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IHS Intro to Anesthesia Meds

Beschreibung

Quiz am IHS Intro to Anesthesia Meds, erstellt von Rachel Nall am 07/06/2016.
Rachel Nall
Quiz von Rachel Nall, aktualisiert more than 1 year ago
Rachel Nall
Erstellt von Rachel Nall vor fast 8 Jahre
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Zusammenfassung der Ressource

Frage 1

Frage
What is the most commonly administered pre-operative sedative category?
Antworten
  • Benzodiazepines
  • Opioids
  • Anticholinergics
  • Antisialogue

Frage 2

Frage
[blank_start]Midazolam[blank_end] is the most commonly administered benzo. Its therapeutic dose is [blank_start]1[blank_end] to [blank_start]2[blank_end] milligrams IV.
Antworten
  • Midazolam
  • 1
  • 2

Frage 3

Frage
Which of the following is NOT one of the actions of a benzodiazepine?
Antworten
  • Anxiety
  • Sedation
  • Amnesia
  • Analgesia

Frage 4

Frage
What category of medications produces analgesia during anesthesia?
Antworten
  • Benzodiazepines
  • Opioids
  • Antislalogues
  • Anticholinergics

Frage 5

Frage
Which of the following is the typical analgesic of choice?
Antworten
  • Fentanyl
  • Morphine
  • Dilaudid
  • Demerol

Frage 6

Frage
What is the pre-operative dose for Fentanyl?
Antworten
  • 25-100 mcg
  • 25 to 50 mcg
  • 5 to 15 mg
  • 20 to 80 mcg

Frage 7

Frage
Which of the following is NOT an advantage of opioid administration?
Antworten
  • Absence of direct myocardial depression
  • Less narcotic requirement postoperatively
  • Reduction of pain before placing lines pre-operatively
  • Depression of the medullary ventilatory center

Frage 8

Frage
Select all that you would be concerned about when administering an opioid for analgesia:
Antworten
  • Decreased responsiveness to CO2
  • Relaxation of the peripheral vascular smooth muscle
  • Nausea and vomiting
  • Risk of gastric aspiration
  • Direct myocardial depression
  • Greater post-op requirements for pain medications

Frage 9

Frage
What is the recommended dose for morphine?
Antworten
  • 5 to 15 mg
  • 2 to 10 mg
  • 10 to 20 mg
  • 5 to 15 mcg

Frage 10

Frage
[blank_start]Robinol[blank_end] is the typical anticholinergic given.
Antworten
  • Robinol

Frage 11

Frage
Select all of the known side effects of Robinol.
Antworten
  • Antislalogue
  • Sedative and amnesic
  • Central nervous system toxicity
  • Relaxation of LES
  • Mydriasis and cycloplegia

Frage 12

Frage
Select all of the side effects of scopolamine.
Antworten
  • Antislalogue
  • Sedative and amnesic effects
  • Central nervous system toxicity
  • Relaxation of LES
  • Mydriasis and cycloplegia

Frage 13

Frage
[blank_start]Mydriasis[blank_end] is dilation of the pupil. [blank_start]Scopolamine[blank_end] can cause this.
Antworten
  • Mydriasis
  • Scopolamine

Frage 14

Frage
Medications that have an antisialogogue effect are particularly effective for what procedure types?
Antworten
  • Intraoral procedures
  • Bronchoscopy
  • Fiberoptic intubations
  • Supine cases
  • Lateral cases

Frage 15

Frage
What are the effects of atropine?
Antworten
  • Antisialagogue
  • Sedative and amnesic
  • Central nervous system toxicity
  • Relaxation of the LES
  • Mydriasis and cycloplegia

Frage 16

Frage
[blank_start]Anticholinergics[blank_end] are most commonly administered in pediatric patients due to their strong vagal reactions.
Antworten
  • Anticholinergics

Frage 17

Frage
Which anticholinergic is most commonly associated with producing CNS toxicity?
Antworten
  • Atropine
  • Scopolamine
  • Robinol

Frage 18

Frage
What is the dose for atropine?
Antworten
  • 0.3 to 0.6 mg
  • 1 to 6 mg
  • 0.3 to 0.6 mcg
  • 1 to 6 mcg

Frage 19

Frage
The therapeutic dose for Robinol is [blank_start]0.1[blank_end] mg IV.
Antworten
  • 0.1

Frage 20

Frage
Anticholinergics don't have selective action to receptors. They can cause a blockade of [blank_start]muscarinic[blank_end] receptors in the CNS. As a result, you need to administer an anticholinergic along with a medication like [blank_start]neostigmine[blank_end].
Antworten
  • muscarinic
  • neostigmine

