Operational Procedures 01-10

Question

1.1. The MEL (Minimum Equipment List) is drawn up by:

Answer 1

a. The aircraft manufacturer’s list

Answer 2

b. The aircraft State of Registry

Answer 3

c. The Operator.

Answer 4

d. The manufacturer.

Answer 5

a. The aircraft manufacturer’s list

Answer 6

b. The aircraft State of Registry

Answer 7

c. The Operator.

Answer 8

d. The manufacturer.

Answer 9

a. From engine start-up until the aircraft has come to a complete stop at the end of the flight.

Answer 10

b. prior to the aircraft take-off.

Answer 11

c. prior to the flight time stage.

Answer 12

d. during the flight

Answer 13

a. Maintenance, Supervisor any system

Answer 14

b. Chief Steward, the galley equipment

Answer 15

c. Operator, any aircraft safety system

Answer 16

d. Commander, any instrumentation or system of equipment

Answer 17

c. Operations Manual

Answer 18

a. Aerial work

Answer 19

b. Operative Flight

Answer 20

c. Transportation Flight

Answer 21

d. Visual Flight

Answer 22

a. Visibility

Answer 23

b. Runway Visual Range

Answer 24

c. Ceiling

Answer 25

d. None of the above

Answer 26

a) To give the travelling public reassurance that the operation is properly regulated.

Answer 27

b) So that they can display the EN ISO 9000 logo on their headed note paper.

Answer 28

c) To ensure safe operational practices and airworthy aeroplanes.

Answer 29

d) To ensure that EASA 145 is complied with regarding engineering maintenance.

Answer 30

a) A quality manager.

Answer 31

b) An operations manual.

Answer 32

c) Non-conformance monitoring.

Answer 33

d) To be in accordance with the model quality system detailed by the Authority.

Answer 34

a) Areas of the aeroplane designed for the purpose

Answer 35

b) Areas in which cargo is not carried

Answer 36

c) Parts of the aeroplane in which dangerous cargo is not carried

Answer 37

d) Areas in which access is not permitted on the ground

Answer 38

a) Invited passengers; Cabin Crew members; EASA approved persons

Answer 39

b) Cabin Crew members; EASA approved persons; Personnel permitted by the Operations Manual

Answer 40

c) Cabin Crew members; Police Officers; Personnel permitted by the Operations Manual

Answer 41

d) Operators employees; Cabin Crew members; EASA approved persons

Answer 42

a) Check lists

Answer 43

b) Standard operating procedures (SOPs)

Answer 44

c) Contents of the Operations Manual

Answer 45

d) Safety procedures

Answer 46

a) Mobile phones

Answer 47

b) Electric razors

Answer 48

c) Electronic calculators

Answer 49

d) Hand-held electronic games

Answer 50

a) The Operator

Answer 51

b) The Commander

Answer 52

c) The Authority of the State of Registration

Answer 53

d) The authority of the State of the Operator

Answer 54

a) 1, 2,5and7

Answer 55

b) 1,2 and 7

Answer 56

c) 2,5 and 7

Answer 57

d) All of them

Answer 58

b) No, only the parts concerning crew duty

Answer 59

c) No, only the parts required for the conduct of the flight

Answer 60

d) No, only the parts required for the conduct of the flight and those concerning crew duty

Answer 61

a) All except 1

Answer 62

b) All except 3

Answer 63

c) All except 6

Answer 64

d) All except 4

Answer 65

a) Be kept in the personal possession of the Commander

Answer 66

b) Carried on the aeroplane and stored in a document case in the cargo/luggage hay

Answer 67

c) Carried on the aeroplane providing they are stowed in a fire proof container

Answer 68

d) Posted by registered mail to the Operator, or taken by bonded courier

Answer 69

a) Within a reasonable period of time

Answer 70

b) Within 10 days

Answer 71

c) Within 7 days

Answer 72

d) Within 48 hours

Answer 73

a) Where the person leasing the aeroplane is responsible fuel etc...

