle eine der folgenden:

A. Equivalence partition
B. Decision tables
C. Transaction diagrams
D. Decision testing

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Frage 67 von 200

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Q. 67: Find the mismatch

Wähle eine der folgenden:

A. Test data preparation tools – Manipulate Data bases
B. Test design tools – Generate test inputs
C. Requirement management tools – Enables individual tests to be traceable
D. Configuration management tools – Check for consistence

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Frage 68 von 200

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Q. 68: Use cases can be performed to test

Wähle eine der folgenden:

A. Performance testing
B. Unit testing
C. Business scenarios
D. Static testing

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Frage 69 von 200

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Q. 69: Purpose of test design technique is

Wähle eine der folgenden:

A. Identifying test conditions only, not Identifying test cases
B. Not Identifying test conditions, Identifying test cases only
C. Identifying test conditions and Identifying test cases
D. Identifying test conditions or Identifying test cases

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Frage 70 von 200

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Q. 70: One person has been dominating the current software process improvement
meeting. Which of the following techniques should the facilitator use to bring other
team members into the discussion?

Wähle eine der folgenden:

A. Confront the person and ask that other team members be allowed to express their
opinions.
B. Wait for the person to pause, acknowledge the person’ s opinion, and ask for someone
else’ s opinion.
C. Switch the topic to an issue about which the person does not have a strong opinion.
D. Express an opinion that differs from the person’ s opinion in order to encourage others to express their ideas.

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Frage 71 von 200

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Q. 71: Stochastic testing using statistical information or operational profiles uses the
following method

Wähle eine der folgenden:

A. Heuristic testing approach
B. Methodical testing approach
C. Model based testing approach
D. Process or standard compliant testing approach

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Frage 72 von 200

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Q. 72: A software model that can’t be used in functional testing

Wähle eine der folgenden:

A. Process flow model
B. State transaction model
C. Menu structure model
D. Plain language specification model

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Frage 73 von 200

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Q. 73: Arc testing is known as

Wähle eine der folgenden:

A. Branch testing
B. Agile testing
C. Beta testing
D. Ad-hoc testing

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Frage 74 von 200

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Q. 74: The purpose of exit criteria is

Wähle eine der folgenden:

A. Define when to stop testing
B. End of test level
C. When a set of tests has achieved a specific pre condition
D. All of the above

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Frage 75 von 200

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Q. 75: The ___________ technique can be used to achieve input and output coverage

Wähle eine der folgenden:

A. Boundary value analysis
B. Equivalence partitioning
C. Decision table testing
D. State transition testing

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Frage 76 von 200

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Q. 76: The __________ testing is performed at the developing organization’s site

Wähle eine der folgenden:

A. Unit testing
B. Regression testing
C. Alpha testing
D. Integration testing

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Frage 77 von 200

1

Q. 77: What is the main purpose of Informal review

Wähle eine der folgenden:

A. Inexpensive way to get some benefit
B. Find defects
C. Learning, gaining understanding, effect finding
D. Discuss, make decisions, solve technical problems

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Frage 78 von 200

1

Q. 78: Which is not a Component testing

Wähle eine der folgenden:

A. Check the memory leaks
B. Check the robustness
C. Check the branch coverage
D. Check the decision tables

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Frage 79 von 200

1

Q. 79: The software engineer's role in tool selection is

Wähle eine der folgenden:

A. To identify, evaluate, and rank tools, and recommend tools to management
B. To determine what kind of tool is needed, then find it and buy it
C. To initiate the tool search and present a case to management
D. To identify, evaluate and select the tools

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Frage 80 von 200

1

Q. 80: Which is not the fundamental test process

Wähle eine der folgenden:

A. Planning and control
B. Test closure activities
C. Analysis and design
D. None

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Frage 81 von 200

1

Q. 81: The and are used within individual workbenches to produce
the right output products.

Wähle eine der folgenden:

A. Tools and techniques
B. Procedures and standards
C. Processes and walkthroughs
D. Reviews and update

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Frage 82 von 200

1

Q. 82: Which is not the software characteristics

Wähle eine der folgenden:

A. Reliability
B. Usability
C. Scalability
D. Maintainability

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Frage 83 von 200

1

Q. 83: The principle of Cyclomatic complexity, considering L as edges or links, N as
nodes, P as independent paths

Wähle eine der folgenden:

A. L-N +2P
B. N-L +2P
C. N-L +P
D. N-L +P

Erklärung

Frage 84 von 200

1

Q. 84: FPA is used to

Wähle eine der folgenden:

A. To measure the functional requirements of the project
B. To measure the size of the functionality of an Information system
C. To measure the functional testing effort
D. To measure the functional flow

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Frage 85 von 200

1

Q. 85: A _____ is the step-by-step method followed to ensure that standards are met

Wähle eine der folgenden:

A. SDLC
B. Project Plan
C. Policy
D. Procedure

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Frage 86 von 200

1

Q. 86: Which is not a test Oracle

Wähle eine der folgenden:

A. The existing system (For a bench mark)
B. The code
C. Individual’s knowledge
D. User manual

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Frage 87 von 200

1

Q. 87: PDCA is known as

Wähle eine der folgenden:

A. Plan, Do, Check, Act
B. Plan, Do, Correct, Act
C. Plan, Debug, Check, Act
D. Plan, Do, Check, Accept

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Frage 88 von 200

1

Q. 88: Which is the non-functional testing

Wähle eine der folgenden:

A. Performance testing
B. Unit testing
C. Regression testing
D. Sanity testing

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Frage 89 von 200

1

Q. 89: A Test Plan Outline contains which of the following:

i. Test Items
ii. Test Scripts
iii. Test Deliverables
iv. Responsibilities

Wähle eine der folgenden:

A. i,ii,iii are true and iv is false
B. i,iii,iv are true and ii is false
C. ii,iii are true and i and iv are false
D. i,ii are false and iii , iv are true

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Frage 90 von 200

1

Q. 90: Testing where in we subject the target of the test , to varying workloads to
measure and evaluate the performance behaviors and ability of the target and of the
test to continue to function properly under these different workloads.

Wähle eine der folgenden:

A. Load Testing
B. Integration Testing
C. System Testing
D. Usability Testing

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Frage 91 von 200

1

Q. 91: Which of the following is the task of a Tester?

i. Interaction with the Test Tool Vendor to identify best ways to leverage test tool on the project.
ii. Prepare and acquire Test Data
iii. Implement Tests on all test levels, execute and log the tests.
iv. Create the Test Specifications

Wähle eine der folgenden:

A. i, ii, iii is true and iv is false
B. ii,iii,iv is true and i is false
C. i is true and ii,iii,iv are false
D. iii and iv is correct and i and ii are incorrect

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Frage 92 von 200

1

Q. 92: What can static analysis NOT find?

Wähle eine der folgenden:

A. The use of a variable before it has been defined
B. Unreachable ("dead") code
C. Memory leaks
D. Array bound violations

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Frage 93 von 200

1

Q. 93: White Box Techniques are also called as:

Wähle eine der folgenden:

A. Structural Testing
B. Design Based Testin
C. Error Guessing Technique
D. Experience Based Technique

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Frage 94 von 200

1

Q. 94: Reviewing the test Basis is a part of which phase

Wähle eine der folgenden:

A. Test Analysis and Design
B. Test Implementation and execution
C. Test Closure Activities
D. Evaluating exit criteria and reporting

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Frage 95 von 200

1

Q. 95: Component Testing is also called as :-

i. Unit Testing
ii. Program Testing
iii. Module Testing
iv. System Component Testing .

Wähle eine der folgenden:

A. i,ii,iii are true and iv is false
B. i,ii,iii,iv are false
C. i,ii,iv are true and iii is false
D. all of above is true

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Frage 96 von 200

1

Q. 96: Which of the following is not a major task of Exit criteria?

Wähle eine der folgenden:

A. Checking test logs against the exit criteria specified in test planning.
B. Logging the outcome of test execution.
C. Assessing if more tests are needed.
D. Writing a test summary report for stakeholders.

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Frage 97 von 200

1

Q. 97: Which of the following is true about Formal Review or Inspection:-

i. Led by Trained Moderator (not the author).
ii. No Pre Meeting Preparations
iii. Formal Follow up process.
iv. Main Objective is to find defects

Wähle eine der folgenden:

A. ii is true and i,iii,iv are false
B. i,iii,iv are true and ii is false
C. i,iii,iv are false and ii is true
D. iii is true and I,ii,iv are false

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Frage 98 von 200

1

Q. 98: The Phases of formal review process is mentioned below arrange them in the
correct order.

i. Planning
ii. Review Meeting
iii. Rework
iv. Individual Preparations
v. Kick Off
vi. Follow Up

Wähle eine der folgenden:

A. i,ii,iii,iv,v,vi
B. vi,i,ii,iii,iv,v
C. i,v,iv,ii,iii,vi
D. i,ii,iii,v,iv,vi

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Frage 99 von 200

1

Q. 99: Testing activity which is performed to expose defects in the interfaces and in the
interaction between integrated components is :

Wähle eine der folgenden:

A. System Level Testing
B. Integration Level Testing
C. Unit Level Testing
D. Component Testing

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Frage 100 von 200

1

Q. 100: Methodologies adopted while performing Maintenance Testing:-

Wähle eine der folgenden:

A. Breadth Test and Depth Test
B. Re-testing
C. Confirmation Testing
D. Sanity Testing

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Frage 101 von 200

1

Q. 101: The Switch is switched off once the temperature falls below 18 and then it is
turned on when the temperature is more than 21. When the temperature is more than
21. Identify the Equivalance values which belong to the same class.