Frage 21

Frage
What conditions should NOT give you pause in administering an anticholinergic?
Antworten
  • CAD
  • Mitral/Aortic stenosis
  • Atrial fibrillation
  • Bradycardia

Frage 22

Frage
[blank_start]Proton pump inhibitors[blank_end] suppress acid secretion in response to all primary stimulants: histamine, gastrin, and acetylcholine.
Antworten
  • Proton pump inhibitors

Frage 23

Frage
The three medications in the triple-threat aspiration prophylaxis are: [blank_start]Bicitra[blank_end], [blank_start]Pepcid[blank_end], and [blank_start]Raglan[blank_end].
Antworten
  • Bicitra
  • Pepcid
  • Raglan

Frage 24

Frage
What is the dose for Bicitra?
Antworten
  • 15 to 30 ml
  • 10 to 20 ml
  • 1 to 3 ml
  • 5 to 15 ml

Frage 25

Frage
What is the dose for Tagamet?
Antworten
  • 200 to 300 mg
  • 100 to 150 mg
  • 25 to 100 mg
  • 250 to 350 mg

Frage 26

Frage
What is the dose for Zantac IV?
Antworten
  • 25 mg
  • 50 mg
  • 75 mg
  • 100 mg

Frage 27

Frage
What is the dose for Pepcid?
Antworten
  • 200 to 300 mg
  • 150 mg
  • 20 to 40 mg

Frage 28

Frage
An [blank_start]H2 antagonist[blank_end] counters the ability of histamine to induce secretion of gastric fluid with a high concentration of H* ions.
Antworten
  • H2 antagonist

Frage 29

Frage
Which of the following is not a proton pump inhibitor?
Antworten
  • Prilosec
  • Protonix
  • Nexium
  • Prevacid
  • Pepcid

Frage 30

Frage
[blank_start]Pepcid[blank_end] is the most common H2 antagonist. The typical dose is [blank_start]20[blank_end] to [blank_start]40[blank_end] mg PO.
Antworten
  • Pepcid
  • 20
  • 40

Frage 31

Frage
[blank_start]Prokinetics[blank_end] are responsible for a decrease in gastric fluid volume.
Antworten
  • Prokinetics

Frage 32

Frage
What is the dose for Raglan?
Antworten
  • 5 mg IV
  • 10 mg IV
  • 15 mg IV
  • 20 mg IV

Frage 33

Frage
[blank_start]Anticholinergics[blank_end] and [blank_start]Raglan[blank_end] can work against each other as one can relax the LES and the other can increase LES.
Antworten
  • Anticholinergics
  • Raglan

Frage 34

Frage
Prokinetics like Reglan alter gastric pH.
Antworten
  • True
  • False

Frage 35

Frage
What is an example of an alpha 2 agonist?
Antworten
  • Clonidine
  • Atropine
  • Decadron
  • Haldol

Frage 36

Frage
What is the dose for Clonidine?
Antworten
  • 0.1 to 0.3 mg
  • 1 to 2 mg
  • 20 to 40 mg
  • 0.1 to 1 mg

Frage 37

Frage
Which of the following isn't an effect of clonidine?
Antworten
  • Central-acting anti-hypertensive
  • Sedation
  • Reduces incidence of MI during surgery
  • Tachycardia

Frage 38

Frage
[blank_start]Antihistamines[blank_end] are recommended for pre-medication in patients undergoing high-risk procedures, like radiography dye studies.
Antworten
  • Antihistamines

Frage 39

Frage
What is NOT an example of a case when you would administer a GI prophylaxis for N/V?
Antworten
  • Patients with a history of PONV
  • Laparoscopic procedures
  • Women undergoing gynecologic procedures
  • Radiographic dye studies

Frage 40

Frage
Which of the following is not an induction agent?
Antworten
  • Succinylcholine
  • Propofol
  • Etomidate
  • Brevital

Frage 41

Frage
The [blank_start]reticular activating system[blank_end] is a polysynaptic pathway that travels from the brainstem to the cerebral cortex that is intimately concerned with the electrical activity of the cerebral cortex.
Antworten
  • reticular activating system

Frage 42

Frage
It's likely most of the anesthetic agents exert depressant effects on the RAS.
Antworten
  • True
  • False

Frage 43

Frage
What is the induction dose of thiopental?
Antworten
  • 1 to 5 mg/kg
  • 3 to 6 mg/kg
  • 5 to 10 mg/kg
  • 10 to 15 mg/kg

