Amanda Burton
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Pharmacology Quiz on Cardiovascular and Renal Medications , created by Amanda Burton on 09/20/2017.

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Amanda Burton
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  • Cardiovascular and Renal Medications

    Question 1 of 60

    1

    Which type of medication is indicated for a patient with hypertension?

    Select one of the following:

    • Antidysrythmic

    • Peripheral vasodilator

    • Vasoconstrictor

    • Cardiotonic

    Explanation

    Question 2 of 60

    1

    Nitroglycerin is the drug of choice for patients who have:

    Select one of the following:

    • angina pectoris

    • thrombus formation

    • hyperlipidemia

    • hypotension

    Explanation

    Question 3 of 60

    1

    Which statement is correct regarding the administration of topical nitroglycerin ointment?

    Select one of the following:

    • The ointment should be spread over the anterior chest wall

    • The ointment should be applied specifically for episodes of acute angina.

    • The old ointment should be removed before the new ointment is applied.

    • The ointment should be massaged gently into the skin and the area then covered with plastic wrap.

    Explanation

    Question 4 of 60

    1

    Which of the following drugs is used to treat premature ventricular contractions (PVCs)?

    Select one of the following:

    • Digoxin

    • Apresoline

    • Lidocaine

    • Nitroglycerin

    Explanation

    Question 5 of 60

    1

    Which of the following is an undesirable effect of antidysrhythmic medications?

    Select one of the following:

    • Bradycardia

    • Normal sinus rhythm

    • Improved cardiac output

    • Decreased angina

    Explanation

    Question 6 of 60

    1

    Which antihyperlipidemic agent is taken once daily in the evening?

    Select one of the following:

    • Chloestyramine resin (Questran)

    • Niacin (Niacor)

    • Simvastatin (Zocor)

    • Gemfibrozil (Lopid)

    Explanation

    Question 7 of 60

    1

    Cardiotonic medications act by:

    Select one of the following:

    • Directly stimulating the myocardium

    • Preventing blood coagulation

    • helping in thrombus formation

    • dilating arteriole walls

    Explanation

    Question 8 of 60

    1

    Your patient questions why he is on digoxin immune Fab for the treatment of digitoxin toxicity. You respond by telling him the medication:

    Select one of the following:

    • works faster than digoxin

    • is safer than digoxin and can be taken orally

    • helps to convert the fibrillating atria to a regular rhythm

    • will help lower his blood levels of digoxin

    Explanation

    Question 9 of 60

    1

    The negative chronotropic side effect in patients receiving digoxin is evidenced by:

    Select one of the following:

    • increased heart rate

    • decreased conduction

    • decreased heart rate

    • increased ectopic beats

    Explanation

    Question 10 of 60

    1

    When thiazide and loop diuretics are administered, the patient should be monitored for:

    Select one of the following:

    • high sodium levels

    • high potassium levels

    • low sodium levels

    • low potassium levels

    Explanation

    Question 11 of 60

    1

    You are visiting an 80 yr old patient in her home. She is receiving 0.125mg of oral digoxin daily. She also takes HCTZ 50mg bid. She complains of blurred vision and nausea. You observe that she is confused and disoriented at times. Which of the following might be the problem?

    Select one of the following:

    • The patient needs to have her HCTZ increased

    • The patient may have digitalis toxicity

    • The patient may have developed chronic heart failure

    • The patient may have Alzheimer disease

    Explanation

    Question 12 of 60

    1

    The physician tells you that a patient is hypokalemic. He has been taking thiazide medication for treatment of his high blood pressure. You will instruct him to increase his dietary intake of which of the following?

    Select one of the following:

    • Green and leafy vegetables

    • Sodium

    • Bananas and citrus fruit

    • Low-fat products

    Explanation

    Question 13 of 60

    1

    A patient is admitted to the emergency room with a diagnosis of CHF. Which of the following medications may be ordered to treat CHF?

    Select one of the following:

    • Digoxin

    • Propranolol

    • Procainamide

    • Isoxsuprine

    Explanation

    Question 14 of 60

    1

    Which of the following is a nursing consideration for a patient with a UTI taking phenazopyridine?

    Select one of the following:

    • It may take 2 to 4 weeks before a response is seen.

    • Phenazopyridine should be taken with a glass of milk or an antacid.

    • Urine may turn orange or red.

    • The patient will need to take a potassium supplement while on phenazopyridine therapy.

    Explanation

    Question 15 of 60

    1

    Which of the following is an adverse effect of quinidine?

