EASA ATP Qatar Yellow 6

Question

81.1.10.1 (5446) Spoiler deflection causes :

Answer 1

an increase in lift and drag

Answer 2

an increase in lift only

Answer 3

an increase in drag and decrease in lift

Answer 4

decrease in lift and drag

Answer 5

only CL is decreased (CD remains unaffected)

Answer 6

CD is increased and CL is decreased.

Answer 7

CD is increased, while CL remains unaffected.

Answer 8

both CL and CD are increased.

Answer 9

M= a / TAS

Answer 10

M= TAS / a

Answer 11

M= IAS / a

Answer 12

is the ratio between the TAS of the aeroplane and the speed of sound at sea level.

Answer 13

is the ratio between the IAS of the aeroplane and the local speed of sound.

Answer 14

is the ratio between the TAS of the aeroplane and the local speed of sound.

Answer 15

increases at a given TAS, when the temperature rises.

Answer 16

remain constant.

Answer 17

first increase, then decrease.

Answer 18

Is independent of altitude.

Answer 19

Varies with the square root of the absolute temperature.

Answer 20

Increases always if the density of the air decreases.

Answer 21

Doubles if the temperature increases from 9° to 36° Centigrade.

Answer 22

not change.

Answer 23

increase or decrease, depends of the type of aeroplane.

Answer 24

density of the air.

Answer 25

temperature of the air.

Answer 26

humidity of the air.

Answer 27

pressure of the air.

Answer 28

It increases as temperature increases

Answer 29

It decreases as altitude decreases

Answer 30

It decreases as pressure increases

Answer 31

It remains constant

Answer 32

can occur at different points on the aeroplane in transonic flight.

Answer 33

is a discontinuity plane in an airflow, in which the pressure drops suddenly.

Answer 34

is a discontinuity plane in an airflow, in which the temperature drops suddenly.

Answer 35

is a discontinuity plane in an airflow, which is always normal to the surface.

Answer 36

The airflow changes from supersonic to subsonic

Answer 37

The airflow changes direction

Answer 38

The airflow expands when passing the aerofoil

Answer 39

The airflow changes from subsonic to supersonic

Answer 40

on the underside of the wing

Answer 41

at the wing root segment, upperside.

Answer 42

somewhere on the fin.

Answer 43

somewhere on the hoizontal tail.

Answer 44

the maximum operating temperature is reached.

Answer 45

sonic speed (M=1) is reached at a certain point on the upper side of the aerofoil.

Answer 46

a shock-wave appears on the upper surface.

Answer 47

a ""supersonic bell"" appears on the upper surface.

Answer 48

upper side of the wing.

Answer 49

lower side of the wing.

Answer 50

leading edge of the wing.

Answer 51

trailing edge of the wing.

Answer 52

speed at which there is subsonic airflow over all parts of the aircraaeroplane Mach number < 1).

Answer 53

highest speed without supersonic flow over any part of the aeroplane.

Answer 54

highest speed at which the aeroplane is certificated for operation (MMO).

Answer 55

speed at which there is supersonic airflow over all parts of the aeroplane.

Answer 56

the speed reduction is too high.

Answer 57

the static pressure decrease is comparatively high.

Answer 58

kinetic energy in the flow is changed into heat energy.

Answer 59

the friction in the boundary layer is higher.

Answer 60

Tuck under.

Answer 61

Dutch roll.

Answer 62

Shock stall.

Answer 63

Mach buffet.

Answer 64

sweep back of the wings.

Answer 65

control deflection

Answer 66

vortex generators.

Answer 67

dihedral of the wings

Answer 68

behind the shock wave pressure is lower.

Answer 69

aileron down deflection moves the shock wave forward.

Answer 70

aileron deflection only partly affects the pressure distribution around the wing.

Answer 71

aileron deflection only affects the air in front of the shock wave.

Answer 72

positive dihedral of the wings.

Answer 73

sweepback of the wings

Answer 74

an increase in wing aspect ratio

Answer 75

skin friction drag.

Answer 76

wave drag.

Answer 77

form drag.

Answer 78

induced drag.

Answer 79

It increases with increasing altitude, because the density decreases.

Answer 80

It remains constant.

Answer 81

It remains constant at lower altitudes but increases at higher altitudes due to compressibility effects.