Answer 74

b) Where the aeroplane is operated under the AOC of the person to whom it is leased

Answer 75

c) Where the aeroplane is operated under the AOC of the person from who it is leased

Answer 76

d) Where the leased aeroplane comes complete with flight crew

Answer 77

a) The operator who is to operate the aeroplane

Answer 78

b) An EASA approved maintenance operator

Answer 79

c) The Authority of the State of the Operator who is receiving the aeroplane

Answer 80

a) The EASA Operator

Answer 81

b) The Lessee

Answer 82

c) The EASA authority for the State of the Lessee

Answer 83

d) The EASA authority for the State of the Lessor

Answer 84

a. Public transport of fare paying passengers only

Answer 85

b. Carriage of passengers and cargo for hire and reward with aeroplanes of max take off mass greater than 5700 kg

Answer 86

c. Commercial air transport

Answer 87

d. Public transport where more than 21 passengers are carried

Answer 88

a. All safety aspects of the operation

Answer 89

b. The administration, financial stability and the maintenance schedules of the operation

Answer 90

c. Any previous records of running an air transport operation

Answer 91

d. The medical records of all employees of the company involved directly with the operation of aeroplanes

Answer 92

a. All the above

Answer 93

b. 1, 3 and 5 only

Answer 94

c. 2, 3 and 4 only

Answer 95

d. 1, 3 and 4 only

Answer 96

a. If the profitability/financial stability of the operation gives cause for concern

Answer 97

b. If the operation is unable to comply with the safety requirements

Answer 98

c. If the Quality System is not EN/ISO 9000 approved

Answer 99

d. If the operator is found guilty of unfair trading practices

Answer 100

a. Exercising operational and administrative control

Answer 101

b. Exercising financial and administrative control

Answer 102

c. Exercising operational control and supervision

Answer 103

d. Exercising operational and quality control

Answer 104

a. The organization is financially well managed

Answer 105

b. The organization has a management structure approved by EN/ISO 9000

Answer 106

c. The organization is staffed by JAR-145 personnel only

Answer 107

d. The organization details a progressive management structure for operations as well as maintenance personnel

Answer 108

a. Flight operations, maintenance, crew training, administration, CDL

Answer 109

b. Flight operations, maintenance, crew training, ground operations, CDL

Answer 110

c. Flight operations, maintenance, personnel training, ground operations, CDL

Answer 111

d. Flight operations, crew training, administration, quality assurance

Answer 112

a. A cash deposit of 10 000 euro be lodged with the EASA

Answer 113

b. One or more demonstration flights be conducted

Answer 114

c. The operation must be carried out for a period of six months without incident

Answer 115

d. 10000 passengers must be carried ion a period of 6 months

Answer 116

a. Operations Manual

Answer 117

b. Flight Record

Answer 118

c. Flight Manual

Answer 119

d. EASA Data Base

Answer 120

b. The State of the Operator

Answer 121

c. The Operator

Answer 122

d. The State Authority of the Operator

Answer 123

a. The Ops Manual is a part of the Flight Manual

Answer 124

b. The Flight Manual is a part of the Ops. Manual

Answer 125

c. The Ops and the Flight Manual are two different documents that have nothing to do with each other

