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General Pathoanatomy Final MCQs (301-400)- 3rd Year- PMU

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General Pathoanatomy Final MCQs (301-400)- 3rd Year- PMU

Question 1 of 100

1

Indicate the correct statement(s)

Select one or more of the following:

  • granulation tissue is rich of capillaries and cells

  • granulation tissue is rich in collagen fibres and fibroblasts and contains less blood vessels

  • granulation tissue is the immature connective tissue

  • fibrous tissue is immature connective tissue

Explanation

Question 2 of 100

1

What is hyper-granulation?

Select one or more of the following:

  • mature connective tissue

  • hypertrophic tumor-like cicatrix/scar

  • greater amount of granulation tissue

  • none of the above

Explanation

Question 3 of 100

1

What is a scar?

Select one or more of the following:

  • hypertrophic granulation tissue

  • mature connective tissue

  • hypertrophic tumor-like cicatrix

  • none of the above

Explanation

Question 4 of 100

1

What is a keloid?

Select one or more of the following:

  • hypertrophic tumor-like cicatrix

  • mature connective tissue

  • greater amount of granulation tissue

  • none of the above

Explanation

Question 5 of 100

1

Which stain can be used to prove of scarring (cicatrix) of the heart?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Van Gieson

  • Peris

  • Congo Red

  • PAS

Explanation

Question 6 of 100

1

Which of the could not be seen in rheumatoid nodules?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Fibrinoid necrosis

  • Epitheloid cells

  • Langhans cells

  • Lymphocytes

Explanation

Question 7 of 100

1

Indicate the correct statement(s) for the polyarteriitis nodosa.

Select one or more of the following:

  • it is an autoimmune disease

  • it affects mostly the elastic arteries

  • there is accumulation of glucosaminoglycans in the vessel walls which can be demonstrated with metachromasia with Toluidin Bleu

  • the branches of the pulmonary arteries are affected

Explanation

Question 8 of 100

1

Anaphylactic hypersensitivity reactions are related to:

Select one or more of the following:

  • Hemolytic anemia

  • Hashimoto thyroiditis

  • Allergic rhinitis

  • Bronchial asthma

Explanation

Question 9 of 100

1

Cytotoxic hypersensitivity reactions are related to:

Select one or more of the following:

  • hashimoto thyroiditis

  • hemolytic anemia

  • allergic rhinitis

  • nodosal poyarteriitis

Explanation

Question 10 of 100

1

Immune complexes mediated hypersensitivity reactions are related to:

Select one or more of the following:

  • polyartheriitis nodosa

  • rheumatoid arthritis

  • hemolytic anemia

  • tuberculosis

Explanation

Question 11 of 100

1

Cell mediated hypersensitivity reactions are related to:

Select one or more of the following:

  • Tuberculosis

  • Polyarteriitis nodosa

  • Bronchial asthma

  • Hashimoto thyroiditis

Explanation

Question 12 of 100

1

Indicate characteristics of the benign tumors.

Select one or more of the following:

  • expansive type of growth

  • fast speed of growth

  • invading and destroying the adjacent tissues

  • in general they have good prognosis

Explanation

Question 13 of 100

1

Indicate characteristics of the benign tumors

Select one or more of the following:

  • infiltrative growth

  • slow, long term developntcnt

  • usually they don't recur after complete surgery

  • their microscopic structure shows only tissue atypia

Explanation

Question 14 of 100

1

Indicate correct characteristics of the malignant tumors.

Select one or more of the following:

  • expansive growth

  • fast speed of growth

  • they have poor prognosis in general

  • composed of differentiated, mature cells

Explanation

Question 15 of 100

1

Indicate correct characteristics of the malignant tumors.

Select one or more of the following:

  • infiltrative growth

  • microscopic structure shows both tissue and cells atypia

  • good prognosis in general

  • metastasizing

Explanation

Question 16 of 100

1

Which is the most common way of metastasizing of epithelial tumors?

Select one or more of the following:

  • by lymphatics (lymphogenic metastases)

  • with blood (hematogenic metastases)

  • by cerebrospinal fluid

  • none of the above

Explanation

Question 17 of 100

1

What is papilloma?