Wähle eine der folgenden:

A. 12,16,22
B. 24,27,17
C. 22,23,24
D. 14,15,19

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Frage 102 von 200

1

Q. 102: What is an equivalence partition (also known as an equivalence class)?

Wähle eine der folgenden:

A. A set of test cases for testing classes of objects
B. An input or output range of values such that only one value in the range becomes a test
case
C. An input or output range of values such that each value in the range becomes a test case
D. An input or output range of values such that every tenth value in the range becomes a
test case.

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Frage 103 von 200

1

Q. 103: Which of the following is not a part of the Test Implementation and Execution
Phase

Wähle eine der folgenden:

A. Creating test suites from the test cases
B. Executing test cases either manually or by using test execution tools
C. Comparing actual results
D. Designing the Tests

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Frage 104 von 200

1

Q. 104: Link Testing is also called as :

Wähle eine der folgenden:

A. Component Integration testing
B. Component System Testing
C. Component Sub System Testing
D. Maintenance testing

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Frage 105 von 200

1

Q. 105: Who are the persons involved in a Formal Review :-

i. Manager
ii. Moderator
iii. Scribe / Recorder
iv. Assistant Manager

Wähle eine der folgenden:

A. i,ii,iii,iv are true
B. i,ii,iii are true and iv is false.
C. ii,iii,iv are true and i is false.
D. i,iv are true and ii, iii are false.

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Frage 106 von 200

1

Q. 106: Which of the following statements regarding static testing is false:

Wähle eine der folgenden:

A. Static testing requires the running of tests through the code
B. Static testing includes desk checking
C. Static testing includes techniques such as reviews and inspections
D. Static testing can give measurements such as cyclomatic complexity

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Frage 107 von 200

1

Q. 107: Designing the test environment set-up and identifying any required
infrastructure and tools are a part of which phase

Wähle eine der folgenden:

A. Test Implementation and execution
B. Test Analysis and Design
C. Evaluating the Exit Criteria and reporting
D. Test Closure Activities

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Frage 108 von 200

1

Q. 108: A Type of functional Testing, which investigates the functions relating to
detection of threats, such as virus from malicious outsiders.

Wähle eine der folgenden:

A. Security Testing
B. Recovery Testing
C. Performance Testing
D. Functionality Testing

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Frage 109 von 200

1

Q. 109: A Person who documents all the issues, problems and open points that were
identified during a formal review.

Wähle eine der folgenden:

A. Moderator.
B. Scribe
C. Author
D. Manager

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Frage 110 von 200

1

Q. 110: The Test Cases Derived from use cases

Wähle eine der folgenden:

A. Are most useful in uncovering defects in the process flows during real world use of the
system
B. Are most useful in uncovering defects in the process flows during the testing use of the
system
C. Are most useful in covering the defects in the process flows during real world use of the
system
D. Are most useful in covering the defects at the Integration Level

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Frage 111 von 200

1

Q. 111: One of the fields on a form contains a text box which accepts alpha numeric
values. Identify the Valid Equivalence class

Wähle eine der folgenden:

A. BOOK
B. Book
C. Boo01k
D. book

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Frage 112 von 200

1

Q. 112: In a Examination a candidate has to score minimum of 24 marks inorder to clear
the exam. The maximum that he can score is 40 marks. Identify the Valid Equivalance
values if the student clears the exam.

Wähle eine der folgenden:

A. 22,23,26
B. 21,39,40
C. 29,30,31
D. 0,15,22

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Frage 113 von 200

1

Q. 113: Verification involves which of the following :-

i. Helps to check the Quality of the built product
ii. Helps to check that we have built the right product.
iii. Helps in developing the product
iv. Monitoring tool wastage and obsoleteness.

Wähle eine der folgenden:

A. Options i,ii,iii,iv are true.
B. i is true and ii,iii,iv are false
C. i,ii,iii are true and iv is false
D. ii is true and i,iii,iv are false.

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Frage 114 von 200

1

Q. 114: A Project risk includes which of the following :

Wähle eine der folgenden:

A. Organizational Factors
B. Poor Software characteristics
C. Error Prone software delivered.
D. Software that does not perform its intended functions

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Frage 115 von 200

1

Q. 115: Which of the following is a Key Characteristics of Walk Through

Wähle eine der folgenden:

A. Scenario , Dry Run , Peer Group
B. Pre Meeting Preparations
C. Formal Follow Up Process
D. Includes Metrics

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Frage 116 von 200

1

Q. 116: Which of the following techniques is NOT a White box technique?

Wähle eine der folgenden:

A. Statement Testing and coverage
B. Decision Testing and coverage
C. Condition Coverage
D. Boundary value analysis

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Frage 117 von 200

1

Q. 117: Reporting Discrepancies as incidents is a part of which phase :-

Wähle eine der folgenden:

A. Test Analysis and Design
B. Test Implementation and execution
C. Test Closure Activities
D. Evaluating exit criteria and reporting