Answer 82

It remains constant at lower altitudes but decreases at higher altitudes due to compressibility effects.

Answer 83

Mach buffet.

Answer 84

Speed instability.

Answer 85

Dutch roll.

Answer 86

Elevator stall.

Answer 87

constant lift.

Answer 88

increasing lift.

Answer 89

decreasing lift.

Answer 90

decreasing drag.

Answer 91

boundary layer control.

Answer 92

boundary layer separation due to shock waves.

Answer 93

a shift of the centre of gravity.

Answer 94

expansion waves on the wing upper side.

Answer 95

pump the fuel from tank to tank, depending on the Mach Number.

Answer 96

keep the Mach Number automatically constant.

Answer 97

adjust the stabilizer, depending on the Mach Number.

Answer 98

adjust the elevator trim tab, depending on the Mach Number

Answer 99

tuck under.

Answer 100

buffeting.

Answer 101

dutch roll.

Answer 102

shock stall.

Answer 103

much more thrust from the engine.

Answer 104

a pitch up input of the stabilizer.

Answer 105

a stability augmentation system.

Answer 106

a higher IAS to compensate the nose down effect

Answer 107

only below the critical Mach number.

Answer 108

only above the critical Mach number

Answer 109

above or below the critical Mach number depending on the angle of attack.

Answer 110

only at the critical Mach number.

Answer 111

turbulence may exceed the limit load factor.

Answer 112

turbulence may induce Mach buffet.

Answer 113

Mach buffet will occur immediately.

Answer 114

a sudden necessary bankangle may exceed the limit load factor.

Answer 115

is always greatest after a stepclimb has been executed.

Answer 116

decreases during a descent with a constant Mach number.

Answer 117

increases during a descent with a constant IAS.

Answer 118

is always positive at Mach numbers below MMO.

Answer 119

increase the critical Mach Number.

Answer 120

decrease the span wise flow at high Mach Numbers

Answer 121

decrease the intensity of shock wave induced air separation

Answer 122

increase the magnitude of the shock wave.

Answer 123

increase wave drag.

Answer 124

increase critical Mach Number.

Answer 125

decrease wave drag.

Answer 126

decrease critical Mach Number.

Answer 127

decrease the stalling speed by increase of the tangential velocity of the swept wing.

Answer 128

increase the effectiveness of the spoiler due to increase in parasite drag.

Answer 129

decrease the interference drag of the trailing edge flaps.

Answer 130

decrease the shock wave induced separation.

Answer 131

1 is correct and 2 is incorrect.

Answer 132

1 and 2 are correct.

Answer 133

1 is incorrect and 2 is correct.

Answer 134

1 and 2 are incorrect.

Answer 135

decrease the longitudinal stability.

Answer 136

increase the static lateral stability.

Answer 137

increase the static longitudinal stability.

Answer 138

decrease the static lateral stability.

Answer 139

increased interference drag.

Answer 140

increased angle of attack.

Answer 141

wave drag.

Answer 142

increased skin friction.

Answer 143

Forward centre of gravity and idle thrust.

Answer 144

Aft centre of gravity and idle thrust.

Answer 145

Forward centre of gravity and take-off thrust.

Answer 146

Aft centre of gravity and take-off thrust.

Answer 147

No elevator movement will required because the thrust line of the engines remains unchanged.

Answer 148

It depends on the position of the centre of gravity.

Answer 149

Static stability means that the aeroplane is also dynamically satble about the relevant axis.

Answer 150

Dynamic stability means that after being displaced from original equilibrium condition, the aeroplane will return to that condition without oscillation.

Answer 151

Dynamic stability is possible only when the aeroplane is statically stable about the relevant axis.

Answer 152

A dynamically stable aeroplane would be almost impossible to fly manually.

Answer 153

C.G. position is on the forward C.G. limit.

Answer 154

C.G. is on the aft C.G. limit.

Answer 155

speed is low

Answer 156

flaps are down

Answer 157

maximum longitudinal stability of the aeroplane.

Answer 158

minimum value of the stick force per g.

Answer 159

maximum elevator deflection.

Answer 160

too small effect of the controls on the aeroplane.

Answer 161

The engine.

Answer 162

The fuselage.

Answer 163

The horizontal tailplane.

Answer 164

the tendency to nose up when speed is increased into the transonic flight regime.