Select one or more of the following:

  • malignant tumor of the covering epithelium

  • benign tumor of glandular epithelium

  • benign tumor of cover type epithelium

  • benign soft tissue tumor

Explanation

Question 18 of 100

1

Indicate the correct characteristic(s) for papilloma

Select one or more of the following:

  • it has tree-like stroma covered by differentiated stratified squamous epithelium

  • it has tree-like stroma covered by undifferentiated squamous epithelium with signs of cell atypia

  • stroma and parenchyma are difficult to distinguish

  • it doesn't have a capsule

Explanation

Question 19 of 100

1

What is the term used for malignant tumors of cover type epithelium?

Select one or more of the following:

  • adenocarcinoma

  • papilloma

  • carcinoma

  • sarcoma

Explanation

Question 20 of 100

1

What is the term used for malignant tumors of glandular type epithelial origin?

Select one or more of the following:

  • adenocarcinoma

  • adenoma

  • carcinoma

  • carcino-adenoma

Explanation

Question 21 of 100

1

What is the term used for benign tumors of glandular type epithelial origin?

Select one or more of the following:

  • papilloma

  • adenoma

  • teratoma

  • adenocarcinoma

Explanation

Question 22 of 100

1

Point the correct statement(s) about basal cell carcinoma.

Select one or more of the following:

  • it develops only on the skin

  • it can develop at any place with squamous epithelium

  • it characterizes with early lymphogenic and hematogenic metastases

  • very often it recurs at the same place after surgery

Explanation

Question 23 of 100

1

Keratinized squamous cell carcinoma:

Select one or more of the following:

  • develops only on the skin

  • can develop at any place with squamous epithelium

  • is highly undifferenciated malignant tumor

  • is a tumor composed of more differenciated cells with keratin production

Explanation

Question 24 of 100

1

What kind of structures are the cancer perls?

Select one or more of the following:

  • accumulation of keratin produced by more differentiated malignant cells originating from squamous epithelium

  • pink-coloured homogenous substance located in the centre of the tumor nests

  • accumulation of mucus produced by highly undifferentiated malignant cells located in the centre of the tumor nests

  • pink homogenous substance that accumulates in the stroma of the tumor

Explanation

Question 25 of 100

1

The gross appearance of which tumor is called "ulcus rodens"?

Select one or more of the following:

  • squamous cell carcinoma

  • melanoma

  • basal cell carcinoma

  • adenocarcinoma

Explanation

Question 26 of 100

1

Squamous cell carcinoma develops in the lung after:

Select one or more of the following:

  • acute bronchitis

  • chronic bronchitis accompanied by metaplasia

  • bronchial asthma

  • inhalaton of a foreign body

Explanation

Question 27 of 100

1

Indicate the correct microscopic features of cell atypia

Select one or more of the following:

  • polymorphism of cells and nuclei

  • low nucleus-cytoplasm index

  • typical mitoses

  • monster cells, hyperchromasia and polychromasia of nuclei

Explanation

Question 28 of 100

1

What are the characteristics of the nuclei of the malignant tumors?

Select one or more of the following:

  • polychromasia

  • normal staining pattern

  • hyperchromasia

  • increased nucleo-cytoplasmic index

Explanation

Question 29 of 100

1

Papillary carcinoma of the urinary bladder arises from:

Select one or more of the following:

  • squamous epithelium

  • transitional epithelium

  • glandular epithelium

  • smooth musculature

Explanation

Question 30 of 100

1

What is carcinoma in situ?

Select one or more of the following:

  • malignant tumor limited to the epithelium above the basal membrane

  • malignant tumor destroying the basal membrane but spreading no more than 5mm below it

  • benign tumor limited to the basal membrane

  • benign tumor of a great size compressing the surrounding tissues

Explanation

Question 31 of 100

1

What type of atypia could be seen in the benign tumors of glandular epithelium?