    Select one of the following:

    • Tinnitus

    • Constipation

    • Tremors

    • Hypotension

    Explanation

    Question 16 of 60

    1

    Which of the following is a nitrite compound that s used therapeutically to abort acute attacks of angina pectoris?

    Select one of the following:

    • Quinidine sulfate

    • Nitroglycerin

    • Digoxin

    • Minoxidil

    Explanation

    Question 17 of 60

    1

    A patient is scheduled to leave the hospital tomorrow. He has been instructed to take nitroglycerin sublingually if angina is experienced. Which of the following instructions concerning dosage would he be given?

    Select one of the following:

    • During an acute attack of angina, he may repeat the dose after 5 to 10 minutes if the pain is not relieved.

    • He should never repeat a dose but should notify the physician if the pain is not relieved.

    • If pain is not relieved within 3 to 5 minutes after taking a dose, he should repeat it. He may do this for three doses. If he pain is not relieved, he should chew aspirin and go immediately to an ER to be evaluated for an acute MI.

    • He can take as many tablets as necessary until relief occurs.

    Explanation

    Question 18 of 60

    1

    Because they act to relax the walls of blood vessels and decrease blood pressure, vasodilators play an important role in the treatment of all EXCEPT which of the following?

    Select one of the following:

    • Prevention and treatment of angina due to coronary artery disease

    • Peripheral vascular disease

    • Hypertension

    • Dysrhythmias

    Explanation

    Question 19 of 60

    1

    A patient taking a potassium-sparing diuretic should be monitored for which side effect?

    Select one of the following:

    • Gynecomastia

    • Alopecia

    • Hypertension

    • Hyperglycemia

    Explanation

    Question 20 of 60

    1

    A patient is being evaluated for treatment with HCTZ. Which laboratory value warrants notification to the prescriber?

    Select one of the following:

    • Urine specific gravity of less than 1.0028

    • Serum WBC count greater than 4000

    • Potassium below 3 mEq/L

    • Serum creatinine of 1 mg

    Explanation

    Question 21 of 60

    1

    Which question is relevant in evaluating a patient who is taking bumetanide in combination with gentamicin?

    Select one of the following:

    • "What is the date today?"

    • "How many fingers do you see?"

    • "Can you hear this whisper?"

    • "Can you touch your index finger to your nose?"

    Explanation

    Question 22 of 60

    1

    Which statements best demonstrate a patient's understanding of treatment with tolterodine?

    Select one or more of the following:

    • "i need to decrease my fluid intake while I am on this medication."

    • "My husband is going to drive until I see how this drug will affect me."

    • "I will change the patch every day."

    • "I will call the doctor if I get a rash where the patch has been."

    • "This drug will help stop the sudden need to go that I've been having."

    Explanation

    Question 23 of 60

    1

    A patient is taking 20 mg of metolazone by mouth daily to reduce edema. Before discharge the patient will be taught which instructions? (Check all that apply)

    Select one or more of the following:

    • Slowly change positions from lying to sitting and sitting to standing

    • Limit fluid intake to one liter per day.

    • Increase saliva production can be managed by reducing water intake.

    • Wear sunscreen and appropriate clothing to avoid sunburn.

    • Use caution in tasks that require mental activity and muscle strength

    Explanation

    Question 24 of 60

    1

    What will the nurse tell the patient who is taking HCTZ and K+ when nausea develops?

    Select one of the following:

    • "Hold the K+ until the nausea is over."

    • "Take the K+ even though you are nauseated to avoid heart problems."

    • "Decrease the amount of potassium to every other day until you feel better."

    • "Decrease he amount of diuretic and the amount of K+ by one half for one day."

    Explanation

    Question 25 of 60

    1

    An older adult is taking furosemide (Lasix). Which special precautions are necessary for this patient? (Check all that apply)

    Select one or more of the following:

    • Report new onset of muscle weakness to the prescriber.

    • Elevated K+ levels may result from this medication.

    • Instruct the patient to sit on the side of the bed before standing up.

    • Hearing loss and tinnitus can be associated with the use of furosemide.

    • Older adults are less sensitive to the effects of furosemide.

    Explanation

    Question 26 of 60

    1

    A patient taking a drug for benign prostatic hypertrophy is having cataract surgery. Which adverse effect could occur during surgery?

    Select one of the following:

    • The pupil can dilate excessively.

    • The iris can collapse towards the surgical site.

    • The pupil can constrict excessively.

    • The tear ducts can have diminished functioning.

    Explanation

    Question 27 of 60

    1

    Before taking medication for benign prostatic hypertrophy, it is most crucial for the patient to undergo assessment for which condition?