Frage 44

Frage
What should you reconstitute thiopental with?
Antworten
  • Isotonic sodium chloride
  • Lactated ringer's
  • Acidic solution
  • Vecuronium

Frage 45

Frage
Accidental intra-arterial injection is a serious concern for [blank_start]thiopental[blank_end].
Antworten
  • thiopental

Frage 46

Frage
[blank_start]Propofol[blank_end] works through the facilitation of inhibitory neurotransmission mediated by GABA receptor.
Antworten
  • Propofol

Frage 47

Frage
The induction dose for Propofol is:
Antworten
  • 1.5 to 2.5 mg/kg
  • 100 to 200 mcg/kg/min
  • 25 to 75 mcg/kg/min

Frage 48

Frage
The maintenance infusion for general anesthesia for Propofol is:
Antworten
  • 1.5 to 2.5 mg/kg
  • 100 to 200 mcg/kg/min
  • 25 to 75 mcg/kg/min

Frage 49

Frage
The maintenance infusion for sedation for Propofol is:
Antworten
  • 1.5 to 2.5 mg/kg
  • 100 to 200 mcg/kg/min
  • 25 to 75 mcg/kg/min

Frage 50

Frage
A person with an egg allergy can't receive Propofol.
Antworten
  • True
  • False

Frage 51

Frage
[blank_start]Etomidate[blank_end] works by binding to a subunit of the GABA type A receptor. This increases its affinity for GABA, which causes depression of the RAS.
Antworten
  • Etomidate

Frage 52

Frage
What is the induction dosage for Etomidate?
Antworten
  • 0.2 to 0.3 mg/kg
  • 1 to 3 mg/kg
  • 20 to 40 mg/kg
  • 0.1 to 0.5 mg/kg

Frage 53

Frage
Etomidate has minimal effects on the CV system.
Antworten
  • True
  • False

Frage 54

Frage
Both [blank_start]Etomidate[blank_end] and [blank_start]Propofol[blank_end] cause pain on injection. You can mix them with lidocaine.
Antworten
  • Etomidate
  • Propofol

Frage 55

Frage
[blank_start]Etomidate[blank_end] can cause myoclonus.
Antworten
  • Etomidate

Frage 56

Frage
The induction dose for Brevital is:
Antworten
  • 1 - 3 mg/kg
  • 2 - 4 mg/kg
  • 5 to 10 mg/kg
  • 10 to 15 mg/kg

Frage 57

Frage
Brevital is cleared by the liver at a [blank_start]faster[blank_end] rate than thiopental.
Antworten
  • faster

Frage 58

Frage
Sux increases the following: 1. [blank_start]Intraocular[blank_end] pressure 2. [blank_start]Intragastric[blank_end] pressure 3. [blank_start]Intracranial[blank_end] pressure 4. [blank_start]Serum potassium levels[blank_end]
Antworten
  • Intraocular
  • Intragastric
  • Intracranial
  • Serum potassium levels

Frage 59

Frage
The dosage for succinylcholine is:
Antworten
  • 0.5 - 2 mg/kg
  • 1 - 1.5 mg/kg
  • 2 - 2.5 mg/kg
  • 3 - 5 mg/kg

Frage 60

Frage
Succinylcholine is a [blank_start]depolarizing[blank_end] agent.
Antworten
  • depolarizing

Frage 61

Frage
Name the four M's of succinylcholine: 1. [blank_start]Malignant hyperthermia[blank_end] 2. [blank_start]Myalgias[blank_end] 3. [blank_start]Myocardium[blank_end] 4. [blank_start]Myopathies[blank_end]
Antworten
  • Malignant hyperthermia
  • Myalgias
  • Myocardium
  • Myopathies

Frage 62

Frage
Medications like vecuronium, rocuronium, pancuronium, and cistracurium are [blank_start]nondepolarizing[blank_end] blocking drugs.
Antworten
  • nondepolarizing

Frage 63

Frage
What is the incubation dose for vecuronium?
Antworten
  • 0.08 to 0.1 mg/kg
  • 1 to 8 mg/kg
  • 5 to 15 mg/kg

Frage 64

Frage
How long does an intubating dose of vecuronium last?
Antworten
  • 5 minutes
  • 10 minutes
  • 20 minutes
  • one hour

Frage 65

Frage
What type of patient wouldn't be a good candidate for vecuronium?
Antworten
  • Cardiac dysfunction
  • Liver/Kidney dysfunction
  • Diabetes
  • Lung disease