Answer 126

d. The Ops and the Flight Manual are the same document

Answer 127

a. Ops Manual Part A

Answer 128

b. Ops Manual Part B

Answer 129

c. Ops Manual Part C

Answer 130

d. Ops Manual Part D

Answer 131

a. Ops Manual Part A

Answer 132

b. Ops Manual Part B

Answer 133

c. Ops Manual Part C

Answer 134

d. Ops Manual Part D

Answer 135

b. The State of the Operator

Answer 136

c. The Operator

Answer 137

d. The State Authority of the Operator

Answer 138

a. All of the above

Answer 139

b. All except 5

Answer 140

c. All except 4

Answer 141

d. All except 4 and 5

Answer 142

a. The Operator

Answer 143

b. The Commander

Answer 144

c. The State of the Operator

Answer 145

d. The Senior Flight Attendant

Answer 146

a. When required by the Operator

Answer 147

b. When the Commander authorises the use of life jackets

Answer 148

c. If the carriage of life jackets in the aeroplane is required

Answer 149

d. Where flight over water (including lakes and rivers) is likely

Answer 150

a. During climb and descent

Answer 151

b. During a practice emergency

Answer 152

c. Whilst asleep with the seat fully reclined

Answer 153

d. Whenever the precaution is considered necessary

Answer 154

a. Instruction regarding the use of life jackets

Answer 155

b. Instructions concerning emergency actions that may be considered necessary

Answer 156

c. Emergency evacuation instructions

Answer 157

d. Instructions for the use of smoke hoods

Answer 158

a. ATC at the aerodrome

Answer 159

b. The Commander

Answer 160

c. The State of the Operator

Answer 161

d. The Operator

Answer 162

a. ATC at the aerodrome

Answer 163

b. The Commander

Answer 164

c. The State of the Operator

Answer 165

d. The Operator

Answer 166

a. The frequency of meteorological reports

Answer 167

b. Adequacy and provision of ground aids

Answer 168

c. Dimensions and characteristics of runways

Answer 169

d. The competence and experience of flight crews

Answer 170

a. The RVR and cloud ceiling at the departure aerodrome is below minima

Answer 171

b. The length of runway at the departure aerodrome is not long enough to allow the aircraft to roll to a standstill if the brakes fail

Answer 172

c. The aircraft is carrying dangerous goods and a full fuel load

Answer 173

d. There is insufficient time to jettison fuel to landing weight to use the departure aerodrome

Answer 174

a. Not more than 2 hours flying distance for a twin-engined aeroplane

Answer 175

b. Not less than 2 hours flying distance for 3-engined aeroplane with one engine out

Answer 176

c. Not more than 1 hour flying distance for any aeroplane with one engine out

Answer 177

d. 2 hours or less flying time at 'one engine out' cruise speed for a 4-engined aeroplane

Answer 178

a. It must be capable of CATIIIA operations

Answer 179

b. The OCH must not be less than that of the aerodrome of departure

Answer 180

c. The RVR and cloud ceiling must be at or above the aerodrome minima at the time of take-off

Answer 181

d. For IFR flights the aerodrome minima must be greater than that approved by the operator or the State of Registration and no approach is permitted to have a visual element (i.e. no circling approaches)

Answer 182

a. Any flight for public transport over 40km

Answer 183

b. Any IFR flight unless there is reasonable certainty that at the ETA a visual approach can be made

Answer 184

c. A flight to a remote aerodrome where no local diversion exists

Answer 185

d. Any flight where a take-off diversion has been planned

Answer 186

a. VMC exists all along the route to be flown under VFR

Answer 187

b. An IFR flight plan has previously been filed and the flight conditions are VMC

Answer 188

c. A VFR flight plan has been filed and a clearance received

Answer 189

d. The maximum take-off mass does not exceed 4 700Kg

Answer 190

a. IMC must be expected to exist all along the route

Answer 191

b. It must be reasonably expected that an instrument approach will be flown at the destination

Answer 192

c. A met report must indicate that IMC exists somewhere along the route

Answer 193

d. The met conditions must be equal to or better than the specified minima at the destination or destination alternate

Answer 194

a. The flight may commence provided an en-route alternate (diversion) aerodrome will remain open throughout the duration of the flight

Answer 195

b. The flight may commence if the operator authorizes reduced minima

Answer 196

c. The flight may not commence

Answer 197

d. The flight may commence providing sufficient holding fuel (2 hours plus 15% of cruising fuel) is carried as a contingency load

Answer 198

a. The flight may continue to the destination

Answer 199

b. The flight may continue to the destination but will not commence the instrumental approach

Answer 200

c. The flight must not continue and the aeroplane should land whenever it is possible

Answer 201

d. The flight may continue if the Destination Alternate met report is above Aerodrome Operating Minima

Answer 202

a. a RVR of 200 meters and a DH of not less than 100 ft.

Answer 203

b. a RVR of 250 meters and a DH of not less than 200 ft.