    Select one of the following:

    • Prostate enlargement

    • Gynecomastia

    • Prostate cancer

    • Erectile dysfunction

    Explanation

    Question 28 of 60

    1

    A nurse who is pregnant should not handle crushed tablets of dutasteride because of which concern?

    Select one of the following:

    • Dutasteride could induce premature labor.

    • Dustasteride can cause pregnancy induced hypertension

    • The crushed dutasteride tablets release a nauseating odor.

    • Dutasteride can cause both defects in male fetuses.

    Explanation

    Question 29 of 60

    1

    These are powerful drugs used to create more regular heart rhythms and there may be many adverse reaction from some of these medications

    Select one of the following:

    • Antidysrhythmics

    • Antihyperlipidemic

    • Diuretics

    • Antianginal

    Explanation

    Question 30 of 60

    1

    These are vasodilators and so have a direct action on vascular smooth muscle and cause it to relax.

    Select one of the following:

    • Calcium channel blockers

    • Atropine

    • Nitrates

    • Prazosin

    Explanation

    Question 31 of 60

    1

    Calcium is an electrolyte that helps move electrical impulses through:

    Select one of the following:

    • cell membranes

    • Cardiac tissue

    • peripheral tissue

    • external carotid artery

    Explanation

    Question 32 of 60

    1

    Rapid acting nitrate such as amyl nitrate, sublingual nitroglycerin, and sublingual or chewable isosorbide dinitrate are used mostly to relieve pain in what:

    Select one of the following:

    • anginal attacks

    • acute angina

    • MI

    • CHF

    Explanation

    Question 33 of 60

    1

    There are many common adverse reactions to nitrates (Check all that apply)

    Select one or more of the following:

    • Diarrhea

    • Postural hypotension

    • Orthostatics

    • High Blood pressure

    • Fainting

    • Bradycardia

    • Vertigo

    Explanation

    Question 34 of 60

    1

    Periphera vasodilating agents may cause what side effects (Check all that apply)

    Select one or more of the following:

    • Hypertension

    • Hypotension

    • Vertigo

    • Headache

    • Light-headedness

    Explanation

    Question 35 of 60

    1

    Dysrhythmic medications are classified by the stage at which they affect the cellular action potential:
    These drugs are sodium channel blockers, they lengthen the effective refractory period of atrial and ventricular myocardium by slowing the fast inward current caused by the sodium electrolyte.

    Select one of the following:

    • Class 1 drugs

    • Class 2 drugs

    • Class 3 drugs

    • Class 4 drugs

    Explanation

    Question 36 of 60

    1

    Dysrhythmic medications are classified by the stage at which they affect the cellular action potential:
    These are beta blockers, such as propranolol, esmolol, and acebutolol, which reduce sympathetic excitation to the heart, these drugs slow the heartbeat but help the heart beat stronger.

    Select one of the following:

    • Class 1 drugs

    • Class 2 drugs

    • Class 3 drugs

    • Class 4 drugs

    Explanation

    Question 37 of 60

    1

    Dysrhythmic medications are classified by the stage at which they affect the cellular action potential:
    These are potassium channel blockers that lengthen he action potential duration, or the length of time it takes for one cell to fire and recover. These drugs also slow the heartbeat and may make it less sensitive to dysrhythmias.

    Select one of the following:

    • Class 1 drugs

    • Class 2 drugs

    • Class 3 drugs

    • Class 4 drugs

    Explanation

    Question 38 of 60

    1

    Dysrhythmic medications are classified by the stage at which they affect the cellular action potential:
    These drugs are calcium channel blockers that selectively bloc the ability of calcium to enter the myocardium and prolong the effective refractory period in the AV node

    Select one of the following:

    • Class 1 Drugs

    • Class 2 drugs

    • Class 3 drugs

    • Class 4 drugs

    Explanation

    Question 39 of 60

    1

    What powerful drug slows the conduction through the AV node and decreases how rapidly the SA node will fire.

    Select one of the following:

    • Adenosine

    • Digoxin

    • Quinidine

    • Lidocaine

    Explanation

    Question 40 of 60

    1

    The MAIN limit to the use of niacin is its adverse effect of what

    Select one or more of the following:

    • Liver damage

    • Gout

    • Flushing

    • Constipation

    Explanation

    Question 41 of 60

    1

    What medications are often taken in the evening since the body makes higher amounts of cholesterol at night?

    Select one of the following:

    • Stains

    • Beta blockers olol

    • Prils

    • Diuretics

    Explanation

    Question 42 of 60

    1

    The patients should take any other medications 1 hour before or 4 to 6 hours after taking what type of med?