Frage 66

Frage
What is the intubation dose for Rocuronium?
Antworten
  • 0.1 mg/kg
  • 1 mg/kg
  • 2 mg/kg
  • 5 mg/kg

Frage 67

Frage
Rocuronium has a longer duration of intubating dose than vecuronium.
Antworten
  • True
  • False

Frage 68

Frage
Intubating dose for Atracurium is [blank_start]0.4[blank_end] to [blank_start]0.5[blank_end] mg/kg.
Antworten
  • 0.4
  • 0.5

Frage 69

Frage
The intubation dose for Cisatracurium (Nimbex) is:
Antworten
  • 0.2 mg/kg
  • 1 mg/kg
  • 5 mg/kg
  • 10 mg/kg

Frage 70

Frage
Cisatracurium is less potent than atracurium.
Antworten
  • True
  • False

Frage 71

Frage
Which two neuromuscular agents are those that are eliminated via Hoffman elimination:
Antworten
  • Atracurium and Cisatracurium
  • Vecuronium and Rocuronium
  • Atracurium and Rocuronium
  • Cisatracurium and Rocuronium

Frage 72

Frage
Which of the following is NOT an action of inhaled anesthetics?
Antworten
  • Immobility
  • Amnesia
  • CNS Depression
  • Analgesia
  • Muscle relaxation

Frage 73

Frage
MAC stands for [blank_start]minimum alveolar concentration[blank_end].
Antworten
  • minimum alveolar concentration

Frage 74

Frage
The MAC of nitrous oxide is [blank_start]105[blank_end] percent.
Antworten
  • 105

Frage 75

Frage
Nitrous oxide shouldn't be avoided in patients with the following:
Antworten
  • At-risk for nausea and vomiting
  • In pregnancy
  • With suspected bowel blockage
  • At-risk for diffusion into air-containing cavities

Frage 76

Frage
Nitrous oxide is more soluble than nitrogen in the blood.
Antworten
  • True
  • False

Frage 77

Frage
The MAC of isoflurane (Forane) is [blank_start]1.2[blank_end] percent.
Antworten
  • 1.2

Frage 78

Frage
Non depolarizing NMBAs are potentiated by [blank_start]isoflurane[blank_end].
Antworten
  • isoflurane

Frage 79

Frage
The MAC of desflurane is [blank_start]6[blank_end] percent.
Antworten
  • 6

Frage 80

Frage
The only difference between isoflurane and desflurane is the substitution of a [blank_start]fluorine[blank_end] atom for isoflurane's [blank_start]chlorine[blank_end] atom.
Antworten
  • fluorine
  • chlorine

Frage 81

Frage
Which anesthetic gas requires a special, electrically heated vaporizer?
Antworten
  • Desflurane
  • Isoflurane
  • Sevoflurane
  • Nitrous oxide

Frage 82

Frage
Wakeup times for [blank_start]desflurane[blank_end] are 50 percent less than those observed following isoflurane.
Antworten
  • desflurane

Frage 83

Frage
The MAC of sevoflurane is [blank_start]2[blank_end] percent.
Antworten
  • 2

Frage 84

Frage
[blank_start]Sevoflurane[blank_end] is an excellent induction agent for pediatric patients because it is non-pungent.
Antworten
  • Sevoflurane

Frage 85

Frage
Which of the following is not a disadvantage of sevoflurane?
Antworten
  • Production of compound A
  • Shouldn't be used in longer cases
  • Higher fresh gas flows of at least 2 liters
  • Is degraded by desiccated CO2 absorbent into potentially clinically significant levels of carbon monoxide

Frage 86

Frage
[blank_start]Non depolarizing[blank_end] muscle relaxants act by competing with ACh for nicotinic cholinergic receptors for binding sites, which results in a blockade of neuromuscular transmission.
Antworten
  • Non depolarizing
  • Depolarizing

Frage 87

Frage
Neostigmine is an [blank_start]anticholinesterase[blank_end]. It works by inhibiting the amount of acetylcholine available to compete with nondepolarizing agents.
Antworten
  • anticholinesterase

Frage 88

Frage
The dosage for neostigmine is [blank_start]0.4[blank_end] to [blank_start]0.8[blank_end] mg/kg.
Antworten
  • 0.8
  • 0.4

Frage 89

Frage
Neostigmine's duration is [blank_start]one hour[blank_end], give or take.
Antworten
  • one hour

Frage 90

Frage
Sugammadex (Bridion) is FDA-approved to reverse [blank_start]rocuronium[blank_end] and [blank_start]vecuronium[blank_end].
Antworten
  • rocuronium
  • vecuronium
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