ISTQB Foundation Level - 201 - 400 questions

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Q. 201: The inputs for developing a test plan are taken from

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Q. 202: To test a function, the programmer has to write a ______, which calls the
function and passes it the test data.

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Q. 203: Which of the following is not a static testing technique

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Q. 204: Which of the following statements about component testing is not true?

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Q. 205: Inspections can find all the following except

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Q. 206: Which of the following is not a characteristic for Testability?

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Q. 207: Software testing accounts to what percent of software development costs?

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Q. 208: Equivalence partitioning is:

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Q. 209: If an expected result is not specified then:

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Q. 210: How much testing is enough

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Q. 211: The purpose of requirement phase is

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Q. 212: Which of these can be successfully tested using Loop Testing methodology?

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Q. 213: Cyclomatic Complexity method comes under which testing method.

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Q. 214: A reliable system will be one that:

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Q. 215: Which, in general, is the least required skill of a good tester?

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Q. 216: A regression test:

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Q. 217: Function/Test matrix is a type of

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Q. 218: The process starting with the terminal modules is called:

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Q. 219: Verification is:

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Q. 220: The difference between re-testing and regression testing is

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Q. 221: Testing should be stopped when:

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Q. 222: Which of the following is the main purpose of the integration strategy for
integration testing in the small?

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Q. 223: Which of the following is NOT part of configuration management:

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Q. 224:Regression testing should be performed:

v) Every week
w) After the software has changed
x) As often as possible
y) When the environment has changed
z) Wwhen the project manager says

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Q. 225: A tool that supports traceability, recording of incidents or scheduling of tests is
called:

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Q. 226: The cost of fixing a fault:

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Q. 227: Order numbers on a stock control system can range between 10000 and 99999
inclusive. Which of the following inputs might be a result of designing tests for only
valid equivalence classes and valid boundaries:

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Q. 228: When what is visible to end-users is a deviation from the specific or expected
behavior, this is called:

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Q. 229: Which expression best matches the following characteristics or review
processes:

1. Led by author
2. Undocumented
3. No management participation
4. Led by a trained moderator or leader
5. Uses entry exit criteria

s) Inspection
t) Peer review
u) Informal review
v) Walkthrough

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Q. 230: Given the following:

Switch PC on
Start "outlook"
IF outlook appears THEN
Send an email
Close outlook

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Q. 231: Test managers should not:

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Q. 232: Which of the following is NOT part of system testing:

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Q. 233: When a new testing tool is purchased, it should be used first by:

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Q. 234: Which of the following is not part of performance testing:

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Q. 235: What is the purpose of test completion criteria in a test plan:

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Q. 236: Given the following code, which is true:

IF A > B THEN
C = A – B
ELSE
C = A + B
ENDIF
Read D

IF C = D Then
Print "Error"
ENDIF

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Q. 237: Unreachable code would best be found using:

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Q. 238: What information need not be included in a test incident report:

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Q. 239: Which of the following is NOT included in the Test Plan document of the Test
Documentation Standard:

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Q. 240: IEEE 829 test plan documentation standard contains all of the following except:

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Q. 251: Which of the following is NOT a black box technique:

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Q. 252: Expected results are:

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Q. 253: Beta testing is:

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Q. 254: Consider the following:

Pick up and read the newspaper
Look at what is on television
If there is a program that you are interested in watching then switch the the television on
and watch the program
Otherwise
Continue reading the newspaper
If there is a crossword in the newspaper then try and complete the crossword

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Q. 255: A typical commercial test execution tool would be able to perform all of the
following EXCEPT:

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Q. 256: Consider the following statements about early test design:

i. Early test design can prevent fault multiplication
ii. Faults found during early test design are more expensive to fix
iii. Early test design can find faults
iv. Early test design can cause changes to the requirements
v. Early test design takes more effort

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Q. 257: Given the following code, which is true about the minimum number of test
cases required for full statement and branch coverage:

Read P
Read Q
IF P+Q > 100 THEN
Print "Large"
ENDIF

If P > 50 THEN
Print "P Large"
ENDIF

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Q. 258: The place to start if you want a (new) test tool is:

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Q. 259: Error guessing is best used

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Q. 260: Exit Criteria may consist of:

i. Thoroughness measures, such as coverage of code, functionality or risk
ii. Estimates of Defect density or reliability measures.
iii. Residual risk such as defects not fixed or lack of test coverage in certain areas
iv. Verifying the Test Environment.

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Q. 261: One of the fields on a form contains a text box, which accepts alphabets in
lower or upper case. Identify the invalid Equivalance class value.

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Q. 262: The Kick Off phase of a formal review includes the following:

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Q. 263: Peer Reviews are also called as :

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Q. 264: Validation involves which of the following

i. Helps to check the Quality of the Built Product
ii. Helps to check that we have built the right product.
iii. Helps in developing the product
iv. Monitoring tool wastage and obsoleteness.