Answer 165

shaking of the control column at high Mach Number.

Answer 166

the tendency to nose down when speed is increased into the transonic flight regime

Answer 167

the tendency to nose down when the control column is pulled back.

Answer 168

low Mach numbers.

Answer 169

high Mach numbers.

Answer 170

all Mach numbers.

Answer 171

only at low altitudes.

Answer 172

A Mach trimmer corrects the change in stick force stability of a swept wing aeroplane above a certain Mach number.

Answer 173

A Mach trimmer reduces the stick force stability of a straight wing aeroplane to zero at high Mach numbers.

Answer 174

A straight wing aeroplane always needs a Mach trimmer for flying at Mach numbers close to MMO.

Answer 175

The Mach trimmer corrects the natural tendency of a swept wing aeroplane to pitch-up

Answer 176

Yaw damper

Answer 177

Roll spoilers.

Answer 178

Spoiler mixer.

Answer 179

Rudder limiter

Answer 180

Tuck under.

Answer 181

Spiral dive.

Answer 182

Dutch roll.

Answer 183

Buffeting.

Answer 184

vertical axis.

Answer 185

longitudinal axis.

Answer 186

lateral axis.

Answer 187

wing axis.

Answer 188

easier maintenance of the engines.

Answer 189

less influence on longitudinal control of thrust changes.

Answer 190

a wing which is less sensitive to flutter.

Answer 191

lighter wing construction.

Answer 192

upward on the upgoing wing and downward on the downgoing wing.

Answer 193

on the upgoing wing only.

Answer 194

downward on the upgoing wing and upward on the downgoing wing.

Answer 195

on the downgoing wing only.

Answer 196

increases the CLmax.

Answer 197

is required to keep the total lift constant when ailerons are deflected.

Answer 198

equals the drag of the right and left aileron

Answer 199

is required to achieve the required roll-rate.

Answer 200

upper and lower rudder, seal between wing's trailing edge and leading edge of a control surface

Answer 201

seal between wing's trailing edge and leading edge of a control surface, horn balance

Answer 202

Fowler flaps, upper and lower rudder

Answer 203

weight in the nose of the control surface, horn balance

Answer 204

spring tab, servo tab, and power assisted control.

Answer 205

mass in the nose of the control surface, horn balance and mass balance.

Answer 206

servo tab, spring tab, seal between the wing trailing edge and the leading edge of control surface.

Answer 207

balance tab, horn balance, and mass balance.

Answer 208

the pilot does not feel the stick forces at all

Answer 209

effectiveness of trim tabs is insufficient for those aeroplanes

Answer 210

mechanical adjustment of trim tabs creates too many problems

Answer 211

trim tab deflection increases Mcrit

Answer 212

low airspeed aerodynamic wing stall.

Answer 213

distorsion by bending and torsion of the structure causing increasing vibration in the resonance frequency.

Answer 214

high airspeed aerodynamic wing stall.

Answer 215

roll control reversal.

Answer 216

At constant IAS the Mach number increases

Answer 217

At constant Mach number the IAS increases

Answer 218

At constant IAS the TAS decreases

Answer 219

At constant TAS the Mach number decreases

Answer 220

Lift/Weight

Answer 221

1/Bank angle

Answer 222

Weight/Lift

Answer 223

Wing loading

Answer 224

66 ft/sec and VD.

Answer 225

65 ft/sec at all speeds.

Answer 226

50 ft/sec and VC.

Answer 227

55 ft/sec and VB.

Answer 228

1 and 2 are correct.

Answer 229

1 is correct and 2 is incorrect.

Answer 230

1 is incorrect and 2 is correct.

Answer 231

1 and 2 are incorrect.

Answer 232

increase of aeroplane weigh

Answer 233

decrease of aeroplane weight

Answer 234

turn at the same turn radius.

Answer 235

turn at a smaller turn radius.

Answer 236

turn at a bigger turn radius.

Answer 237

turn at a higher turn rate

Answer 238

I is correct, II is correct

Answer 239

I is incorrect, II is incorrect

Answer 240

I is correct, II is incorrect

Answer 241

I is incorrect, II is correct

Answer 242

A transmission from one station to another station in circumstances where twoway communication cannot be established but it is believed that the called station is able to receive the transmission.

Answer 243

A transmission of messages relating to en-route weather information which may affect the safety of aircraft operations that is not addressed to a specific station or stations.