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Frage 118 von 200

1

Q. 118: In a risk-based approach the risks identified may be used to :

i. Determine the test technique to be employed
ii. Determine the extent of testing to be carried out
iii. Prioritize testing in an attempt to find critical defects as early as possible.
iv. Determine the cost of the project

Wähle eine der folgenden:

A. ii is True; i, iii, iv & v are False
B. i,ii,iii are true and iv is false
C. ii & iii are True; i, iv are False
D. ii, iii & iv are True; i is false

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Frage 119 von 200

1

Q. 119: Incidents would not be raised against:

Wähle eine der folgenden:

A. Requirements
B. Documentation
C. Test cases
D. Improvements suggested by users

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Frage 120 von 200

1

Q. 120: The Planning phase of a formal review includes the following :

Wähle eine der folgenden:

A. Explaining the objectives
B. Selecting the personnel, allocating roles.
C. Follow up
D. Individual Meeting preparations

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Frage 121 von 200

1

Q. 121: Test Implementation and execution has which of the following major tasks?

i. Developing and prioritizing test cases, creating test data, writing test procedures and
optionally preparing the test harnesses and writing automated test scripts.
ii. Creating the test suite from the test cases for efficient test execution.
iii. Verifying that the test environment has been set up correctly.
iv. Determining the exit criteria.

Wähle eine der folgenden:

A. i,ii,iii are true and iv is false
B. i,,iv are true and ii is false
C. i,ii are true and iii,iv are false
D. ii,iii,iv are true and i is false

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Frage 122 von 200

1

Q. 122: One of the fields on a form contains a text box which accepts numeric values in
the range of 18 to 25. Identify the invalid Equivalance class

Wähle eine der folgenden:

A. 17
B. 19
C. 24
D. 21

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Frage 123 von 200

1

Q. 123: Exhaustive Testing is

Wähle eine der folgenden:

A. Is impractical but possible
B. Is practically possible
C. Is impractical and impossible
D. Is always possible

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Frage 124 von 200

1

Q. 124: Hand over of Testware is a part of which Phase

Wähle eine der folgenden:

A. Test Analysis and Design
B. Test Planning and control
C. Test Closure Activities
D. Evaluating exit criteria and reporting

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Frage 125 von 200

1

Q. 125: Which one is not comes under international standard

Wähle eine der folgenden:

A. IEC
B. IEEE
C. ISO
D. All of the above

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Frage 126 von 200

1

Q. 126: In which phase static tests are used

Wähle eine der folgenden:

A. Requirements
B. Design
C. Coding
D. All of the above

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Frage 127 von 200

1

Q. 127: What's the disadvantage of Black Box Testing

Wähle eine der folgenden:

A. Chances of having repetition of tests that are already done by programmer.
B. The test inputs needs to be from large sample space.
C. It is difficult to identify all possible inputs in limited testing time. So writing test cases is
slow and difficult
D. All above

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Frage 128 von 200

1

Q. 128: Static analysis tools are typically used by

Wähle eine der folgenden:

A. Testers
B. Developers
C. Testers & Developers
D. None

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Frage 129 von 200

1

Q. 129: Majority of system errors occur in the _________ phase

Wähle eine der folgenden:

A. Requirements Phase.
B. Analysis and Design Phase
C. Development Phase
D. Testing Phase

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Frage 130 von 200

1

Q. 130: The specification which describes steps required to operate the system and
exercise test cases in order to implement the associated test design

Wähle eine der folgenden:

A. Test Case Specification
B. Test Design Specification
C. Test Procedure Specification
D. None

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Frage 131 von 200

1

Q. 131: How much percentage of the life cycle costs of a software are spent on
maintenance.

Wähle eine der folgenden:

A. 10%
B. 30%
C. 50%
D. 70%

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Frage 132 von 200

1

Q. 132: When a defect is detected and fixed then the software should be retested to
confirm that the original defect has been successfully removed. This is called

Wähle eine der folgenden:

A. Regression testing
B. Maintenance testing
C. Confirmation testing
D. None of the above

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Frage 133 von 200

1

Q. 133: Equivalence testing divides the input domain into classes of data from which
test cases can be derived to reduce the total number of test cases that must be
developed.