Answer 204

c. a RVR of 550 meters and a DH of not less than 200 ft.

Answer 205

d. a RVR of 300 meters and a DH of not less than 100 ft.

Answer 206

a. two, two, ETA

Answer 207

b. one, one, ETA

Answer 208

c. two, two, ETD

Answer 209

d. one, one, ETD

Answer 210

a. 5000 ft AGL, 1500 mts vertically and 3000 mts horizontally from clouds

Answer 211

b. 5000 ft AGL, 1500 mts horizontally and 3000 mts vertically from clouds

Answer 212

c. 3000 ft AGL, 1500 mts horizontally and 5000 mts vertically from clouds

Answer 213

d. 1500 ft AGL, 3000 mts horizontally from clouds and 5000 mts vertically from clouds

Answer 214

a. 3 emergency medical kit.

Answer 215

b. 2 emergency medical kit.

Answer 216

c. 3 first aid kit.

Answer 217

d. 2 first aid kit.

Answer 218

a. 5% of the number of fuses of each rating or 1 of each rating, whichever is greater.

Answer 219

b. 10% of the number of fuses of each rating or 3 of each rating, whichever is greater.

Answer 220

c. 10% of the number of fuses of each rating or 1 of each rating, whichever is greater.

Answer 221

d. 20% of the number of fuses of each rating or 2 of each rating, whichever is greater.

Answer 222

a. A MTOM greater than 5700 kgs and a MOPSC greater than 9 if pressurized.

Answer 223

b. A MTOM greater than 5700 kgs and a MOPSC greater than 9 if non-pressurized.

Answer 224

c. A MTOM greater than 5700 kgs and a MOPSC greater than 19 if pressurized.

Answer 225

d. A MTOM greater than 5700 kgs and a MOPSC greater than 19 if non-pressurized.

Answer 226

a. It is mandatory for aeroplanes with an MOPSC of 19 or more.

Answer 227

b. It can be integrated into the interphone system used by the flight crew.

Answer 228

c. It must be accessible for immediate use from each flight crew station.

Answer 229

d. It must be audible at the lavatories.

Answer 230

a. To the commander station.

Answer 231

b. To the second-pilot station.

Answer 232

c. To both stations.

Answer 233

d. If rain conditions are expected during the flight.

Answer 234

a. Medical kits according to normative.

Answer 235

b. First aid kits according to normative.

Answer 236

c. An airborne weather radar.

Answer 237

d. PBE for crew members.

Answer 238

a. provide passengers on board with oxygen following a cabin depressurization.

Answer 239

b. assist a passenger with breathing disorders.

Answer 240

c. provide selected passengers with oxygen.

Answer 241

d. to protect crew when fighting fires.

Answer 242

a. 15000 ft.

Answer 243

b. 13000 ft.

Answer 244

c. 10000 ft.

Answer 245

d. 8000 ft.

Answer 246

a. passengers following a decompression.

Answer 247

b. passengers or crew when required

Answer 248

c. crew only.

Answer 249

d. passengers notified as having medical condition

Answer 250

a. during the whole fight.

Answer 251

b. while meal is being served.

Answer 252

c. for take-off and landing.

Answer 253

d. for turbulence.

Answer 254

a. first aid oxygen

Answer 255

b. supplemental oxygen

Answer 256

c. not oxygen at all

Answer 257

d. aeroplane must descend below 13000 ft

Answer 258

a. 15000 ft.

Answer 259

b. 14000 ft.

Answer 260

c. 13000 ft.

Answer 261

d. 10000 ft.

Answer 262

a. 10000 ft but not exceeding 15000 ft.

Answer 263

b. 14000 ft but not exceeding 15000 ft.

Answer 264

c. 10000 ft but not exceeding 13000 ft.

Answer 265

d. 10000 ft but not exceeding 14000 ft.

Answer 266

a. plus a 10%

Answer 267

b. in the case of a loss of one raft of the largest capacity

Answer 268

c. plus 30%

Answer 269

d. in the case of a loss of two rafts

Answer 270

a. White or yellow

Answer 271

b. Yellow or red

Answer 272

c. Red or white

Answer 273

d. It does not matter as far as they can be seen.