Answer 244

A transmission of information relating to air navigation that is not addressed to a specific station or stations.

Answer 245

A transmission where no reply is required from the receiving station.±jLœZ×ªe

Answer 246

Sunrise to sunset.

Answer 247

No specific working hours.

Answer 248

Sunset to sunrise.

Answer 249

Continuous day and night service.

Answer 250

True bearing from the station.

Answer 251

True heading to the station (no wind).

Answer 252

Magnetic bearing from the station.

Answer 253

Magnetic heading to the station.

Answer 254

True bearing from the station

Answer 255

Magnetic bearing from the station

Answer 256

Magnetic heading to the station (no wind)

Answer 257

True heading to the station

Answer 258

Magnetic bearing from the station

Answer 259

Magnetic heading to the station (no wind)

Answer 260

True bearing from the station

Answer 261

True heading to the station (no wind)

Answer 262

Distress message, flight safety message, urgency message.

Answer 263

Distress message, urgency message, direction finding message.

Answer 264

Meteorological message, direction finding message, flight regularity message

Answer 265

Direction finding message, distress message, urgency message.

Answer 266

Turn right to avoid other traffic

Answer 267

Make 360° turns to the right

Answer 268

Leave the runway to the right

Answer 269

Right-hand circuits are in use

Answer 270

Turn left to leave the runway

Answer 271

Clear the runway immediately

Answer 272

Give way to aircraft from the left

Answer 273

Hold position on the left side of the runway

Answer 274

Readable but with difficulty

Answer 275

Loud and clear

Answer 276

No problem to understand

Answer 277

Unreadable

Answer 278

1 to 4 octas

Answer 279

5 to 7 octas

Answer 280

8 octas below 10000 feet

Answer 281

No clouds below 5000 feet

Answer 282

Visibility 10 km or more, no clouds below 1500 feet/GND

Answer 283

Visibility 10 km or more, no clouds below 5000 feet/GND

Answer 284

Visibility more than 5000 m, no clouds below 1500 m/GND

Answer 285

Visibility more than 8 km, no clouds below 3000 feet/GND

Answer 286

In feet and nautical miles

Answer 287

Up to 5000 m in metres, above in kilometres

Answer 288

Up to 1500 m in metres, above in kilometres

Answer 289

In nautical miles only

Answer 290

It is diverting to the alternate aerodrome

Answer 291

It is requesting immediate level change

Answer 292

It is unable to establish communication due to radio equipment failure

Answer 293

It is about to make a forced landing

Answer 294

When entering bad weather areas c) When approaching a prohibited area

Answer 295

In case of radio communication failure

Answer 296

When flying over desert areas

Answer 297

When approaching a prohibited area

Answer 298

In distress

Answer 299

When following a SID

Answer 300

When flying within controlled airspace

Answer 301

When passing the transition level

Answer 302

A condition concerning the attitude of an aircraft when intercepting the localizer during an ILS approach

Answer 303

A condition of being threatened by serious and/or imminent danger and requiring immediate assistance

Answer 304

A condition concerning the safety of an aircraft or of a person on board, but which does not require immediate assistance

Answer 305

A condition concerning the safety of a person on board or within sight and requiring immediate assistance

Answer 306

DETRESFA, DETRESFA, DETRESFA

Answer 307

MAYDAY, MAYDAY, MAYDAY

Answer 308

PAN PAN, PAN PAN, PAN PAN

Answer 309

URGENCY, URGENCY, URGENCY

Answer 310

A condition concerning the safety of a person on board or within sight and requiring immediate assistance

Answer 311

A condition concerning the attitude of an aircraft when intercepting the localizer during an ILS approach

Answer 312

A condition concerning the safety of an aircraft other vehicles or of a person on board, but which does not require immediate assistance

Answer 313

A condition of being threatened by serious and/or imminent danger and of requiring immediate assistance

Answer 314

URGENCY,spoken three times

Answer 315

PAN PAN, spoken three times

Answer 316

MAYDAY, spoken three times

Answer 317

ALERFA, spoken three times"

Answer 318

Runway visual range

Answer 319

Radar vectors requested

Answer 320

Recleared via route...

Answer 321

Runway visibility report

Answer 322

The altimeter sub-scale setting to obtain the flight level reference datum.