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Q. 265: Success Factors for a review include:

i. Each Review does not have a predefined objective
ii. Defects found are welcomed and expressed objectively
iii. Management supports a good review process.
iv. There is an emphasis on learning and process improvement.

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Q. 266: Which of the following helps in monitoring the Test Progress:

i. Percentage of Test Case Execution
ii. Percentage of work done in test environment preparation.
iii. Defect Information e.g. defect density, defects found and fixed
iv. The size of the testing Team and skills of the engineers

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Q. 267: Defects discovered by static analysis tools include:

i. Variables that are never used.
ii. Security vulnerabilities.
iii. Programming Standard Violations
iv. Uncalled functions and procedures

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Q. 268: Which of the following is true about White and Black Box Testing Technique:-

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Q. 269: Which of the following techniques is NOT a black box technique?

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Q. 270: Features of White Box Testing Technique:

i. We use explicit knowledge of the internal workings of the item being tested to select the
test data.
ii. Uses specific knowledge of programming code to examine outputs and assumes that the
tester knows the path of logic in a unit or a program.
iii. Checking for the performance of the application
iv. Also checks for functionality.

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Q. 271. The Provision and Management of a controlled library containing all the
configurations items is called as

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Q. 272: The selection of a test approach should consider the context:

i. Risk of Failure of the Project, hazards to the product and risks of product failure to
humans
ii. Skills and experience of the people in the proposed technique, tools and methods
iii. The objective of the testing endeavor and the mission of the testing team.
iv. The size of the testing Team

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Q. 273: Benefits of Independent Testing

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Q. 274: Minimum Test Required for Statement Coverage:

Disc = 0
Order-qty = 0
Read Order-qty
If Order-qty >=20 then
Disc = 0.05
If Order-qty >=100 then
Disc =0.1
End if
End if

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Q. 275: Test Conditions are derived from:

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Q. 276: Which of the following is the task of a Test Lead / Leader.

i. Interaction with the Test Tool Vendor to identify best ways to leverage test tool on the
project.
ii. Write Test Summary Reports based on the information gathered during testing
iii. Decide what should be automated , to what degree and how.
iv. Create the Test Specifications

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Q. 277: Impact Analysis helps to decide:

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Q. 278: Drivers are also known as:

i. Spade
ii. Test harness
iii. Scaffolding

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Q. 279: Which of the following is not a type of incremental testing approach?

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Q. 280: In a system designed to work out the tax to be paid:

An employee has £4000 of salary tax free. The next £1500 is taxed at 10% The next £28000
is taxed at 22% Any further amount is taxed at 40% Which of these groups of numbers would
fall into the same equivalence class?

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Q. 281: In case of Large Systems :

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Q. 282: What is the expected result for each of the following test cases?

A. Citibank card member, holding a Silver room
B. Non Citibank-member, holding a Platinum room

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Q. 283: Which of the following is not phase of the Fundamental Test Process?

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Q. 284: The structure of an incident report is covered in the Standard for Software Test
Documentation IEEE 829 and is called as:

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Q. 285: Repeated Testing of an already tested program, after modification, to discover
any defects introduced or uncovered as a result of the changes in the software being
tested or in another related or unrelated software component:

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Q. 286: Consider the following state transition diagram of a switch. Which of the
following represents an invalid state transition?

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Q. 287: We use the output of the requirement analysis, the requirement specification
as the input for writing:

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Q. 288: Regression testing should be performed:

i. Every week
ii. After the software has changed
iii. As often as possible
iv. When the environment has changed
v. When the project manager says

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Q. 289: Evaluating testability of the requirements and system are a part of which
phase:-

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Q. 290: Which of the following has highest level of independence in which test cases
are:

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Q. 291: Test planning has which of the following major tasks?

i. Determining the scope and risks, and identifying the objectives of testing.
ii. Determining the test approach (techniques,test items, coverage, identifying and
interfacing the teams involved in testing , testware)
iii. Reviewing the Test Basis (such as requirements,architecture,design,interface)
iv. Determining the exit criteria.

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Q. 292: Deciding How much testing is enough should take into account :-

i. Level of Risk including Technical and Business product and project risk
ii. Project constraints such as time and budget
iii. Size of Testing Team
iv. Size of the Development Team

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Q. 293: Which of the following will be the best definition for Testing:

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Q. 294: Minimum Tests Required for Statement Coverage and Branch Coverage:

Read P
Read Q
If p+q > 100 then
Print "Large"
End if
If p > 50 then
Print "pLarge"
End if

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Q. 295: Match every stage of the software Development Life cycle with the Testing Life
cycle:

i. Hi-level design a Unit tests
ii. Code b Acceptance tests
iii. Low-level design c System tests
iv. Business requirements d Integration tests

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Q. 296: Which of the following is a part of Test Closure Activities?

i. Checking which planned deliverables have been delivered
ii. Defect report analysis.
iii. Finalizing and archiving testware.
iv. Analyzing lessons.