Answer 274

a. 60 life jackets and three 30-seat life boats

Answer 275

b. 60 life jackets

Answer 276

c. one 30-seat life boat and two 20-seat life boats

Answer 277

d. 60 life jackets and two 30-seat life boats

Answer 278

a. Using air from the air conditioning system

Answer 279

b. Using air from the aircraft’s pneumatic system

Answer 280

c. Using the engine bleed air

Answer 281

d. Using a pressurized gas cylinder which is combined with the slide itself

Answer 282

a. one hand fire extinguisher must be located in the flight crew compartment

Answer 283

b. one hand fire extinguisher must be located in the main passenger compartment

Answer 284

c. one hand fire extinguisher must be located in each gallery between passenger compartment.

Answer 285

d. one hand fire extinguisher must be located in cargo compartment

Answer 286

d. 1, 2, 3

Answer 287

a. Yes, it has no limitations because its MOPSC is lower than 9.

Answer 288

c. Yes, but only during daylight.

Answer 289

d. No, because it’s a requirement in order to get a AOC.

Answer 290

b. 1, 2, 3.

Answer 291

c. 1, 2, 3, 4.

Answer 292

a. Automatic fixed (ELT(AF))

Answer 293

b. Automatic portable (ELT(AP))

Answer 294

c. Automatic deployable (ELT(AD))

Answer 295

d. Survival ELT (ELT(S))

Answer 296

c. 2, 3, 4.

Answer 297

a. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7.

Answer 298

b. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 7.

Answer 299

c. 1, 2, 3, 4, 6, 7.

Answer 300

d. 1, 3, 4, 5, 7.

Answer 301

a. In every flight

Answer 302

b. In VFR flights

Answer 303

c. In IFR flights

Answer 304

d. If required by the State of the Operator

Answer 305

a. Has been authorized by the State of the Operator

Answer 306

b. Has been authorized by the Operator

Answer 307

c. Has been authorized by the regional ATCU

Answer 308

d. Performs within specified longitudinal accuracy

Answer 309

a. In accordance with the Operational Flight Plan

Answer 310

b. Along the prescribed RNP routes

Answer 311

c. Between two reporting points on an airway

Answer 312

d. In accordance with any ATC clearance received

Answer 313

a. all of the above

Answer 314

b. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5

Answer 315

c. 1, 3, 4, 7

Answer 316

d. 1, 3, 4, 6, 7

Answer 317

a. To have its own working place

Answer 318

b. To have an EASA-145 certification

Answer 319

c. To have an AOC

Answer 320

d. To be a part of the Operator owning the aeroplanes

Answer 321

b. Operations Manual

Answer 322

c. Flight Manual

Answer 323

a. The contract and its technical specifications

Answer 324

b. The procedure to be followed to ensure maintenance management

Answer 325

c. The Maintenance Quality System

Answer 326

d. The number of workers in charge of the maintenance

Answer 327

a. A document that exposes the maintenance programs performed by a organization.

Answer 328

b. A document with the procedures to follow during the maintenance operations.

Answer 329

c. A document describing the structure of the maintenance organization.

Answer 330

d. A document to be presented to the State Authorities in order to perform maintenance operations.

Answer 331

a. The Maintenance System.

Answer 332

b. The Maintenance Quality System.

Answer 333

c. Aeroplane Maintenance Programme.

Answer 334

d. A,b and c.

Answer 335

a. In the Maintenance System.

Answer 336

b. In the Maintenance Quality System.

Answer 337

c. In the Aeroplane Maintenance Programme.

Answer 338

d. A,b and c.

Answer 339

a. No, it has to include them before performing them.

Answer 340

b. No, in any case.

Answer 341

c. Yes, as far as they are secure.

Answer 342

d. Yes, as far as an equivalent safety case has first been legally approved and supported by EASA.

Answer 343

a. The Operator.

Answer 344

b. The State Authorities.