Select one or more of the following:

  • tissue atypia

  • cell atypia

  • both tissue and cell atypia

  • none of the above

Explanation

Question 32 of 100

1

Which staining is used for proving mucus production from gelatinous adenocarcinoma?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Congo red

  • Toluidin bleu, metachromasia is demonstrated

  • PAS reaction with amylase control

  • Van Gieson

Explanation

Question 33 of 100

1

Pericanalicular and intracanalicular are types of:

Select one or more of the following:

  • Ductal carcinoma of the breast

  • Paget's disease

  • Renal cell carcinoma

  • Fibroadenoma

Explanation

Question 34 of 100

1

Kruckenberg tumors are:

Select one or more of the following:

  • metastases from colon adenocarcinoma in the ovaries

  • metastases from pancreatic adenocarcinoma in the ovaries

  • metastases from gastric carcinoma in the ovaries

  • metastases from hepatocellular carcinoma in the ovaries

Explanation

Question 35 of 100

1

Pleomorphic adenoma could be seen mainly:

Select one or more of the following:

  • in the parotid gland

  • in the minor salivary glands

  • in the stomach

  • in the thyroid gland

Explanation

Question 36 of 100

1

Indicate the correct statements about fibroadenoma of the breast.

Select one or more of the following:

  • capsulated and lobulated tumor

  • non-capsulated malignant tumor with invasive growth

  • microscopically it has two types -- intracanalicular and pericanalicuJar

  • seen in older women

Explanation

Question 37 of 100

1

Mark the correct statements about papillary cystadenoma of the ovary:

Select one or more of the following:

  • malignant tumor

  • has cyst-like and papillary structures

  • histological characteristics include serous and mucinous types

  • it is a physiological change related to menstrual cycle

Explanation

Question 38 of 100

1

'Linitis plastica' is a gross subtype of:

Select one or more of the following:

  • gastric cancer

  • pancreatic cancer

  • breast cancer

  • uterine cancer

Explanation

Question 39 of 100

1

Grossly adenocarcinoma of the colon can be:

Select one or more of the following:

  • polypoid

  • ulcerous

  • nodular

  • all of the listed above

Explanation

Question 40 of 100

1

The terms "early cancer" and "advanced cancer" are used for:

Select one or more of the following:

  • gastric adenocarcinoma

  • adenocarcinoma of the endometrium

  • adenocarcinoma of the colon

  • breast cancer

Explanation

Question 41 of 100

1

Malignant tumors from soft tissue are called:

Select one or more of the following:

  • carcinomas

  • word for tissue origin+ suffix " —oma"

  • sarcomas

  • teratomas

Explanation

Question 42 of 100

1

Indicate the characteristics of the sarcomas.

Select one or more of the following:

  • seen in older age

  • grossly they look like "fish meat"

  • they give early hematogenic metastases

  • parenchyma and stroma are equally distributed

Explanation

Question 43 of 100

1

Mark the characteristics of the carcinomas.

Select one or more of the following:

  • seen in young people

  • they metastasize by the blood flow first

  • grossly they have granular surface

  • parenchyma and stroma are equally distributed

Explanation

Question 44 of 100

1

What kind of sarcoma could be seen in an immune deficiency?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Kaposi sarcoma

  • Ewing sarcoma

  • Rhabdomyosarcoma

  • Chondrosarcoma

Explanation

Question 45 of 100

1

Which of the following sarcomas have the worst prognosis?

Select one or more of the following:

  • liposarcoma

  • ostesarcoma

  • fibrosarcoma

  • leiomysarcoma

Explanation

Question 46 of 100

1

What staining can be used to distinguish leiomyoma uteri from fibroma?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Congo red

  • Perls

  • PAS reaction with PAS control

  • Van Gieson

Explanation

Question 47 of 100

1

Point the characteristics of the leiomyosarcoma.

Select one or more of the following:

  • polymorphism of cells and nuclei

  • hyper- and polychromasia of nuclei

  • typical mytoses

  • monster cells

Explanation

Question 48 of 100

1

What is hybernoma?

Select one or more of the following:

  • benign tumor of vascular origin

  • benign tumor originating from brown fat tissue

  • benign tumor originating from striated muscles

  • malignant tumor originating from pigment tissue

Explanation

Question 49 of 100

1

What are the signs of the atypia in a nevus?

Select one or more of the following:

  • asymmetry of the lesion, irregular borders

  • dark color, irregular color of the lesion

  • diameter less than 5mm

  • regular borders

Explanation

Question 50 of 100

1

How should a biopsy be done if there is a suspicion for the melanoma?

Select one or more of the following:

  • incision biopsy

  • punch biopsy

  • excision biopsy

  • brush biopsy

Explanation

Question 51 of 100

1

Point the most common localizations of the teratomas.