Wähle eine der folgenden:

A. True
B. False

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Frage 134 von 200

1

Q. 134: When to stop Testing?

Wähle eine der folgenden:

A. Stop when scheduled time for testing expires
B. Stop if 75% of the pre-defined number of errors is detected.
C. Stop when all the test cases execute with detecting few errors.
D. None above

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Frage 135 von 200

1

Q. 135: With thorough testing it is possible to remove all defects from a program prior
to delivery to the customer.

Wähle eine der folgenden:

A. True
B. False

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Frage 136 von 200

1

Q. 136: Structure is unknown for which type of development project

Wähle eine der folgenden:

A. Traditional system development
B. Iterative development
C. System maintenance
D. Purchased/contracted software

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Frage 137 von 200

1

Q. 137: ________indicates how important it is to fix the bug and when it should be
fixed

Wähle eine der folgenden:

A. Severity
B. Priority
C. All of the above
D. None of the above

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Frage 138 von 200

1

Q. 138: The person who leads the review of the document(s), planning the
review,running the meeting and follow-up after the meeting

Wähle eine der folgenden:

A. Reviewer
B. Author
C. Moderator
D. Auditor

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Frage 139 von 200

1

Q. 139: Performs sufficient testing to evaluate every possible path and condition in the
application system. The only test method that guarantees the proper functioning of the
application system is called as _____________

Wähle eine der folgenden:

A. Regression Testing
B. Exhaustive Testing
C. Basic Path Testing
D. Branch Testing

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Frage 140 von 200

1

Q. 140: Quality Assurance is the process by which product quality is compared with the
application standards and the action taken when nonconformance is detected.

Wähle eine der folgenden:

A. True
B. False

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Frage 141 von 200

1

Q. 141: A formal assessment of a work product conducted by one or more qualified
independent reviewer to detect defects.

Wähle eine der folgenden:

A. Inspection.
B. Walkthrough.
C. Review
D. Non Conformance

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Frage 142 von 200

1

Q. 142: Test Case are grouped into Manageable (and scheduled) units are called as

Wähle eine der folgenden:

A. Test Harness
B. Test Suite
C. Test Cycle
D. Test Driver

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Frage 143 von 200

1

Q. 143: Configuration and compatibility testing are typically good choices for
outsourcing

Wähle eine der folgenden:

A. True
B. False

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Frage 144 von 200

1

Q. 144: What type of tools to be used for Regression Testing

Wähle eine der folgenden:

A. Performance
B. Record/Playback
C. A. & B.
D. None

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Frage 145 von 200

1

Q. 145: System Integration testing should be done after

Wähle eine der folgenden:

A. Integration testing
B. System testing
C. Unit testing
D. Component integration testing

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Frage 146 von 200

1

Q. 146: During this event the entire system is tested to verify that all functional
information structural and quality requirements have been met. A predetermined
combination of tests is designed that when executed successfully satisfy management
that the system meets specifications

Wähle eine der folgenden:

A. Validation Testing
B. Integration Testing
C. User Acceptance Testing
D. System Testing

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Frage 147 von 200

1

Q. 147: What is the normal order of activities in which software testing is organized?

Wähle eine der folgenden:

A. Unit, integration, system, validation
B. System, integration, unit, validation
C. Unit, integration, validation, system
D. None of the above

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Frage 148 von 200

1

Q. 148: The goal of a software tester is to find bugs, find them as early as possible and
make sure they get fixed.

Wähle eine der folgenden:

A. True
B. False

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Frage 149 von 200

1

Q. 149: Beta testing is performed at developing organization's site where as Alpha
testing is performed by people at their own locations.

Wähle eine der folgenden:

A. True
B. False

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Frage 150 von 200

1

Q. 150: The principal attributes of tools and automation are

Wähle eine der folgenden:

A. Speed & efficiency
B. Accuracy & precision
C. All of the above
D. None of the above

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Frage 151 von 200

1

Q. 151: In ______ testing doesn't know anything about the sofware being tested; it just
clicks or types randomly.

Wähle eine der folgenden:

A. Random testing
B. Gorilla testing
C. Adhoc testing
D. Dumb monkey testing

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Frage 152 von 200

1

Q. 152: A series of probing questions about the completeness and attributes of an
application system is called

Wähle eine der folgenden:

A. Checklist
B. Checkpoint review
C. Decision table
D. Decision tree

Erklärung

Frage 153 von 200

1

Q. 153: The testing technique that requires devising test cases to demonstrate that
each program function is operational is called

Wähle eine der folgenden:

A. Black-box testing
B. Glass-box testing
C. Grey-box testing
D. White-box testing

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Frage 154 von 200

1

Q. 154: A white box testing technique that measures the number of or percentage of
decision directions executed by the test case designed is called

Wähle eine der folgenden:

A. Condition coverage
B. Decision/Condition coverage
C. Decision Coverage
D. Branch coverage

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Frage 155 von 200

1

Q. 155: Which summarizes the testing activities associated with one or more test design
specifications.

Wähle eine der folgenden:

A. Test Summary report
B. Test Log
C. Test Incident Report
D. Test Script

Erklärung

Frage 156 von 200

1

Q. 156: Testing with out a real plan and test cases is called ---

Wähle eine der folgenden:

A. Gorilla testing
B. Monkey testing
C. Adhoc testing
D. All of the above

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Frage 157 von 200

1

Q. 157: Which rule should not be followed for reviews

Wähle eine der folgenden:

A. Defects and issues are identified and corrected
B. The product is reviewed not the producer
C. All members of the reviewing team are responsible for the result of the review
D. Each review has a clear predefined objective