Answer 323

The atmospheric pressure at aerodrome elevation (or at runway threshold).

Answer 324

The atmospheric pressure corrected to the aircraft cockpit height.

Answer 325

The atmospheric pressure referred to the highest fixed obstacle located on the surface of an aerodrome.

Answer 326

Leave controlled airspace and continue the flight within uncontrolled airspace

Answer 327

Continue to fly in VMC, land at the nearest suitable aerodrome, report its arrival

Answer 328

Continue the flight to destination aerodrome in any caset

Answer 329

Squawk IDENT and proceed to the alternate aerodrome

Answer 330

Proceed to an area from where the flight can be continued according to the visual flight rules

Answer 331

Proceed in accordance with the current flight plan to the designated navigation aid serving the destination aerodrome

Answer 332

Execute a VMC approach at the nearest suitable aerodrome

Answer 333

Divert to the most suitable aerodrome according to the route of flight

Answer 334

5 minutes in any case

Answer 335

3 minutes, if an expected approach time is not acknowledged

Answer 336

Until the expected approach time last received and acknowledged

Answer 337

Under no circumstances

Answer 338

5 minutes after the last expected approach time acknowledged

Answer 339

After 3 minutes, if an expected approach time is not acknowledgeds

Answer 340

At, or as close to, the ETA resulting from the current flight plan

Answer 341

Immediately after reaching in any case

Answer 342

30 minutes after waiting for the EAT

Answer 343

30 minutes after ETA or the last EAT, whichever is later

Answer 344

15 minutes after vacating the transition layer

Answer 345

30 minutes after noticing the radio failure

Answer 346

Squawk 7600 and thereafter return to the route indicated in the current flight plan in the most direct manner

Answer 347

Squawk 7600 and thereafter, regardless of any limitation instructed by ATC, return to the route indicated in the current flight plan on the shortest way

Answer 348

Squawk 7600 and maintain the heading last assigned by ATC for a period of 3 minutes and then return to the flight path in accordance with the current flight plan

Answer 349

Squawk 7600, maintain present heading for 1 minute and thereafter return to the route indicated in the current flight plan on the shortest way

Answer 350

The aircraft is being hijacked

Answer 351

The aircraft is in distress

Answer 352

The aircraft's transceiver is unserviceable

Answer 353

There is a sick passenger on board

Answer 354

Imminent danger threatens the aircraft and immediate assistance is required

Answer 355

The aircraft has a very urgent message to transmit concerning the safety of a ship, aircraft or other vehicle, but immediate assistance is not required

Answer 356

An aircraft on final approach is starting the missed approach procedure

Answer 357

The aircraft is diverting from the route cleared because of a thunderstorm and asks for immediate reclearance

Answer 358

Braking action medium

Answer 359

Braking action good

Answer 360

Braking action not measurable

Answer 361

Braking action poor

Answer 362

Braking action poor

Answer 363

Braking action medium

Answer 364

Braking action good

Answer 365

Braking action unreliable

	Erstellt von Alejandro Castillo vor etwa 6 Jahre

Nächster

EASA ATP Qatar Yellow 6

Beschreibung

Zusammenfassung der Ressource

Frage 1

Frage 2

Frage 3

Frage 4

Frage 5

Frage 6

Frage 7

Frage 8

Frage 9

Frage 10

Frage 11

Frage 12

Frage 13

Frage 14

Frage 15

Frage 16

Frage 17

Frage 18

Frage 19

Frage 20

Frage 21

Frage 22

Frage 23

Frage 24

Frage 25

Frage 26

Frage 27

Frage 28

Frage 29

Frage 30

Frage 31

Frage 32

Frage 33

Frage 34

Frage 35

Frage 36

Frage 37

Frage 38

Frage 39

Frage 40

Frage 41

Frage 42

Frage 43

Frage 44

Frage 45

Frage 46

Frage 47

Frage 48

Frage 49

Frage 50

Frage 51

Frage 52

Frage 53

Frage 54

Frage 55

Frage 56

Frage 57

Frage 58

Frage 59

Frage 60

Frage 61

Frage 62

Frage 63

Frage 64

Frage 65

Frage 66

Frage 67

Frage 68

Frage 69

Frage 70

Frage 71

Frage 72

Frage 73

Frage 74

Frage 75

Frage 76