Answer 345

c. The Maintenance Organization.

Answer 346

d. None of the above.

Answer 347

b) No, providing the flight engineer´s duty can be performed by another flight crew member without detriment to his/her primary duty

Answer 348

c) No, if the planned flight duration (including flight time required to divert to the further alternate) is less than 3 hours

Answer 349

d) No, if the airplane is certified to carry more than 31 passengers and less than 30 onboard

Answer 350

a) In an emergency

Answer 351

c) During an instrument approach where RVR is at minima

Answer 352

d) For a routine take offs and landings

Answer 353

a) Fully fasten the safety harness

Answer 354

b) Wear a communication headset

Answer 355

c) Fully raise the seat

Answer 356

d) Keep the seats belts fastened

Answer 357

a) The operator

Answer 358

b) The Pilot in command

Answer 359

c) The purser

Answer 360

d) The flight engineer

Answer 361

a) The commander

Answer 362

b) The operator

Answer 363

c) The maintenance supervisor

Answer 364

d) A JAA authorized person

Answer 365

a) The load is distributed and secured properly

Answer 366

b) A full fuel load is on board

Answer 367

c) The mass and center of gravity are within limits

Answer 368

d) a maintenance released has been issued for the airplane

Answer 369

a) When the pilots are not considered capable (in the opinion of the Authority of the State of the operator) of the safe navigation of the airplane

Answer 370

b) if the MEL indicates that the necessary navigational system is inoperative

Answer 371

c) When flying over remote areas

Answer 372

d) When precise navigational procedures

Answer 373

a) He must have flown a total of no less than 3000 hours on type

Answer 374

b) he must have made at least 3 take-offs and landings in the same type in the preceding 90 days

Answer 375

c) he must have held a First Officer´s position on type for 13 months

Answer 376

d) He must have flown a total of not less than 1000 hours on type and have held a First Officer´s position on type with the current operator for 3 months

Answer 377

a) Any crew member, who performs, in the interest of safety of passengers, duties assigned to him by the operator in the cabin of an airplane

Answer 378

b) Any crew member, other than a flight crew member, who performs, in the interest of safety of passengers, duties assigned to him by the operator or the commander in the cabin of an airplane

Answer 379

c) Any crew member assigned by the operator, who performs duties in the cabin of the aircraft during the flight, in the interest of safety of passengers

Answer 380

d) Any person assigned by the operator to perform specific duties in the cabin of an aircraft during the flight - for example a security staff

Answer 381

a) There are 9 or more passengers carried

Answer 382

b) The sitting configuration is more than 9

Answer 383

c) The sitting configuration is more than 19

Answer 384

d) There are more than 19 passengers carried

Answer 385

a) 1 cabin crew member for every 25, or fraction of 25, passenger seats installed on the same deck of the airplane.

Answer 386

b) 1 cabin crew member for every 50, or fraction of 50, passenger seats installed on the same deck of the airplane

Answer 387

c) 1 cabin crew member for every 75, or fraction of 75, passenger seats installed on the same deck of the airplane

Answer 388

d) 1 cabin crew member for every 90, or fraction of 90, passenger seats installed on the same deck of the airplane

Answer 389

a) In the performance of their duties

Answer 390

b) At any time specify by the operations manual

Answer 391

c) When having lunch

Answer 392

d) only when the captain allows it

Answer 393

a) 6 months

Answer 394

b) 9 months

Answer 395

c) 12 months

Answer 396

d) 24 months

Answer 397

a) 20 years of age

Answer 398

b) 17 years of age

Answer 399

c) 21 years of age

Answer 400

d) 18 years of age

Answer 401

a) No, a total of 4 cabin crew members are always required

Answer 402

b) Yes, provided a special permit is obtained from the authority

Answer 403

c) Yes, provided that a report is submitted to the authority after completion of the flight

Answer 404

d) Yes, provided that 1 passenger is off-loaded and a report is submitted to the authority after completion of the flight

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Operational Procedures 01-10

Beschreibung

Zusammenfassung der Ressource

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