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Frage 158 von 200

1

Q. 158: Verification can be termed as 'Are we building the product right?"

Wähle eine der folgenden:

A. True
B. False

Erklärung

Frage 159 von 200

1

Q. 159: Which testing is used to verify that the system can perform properly when
internal program or system limitations have been exceeded

Wähle eine der folgenden:

A. Stress Testing
B. Load Testing
C. Performance Testing
D. Volume testing

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Frage 160 von 200

1

Q. 160: Defects are recorded into three major purposes. They are:

1.To correct the defect
2.To report status of the application
3.To improve the software development process

Wähle eine der folgenden:

A. True
B. False

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Frage 161 von 200

1

Q. 161: Drivers are tools used to control and operate tge software being testeD.

Wähle eine der folgenden:

A. True
B. False

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Frage 162 von 200

1

Q. 162: Typical defects discovered by static analysis includes

Wähle eine der folgenden:

A. Programming standard violations
B. Referring a variable with an undefined value
C. Security vulnerabilities
D. All Above

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Frage 163 von 200

1

Q. 163: EULA stands for

Wähle eine der folgenden:

A. End Usability License Agreement
B. End User License Agreement
C. End User License Arrangement
D. End User License Attachment

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Frage 164 von 200

1

Q. 164: ________is a very early build intended for limited distribution to a few key
customers and to marketing for demonstration purposes.

Wähle eine der folgenden:

A. Alpha release
B. Beta release
C. Test release document
D. Build

Erklärung

Frage 165 von 200

1

Q. 165: CAST stands for

Wähle eine der folgenden:

A. Computer Aided Software Testing
B. Computer Aided Software Tools
C. Computer Analysis Software Techniques
D. None

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Frage 166 von 200

1

Q. 166: The tool modifies the program code or manipulates tge operating environment
in any way is considered non-invasive

Wähle eine der folgenden:

A. True
B. False

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Frage 167 von 200

1

Q. 167: Which test may not mimic real world situations

Wähle eine der folgenden:

A. Functional testing
B. Structural Testing
C. All of the above
D. None of the above

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Frage 168 von 200

1

Q. 168: _______ includes both Black box and White Box Testing features

Wähle eine der folgenden:

A. Gray Box Testing
B. Hybrid Testing
C. A. & B.
D. None

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Frage 169 von 200

1

Q. 169: Exhaustive testing is possible

Wähle eine der folgenden:

A. True
B. False

Erklärung

Frage 170 von 200

1

Q. 170: Tool which stores requirement statements, check for consistency and allow
requirements to be prioritized and enable individual tests to be traceable to
requirements, functions and features.

Wähle eine der folgenden:

A. Incident management tools
B. Requirements management tools
C. Configuration management tools
D. None

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Frage 171 von 200

1

Q. 171: The number of tests to test all control statements equals the cyclomatic
complexity

Wähle eine der folgenden:

A. True
B. False

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Frage 172 von 200

1

Q. 172: Boundary value analysis can only be used during white-box testing.

Wähle eine der folgenden:

A. True
B. False

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Frage 173 von 200

1

Q. 173: Which of these are objectives for software testing?

Wähle eine der folgenden:

A. Determine the productivity of programmers
B. Eliminate the need for future program maintenance
C. Eliminate every error prior to release
D. Uncover software errors

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Frage 174 von 200

1

Q. 174: Failure is _________

Wähle eine der folgenden:

A. Incorrect program behaviour due to a fault in the program
B. Bug found before product Release
C. Bug found after product Release
D. Bug found during Design phase

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Frage 175 von 200

1

Q. 175: During the software development process, at what point can the test process
start?

Wähle eine der folgenden:

A. When the code is complete.
B. When the design is complete.
C. When the software requirements have been approved.
D. When the first code module is ready for unit testing

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Frage 176 von 200

1

Q. 176: "How much testing is enough?"

Wähle eine der folgenden:

A. This question is impossible to answer
B. This question is easy to answer
C. The answer depends on the risk for your industry, contract and special requirements
D. This answer depends on the maturity of your developers

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Frage 177 von 200

1

Q. 177: Which of the following tools would be involved in the automation of regression
test?

Wähle eine der folgenden:

A. Data tester
B. Boundary tester
C. Capture/Playback
D. Output comparator.

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Frage 178 von 200

1

Q. 178: Incorrect form of Logic coverage is:

Wähle eine der folgenden:

A. Statement Coverage
B. Pole Coverage
C. Condition Coverage
D. Path Coverage

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Frage 179 von 200

1

Q. 179: Code Coverage is used as a measure of what?

Wähle eine der folgenden:

A. Defects
B. Trends analysis
C. Test Effectiveness
D. Time Spent Testing

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Frage 180 von 200

1

Q. 180: Fault Masking is

Wähle eine der folgenden:

A. Error condition hiding another error condition
B. Creating a test case which does not reveal a fault
C. Masking a fault by developer
D. Masking a fault by a tester

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Frage 181 von 200

1

Q. 181: Which of the following is not a quality characteristic listed in ISO 9126
Standard?

Wähle eine der folgenden:

A. Functionality
B. Usability
C. Supportability
D. Maintainability

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Frage 182 von 200

1

Q. 182: One Key reason why developers have difficulty testing their own work is :

Wähle eine der folgenden:

A. Lack of technical documentation
B. Lack of test tools on the market for developers
C. Lack of training
D. Lack of Objectivity

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Frage 183 von 200

1

Q. 183: Statement Coverage will not check for the following.

Wähle eine der folgenden:

A. Missing Statements
B. Unused Branches
C. Dead Code
D. Unused Statement

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Frage 184 von 200

1

Q. 184: Given the Following program

IF X <>= Z
THEN Statement 2;
END

McCabe’s Cyclomatic Complexity is :

Wähle eine der folgenden:

A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5

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Frage 185 von 200

1

Q. 185: To test a function, the programmer has to write a _________, which calls the
function to be tested and passes it test data.

Wähle eine der folgenden:

A. Stub
B. Driver
C. Proxy
D. None of the above

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Frage 186 von 200

1

Q. 186: Pick the best definition of quality

Wähle eine der folgenden:

A. Quality is job one
B. Zero defects
C. Conformance to requirements
D. Work as designed

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Frage 187 von 200

1

Q. 187: Boundary value testing

Wähle eine der folgenden:

A. Is the same as equivalence partitioning tests
B. Test boundary conditions on, below and above the edges of input and output equivalence
classes
C. Tests combinations of input circumstances
D. Is used in white box testing strategy

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Frage 188 von 200

1

Q. 188: An input field takes the year of birth between 1900 and 2004

The boundary values for testing this field are

Wähle eine der folgenden:

A. 0,1900,2004,2005
B. 1900, 2004
C. 1899,1900,2004,2005
D. 1899, 1900, 1901,2003,2004,2005

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Frage 189 von 200

1

Q. 189: How many test cases are necessary to cover all the possible sequences of
statements (paths) for the following program fragment? Assume that the two conditions
are independent of each other:

if (Condition 1)
then statement 1
else statement 2
fi
if (Condition 2)
then statement 3
fi

Wähle eine der folgenden:

A. 2 Test Cases
B. 3 Test Cases
C. 4 Test Cases
D. Not achievable

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Frage 190 von 200

1

Q. 190: A common test technique during component test is

Wähle eine der folgenden:

A. Statement and branch testing
B. Usability testing
C. Security testing
D. Performance testing

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Frage 191 von 200

1

Q. 191: In a review meeting a moderator is a person who

Wähle eine der folgenden:

A. Takes minutes of the meeting
B. Mediates between people
C. Takes telephone calls
D. Writes the documents to be reviewed

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Frage 192 von 200

1

Q. 192: Acceptance test cases are based on what?

Wähle eine der folgenden:

A. Requirements
B. Design
C. Code
D. Decision table

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Frage 193 von 200

1

Q. 193: Which one of the following are non-functional testing methods?

Wähle eine der folgenden:

A. System testing
B. Usability testing
C. Performance testing
D. Both B & C

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Frage 194 von 200

1

Q. 194: Independent Verification & Validation is

Wähle eine der folgenden:

A. Done by the Developer
B. Done by the Test Engineers
C. Done By Management
D. Done by an Entity Outside the Project’s sphere of influence

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Frage 195 von 200

1

Q. 195: Defect Management process does not include

Wähle eine der folgenden:

A. Defect prevention
B. Deliverable base-lining
C. Management reporting
D. None of the above

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Frage 196 von 200

1

Q. 196: Which of the following could be a reason for a failure

1) Testing fault
2) Software fault
3) Design fault
4) Environment Fault
5) Documentation Fault

Wähle eine der folgenden:

A. 2 is a valid reason; 1,3,4 & 5 are not
B. 1,2,3,4 are valid reasons; 5 is not
C. 1,2,3 are valid reasons; 4 & 5 are not
D. All of them are valid reasons for failure

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Frage 197 von 200

1

Q. 197: Test are prioritized so that:

Wähle eine der folgenden:

A. You shorten the time required for testing
B. You do the best testing in the time available
C. You do more effective testing
D. You find more faults

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Frage 198 von 200

1

Q. 198: When a new testing tool purchased, it should be used first by:

Wähle eine der folgenden:

A. A small team to establish the best way to use the tool
B. Everyone who may eventually have some use for the tool
C. The independent testing team
D. The vendor contractor to write the initial scripts

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Frage 199 von 200

1

Q. 199: During which test activity could faults be found most cost effectively?

Wähle eine der folgenden:

A. Execution
B. Design
C. Planning
D. Check Exit criteria completion

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Frage 200 von 200

1

Q. 200: What is the difference between testing software developed by contractor
outside your country, versus testing software developed by a contractor within your
country?