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Q. 297: Which of the following is NOT part of a high level test plan?

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Q. 298: If a candidate is given an exam of 40 questions, should get 25 marks to pass
(61%) and should get 80% for distinction, what is equivalence class.

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Q. 299: Which of the following statements is true of static analysis:

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Q. 300: In a system designed to work out the tax to be paid: An employee has $4000 of
salary tax free. The next $1500 is taxed at 10% The next $28000 is taxed at 22% Any
further amount is taxed at 40%
Which of these groups of numbers would fall into the same equivalence class?

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Q. 301: Cost of the reviews will not include.

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Q. 302: Regression testing always involves

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Q. 303: Capture and replay facilities are least likely to be used to _______

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Q. 304: Which tool will be used to test the flag memory leaks and unassigned pointers

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Q. 305: Cyclomatic complexity is used to calculate

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Q. 306: Which of the following is not included in Test Plan.

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Q. 307: Software quality is not relevant to _______

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Q. 308: Match the following:

1. Test estimation
2. Test control
3. Test monitoring

a. Measures of tracking process
b. Effort required to perform activities
c. Reallocation of resources

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Q. 309: When do you stop testing?

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Q. 310: What is the smallest number of test cases required to Provide 100% branch
coverage?

If(x>y) x=x+1;
else y=y+1;
while(x>y)
{
y=x*y; x=x+1;
}

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Q. 311: Match the following.

1. Configuration identification
2. Configuration control
3. Status reporting
4. Configuration auditing

a. Maintains of CI’s in a library
b. Checks on the contents of the library
c. Function recording and tracking problems.
d. Requires the all CI’s and their versions in the system are known

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Q. 312: Integration testing in the large involves:

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Q. 313: One of the following is not a part of white box testing as per BS7925-II
standards.

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Q. 314: A piece of software has been given _______what tests in the Following will you
perform?

1) Test the areas most critical to business processes
2) Test the areas where faults will be maximum
3) Test the easiest functionalities

201 - 400 Questions, simulation exam

ISTQB Foundation Level - 201 - 400 questions

Q. 201: The inputs for developing a test plan are taken from

Q. 202: To test a function, the programmer has to write a ______, which calls the function and passes it the test data.

Q. 203: Which of the following is not a static testing technique

Q. 204: Which of the following statements about component testing is not true?

Q. 205: Inspections can find all the following except

Q. 206: Which of the following is not a characteristic for Testability?

Q. 207: Software testing accounts to what percent of software development costs?

Q. 208: Equivalence partitioning is:

Q. 209: If an expected result is not specified then:

Q. 210: How much testing is enough

Q. 211: The purpose of requirement phase is

Q. 212: Which of these can be successfully tested using Loop Testing methodology?

Q. 213: Cyclomatic Complexity method comes under which testing method.

Q. 214: A reliable system will be one that:

Q. 215: Which, in general, is the least required skill of a good tester?

Q. 216: A regression test:

Q. 217: Function/Test matrix is a type of

Q. 218: The process starting with the terminal modules is called:

Q. 219: Verification is:

Q. 220: The difference between re-testing and regression testing is

Q. 202: To test a function, the programmer has to write a ______, which calls the
function and passes it the test data.

Q. 222: Which of the following is the main purpose of the integration strategy for
integration testing in the small?

Q. 224:Regression testing should be performed:

v) Every week
w) After the software has changed
x) As often as possible
y) When the environment has changed
z) Wwhen the project manager says

Q. 225: A tool that supports traceability, recording of incidents or scheduling of tests is
called:

Q. 227: Order numbers on a stock control system can range between 10000 and 99999
inclusive. Which of the following inputs might be a result of designing tests for only
valid equivalence classes and valid boundaries:

Q. 228: When what is visible to end-users is a deviation from the specific or expected
behavior, this is called:

Q. 229: Which expression best matches the following characteristics or review
processes:

1. Led by author
2. Undocumented
3. No management participation
4. Led by a trained moderator or leader
5. Uses entry exit criteria

s) Inspection
t) Peer review
u) Informal review
v) Walkthrough

Q. 230: Given the following:

Switch PC on
Start "outlook"
IF outlook appears THEN
Send an email
Close outlook

Q. 236: Given the following code, which is true:

IF A > B THEN
C = A – B
ELSE
C = A + B
ENDIF
Read D

IF C = D Then
Print "Error"
ENDIF