    Select one of the following:

    • Antidysrhythmics

    • Antihyperlipidemics

    • Antihypertensives

    • Cardiotonics

    Explanation

    Question 43 of 60

    1

    The first action of these drugs is to increase the strength of each heartbeat or he force of the contraction so this effect of this drug is called a positive inotropic action.

    Select one of the following:

    • Cardiotonics

    • Antihypertensive

    • Antianginals

    • Antidysrhythmics

    Explanation

    Question 44 of 60

    1

    The second action of Cardiotonic drugs is

    Select one of the following:

    • Slow the heartbeat

    • increase strength of heartbeat

    • Reduce edema

    • absorb calcium

    Explanation

    Question 45 of 60

    1

    When a patient begins to show toxic or harmful reactions from too much digoxin what develops?

    Select one or more of the following:

    • Digitalis toxicity

    • bradycardia

    • AV node block

    • excessive fatigue

    • confusion

    • yellow-green vision

    • nausea and vomiting

    Explanation

    Question 46 of 60

    1

    What are the levels of Digoxin?

    Select one of the following:

    • 0.5-2

    • 7.35-7.45

    • 3.5-5.0

    • 22-26

    Explanation

    Question 47 of 60

    1

    You take the apical pulse to give Digoxin what would be an OK pulse rate to administer the med? (Check all that apply)

    Select one or more of the following:

    • 59

    • 60

    • 42

    • 80

    • 120

    Explanation

    Question 48 of 60

    1

    How long do you take an apical pulse ?

    Select one of the following:

    • 1 minute

    • 30 seconds and times by two

    • 45 seconds

    • 15 seconds and times by 4

    Explanation

    Question 49 of 60

    1

    Diuretics are classed into four related groups (check all that apply)

    Select one or more of the following:

    • Thiazides

    • Loop

    • Milrione

    • Niacin

    • Thiazide like sulfonamides

    • Potassium sparing

    Explanation

    Question 50 of 60

    1

    Thiazides and sulfonamides diuretics are the most commonly used class of diuretics and they have similar actions what are some of those actions: (check all that apply)

    Select one or more of the following:

    • They prevent the reabsortion of sodium and chloride

    • They promote the reabsortion of sodium and chloride

    • They lead to the loss of large amounts of potassium

    • They lead to retention of potassium

    • They prevent the reabsorption of calcium

    • They promote reabsorption of calcium

    Explanation

    Question 51 of 60

    1

    What do all ACE inhibitors in with

    Select one of the following:

    • olol

    • pril

    • sartans

    • statin

    Explanation

    Question 52 of 60

    1

    When is PRILs not given to a patient?

    Select one of the following:

    • To a pregnant women

    • To an elderly post operative patient

    • A 35 year old athlete

    • Post CABG patient

    Explanation

    Question 53 of 60

    1

    To increase volume what is released from the kidneys

    Select one of the following:

    • Renin

    • Estrogen

    • Progestrone

    • Melatonin

    Explanation

    Question 54 of 60

    1

    What type medication would you use to stop the progression of the converting enzyme during the renin-angiotensin system from Angiotension1 to Angiiotension 2

    Select one of the following:

    • Potassium sparing diuretic

    • Beta blockers

    • Ace inhibitors

    • Loop diuretics

    Explanation

    Question 55 of 60

    1

    Adrenergic inhibitors use what sympathetic nervous system.

    Select one of the following:

    • True
    • False

    Explanation

    Question 56 of 60

    1

    Angiotension 2 doesn't have any effect on your volume or blood pressure?

    Select one of the following:

    • True
    • False

    Explanation

    Question 57 of 60

    1

    Angiotension 2 tells the adrenal gland to stimulate release of aldosterone.

    Select one of the following:

    • True
    • False

    Explanation

    Question 58 of 60

    1

    What is the most common drug used for urinary incontinence?

    Select one of the following:

    • Ditropan

    • Flomax

    • Propranolol

    • Spironolactone

    Explanation

    Question 59 of 60

    1

    Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia is a noncancerous growth of the prostate gland frequently seen as men age; if this gland becomes larger enough, it can cause problems in urination because the prostate puts pressure on the bladder and urinary sphinter. what medication s an alpha-adrenergic receptor blocker used only for the treatment of symptoms of BPH.

    Select one of the following:

    • Ditropan

    • Propranolol

    • Flomax

    • Furosemide

    Explanation

    Question 60 of 60

    1

    The nurse is due to administer a dose of cardiotonic drug. The highest priority nursing intervention before administration should be:

    Select one of the following:

    • count the radial pulse for 60 seconds

    • assess the respiratory rate

    • count the apical pulse 60 seconds

    • assess the temperature

    Explanation