Wähle eine der folgenden:

A. Does not meet people needs
B. Cultural difference
C. Loss of control over reallocation of resources
D. Relinquishments of control

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500 Questions, simulation exam

ISTQB Foundation Level - 500 questions

Frage 1 von 200

Q. 1: Given the following state transition table Which of the test cases below will cover the following series of state transitions? S1 SO S1 S2 SO

Wähle eine der folgenden:

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Frage 2 von 200

Wähle eine der folgenden:

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Frage 3 von 200

Q. 3: Which of the following is a MAJOR task of test planning?

Wähle eine der folgenden:

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Frage 4 von 200

Q. 4: Which of the following BEST describes the difference between an inspection and a walkthrough?

Wähle eine der folgenden:

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Frage 5 von 200

Q. 5: Where may functional testing be performed?

Wähle eine der folgenden:

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Frage 6 von 200

Q. 6: What is the MAIN objective when reviewing a software deliverable?

Wähle eine der folgenden:

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Frage 7 von 200

Q. 7: Who would USUALLY perform debugging activities?

Wähle eine der folgenden:

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Frage 8 von 200

Q. 8: Which of the following would you NOT usually find on a software incident report?

Wähle eine der folgenden:

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Frage 9 von 200

Q. 9: Which of the following defines the expected results of a test?

Wähle eine der folgenden:

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Frage 10 von 200

Q. 10: Some tools are geared more for developer use. For the 5 tools listed, which statement BEST details those for developers i) Performance testing tools. ii) Coverage measurement tools. iii) Test comparators. iv) Dynamic analysis tools. v) Incident management tools.

Wähle eine der folgenden:

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Frage 11 von 200

Q. 11: Which of the following is correct?

Wähle eine der folgenden:

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Frage 12 von 200

Q. 12: As part of which test process do you determine the exit criteria?

Wähle eine der folgenden:

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Frage 13 von 200

Q. 13: Given the following state transition diagram Which of the following series of state transitions contains an INVALID transition which may indicate a fault in the system design?

Wähle eine der folgenden:

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Frage 14 von 200

Q. 14: Which of the following is a MAJOR task of test implementation and execution?

Wähle eine der folgenden:

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Frage 15 von 200

Q. 15: What is beta testing?

Wähle eine der folgenden:

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Frage 16 von 200

Wähle eine der folgenden:

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Frage 17 von 200

Wähle eine der folgenden:

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Frage 18 von 200

Q. 18: A thermometer measures temperature in whole degrees only. If the temperature falls below 18 degrees, the heating is switched off. It is switched on again when the temperature reaches 21 degrees. What are the best values in degrees to cover all equivalence partitions?

Wähle eine der folgenden:

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Frage 19 von 200

Q. 19: Which activity in the fundamental test process creates test suites for efficient test execution?

Wähle eine der folgenden:

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Frage 20 von 200

Q. 20: Which of the following is TRUE?

Wähle eine der folgenden:

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Frage 21 von 200

Q. 4: Which of the following BEST describes the difference between an inspection and a
walkthrough?

Q. 10: Some tools are geared more for developer use. For the 5 tools listed, which
statement BEST details those for developers

i) Performance testing tools.
ii) Coverage measurement tools.
iii) Test comparators.
iv) Dynamic analysis tools.
v) Incident management tools.

Q. 13: Given the following state transition diagram Which of the following series of
state transitions contains an INVALID transition which may indicate a fault in the system
design?

Q. 18: A thermometer measures temperature in whole degrees only. If the temperature
falls below 18 degrees, the heating is switched off. It is switched on again when the
temperature reaches 21 degrees. What are the best values in degrees to cover all
equivalence partitions?

Q. 19: Which activity in the fundamental test process creates test suites for efficient
test execution?

Q. 21: Given the following decision table: Which of the following test cases and
expected results is VALID?

Q. 23: Which of the following are characteristic of regression testing ?

i) Regression testing is run ONLY once
ii) Regression testing is used after fixes have been made
iii) Regression testing is often automated
iv) Regression tests need not be maintained

Q. 27: Which of the following benefits are MOST likely to be achieved by using test
tools?

i) Easy to access information about tests and testing.
ii) Reduced maintenance of testware.
iii) Easy and cheap to implement.
iv) Greater consistency of tests.

Q. 28: What is the KEY difference between preventative and reactive approaches to
testing?

Q. 31: With which of the following categories is a test comparator tool USUALLY
associated?

Q. 32: Which activities form part of test planning?

i) Developing test cases.
ii) Defining the overall approach to testing.
iii) Assigning resources.
iv) Building the test environment
v) Writing test conditions.

Q. 34: Which type of test design techniques does the following statement best describe
a procedure to derive test cases based on the specification of a component?