Select one or more of the following:

  • ovaries, testis

  • extremities

  • retroperitoneum

  • mediastinum

Explanation

Question 52 of 100

1

Which of the following are organoid teratomas

Select one or more of the following:

  • nephroblastoma

  • cholesteatoma

  • dermoid cyst

  • branchiogcnic cyst

Explanation

Question 53 of 100

1

Which of the following is organismoid teratoma

Select one or more of the following:

  • epidermoid cyst

  • teratocarcinoma

  • dermoid cyst

  • nefroblastoma

Explanation

Question 54 of 100

1

What is a nevus pigmentosus?

Select one or more of the following:

  • tumor-like process

  • tumor process

  • microscopically it contains mature melanocytes

  • microscopically it contains cells with signs of severe atypia and some of them contain melanin

Explanation

Question 55 of 100

1

What is a melanoma?

Select one or more of the following:

  • malignant congenital tumor

  • benign tumor composed of melanocytes

  • malignant tumor of pigment origin

  • none of the above

Explanation

Question 56 of 100

1

What is an achromatic melanoma?

Select one or more of the following:

  • benign form of melanoma

  • melanoma without melanin in the tumor cells

  • type of melanoma which can be proved with immunohistochemical tests

  • melanoma which is more differentiated

Explanation

Question 57 of 100

1

Point possible localizations of the nevus pigmentosus and melanoma.

Select one or more of the following:

  • skin

  • uvea

  • meninges

  • all of the above

Explanation

Question 58 of 100

1

Lentigo maligna, nodular, superficial, acral lentigenous are gross forms of:

Select one or more of the following:

  • melanoma

  • squamous cell carcinoma of the skin

  • basal cell carcinoma of the skin

  • nevus pigmentosus

Explanation

Question 59 of 100

1

Indicate immunohistochemical stains to prove melanoma

Select one or more of the following:

  • HMB-45

  • Ca-125

  • S-100

  • Cytokeratin

Explanation

Question 60 of 100

1

Which of the following tumors do not have a stroma

Select one or more of the following:

  • choriocarcinoma

  • seminoma

  • nephroblstoma

  • neuroblastoma

Explanation

Question 61 of 100

1

Indicate types of nevus pigmentosus:

Select one or more of the following:

  • acquired and congenital

  • junctional, compound, intradermal

  • benign and malignant nevus

  • ectodermal and endodermal nevus

Explanation

Question 62 of 100

1

Melanin is:

Select one of the following:

  • lipidogenic pigment

  • proteinogenic pigment

Explanation

Question 63 of 100

1

Where is lipofuscin deposited?

Select one of the following:

  • intracellularly

  • extracellularly

Explanation

Question 64 of 100

1

The frozen section ('gefrir') is:

Select one or more of the following:

  • rapid 'intraoperative' histological diagnosis

  • rapid cytology method

  • type of medical imaging

  • histochemical method

Explanation

Question 65 of 100

1

The term „pathognomonic change" means:

Select one or more of the following:

  • unexplained change

  • paradoxical change

  • sufficient to identify the diagnosis/lesion

  • diffuse inflammatory change

Explanation

Question 66 of 100

1

Most likely the cause of centrolobular fatty degeneration of hepatocytes is:

Select one or more of the following:

  • diabetes

  • intoxication

  • hypoxia

  • overfeeding

Explanation

Question 67 of 100

1

Hyaline — droplet degeneration has following characteristics:

Select one or more of the following:

  • extracellular

  • intracellular

  • protein accumulation

  • carbohydrate accumulation

Explanation

Question 68 of 100

1

What pigment is formed in the center of the hematoma?

Select one or more of the following:

  • hemosiderin

  • lipofuscin

  • hemomelanin

  • hematoidin

Explanation

Question 69 of 100

1

In which blood vessels are formed most frequently mixed thrombi?

Select one or more of the following:

  • large veins

  • arteries

  • capillaries

  • venules

Explanation

Question 70 of 100

1

Squamous cell carcinoma occurs most frequently in:

Select one or more of the following:

  • stomach

  • skin

  • bladder

  • larynx

Explanation

Question 71 of 100

1

Hyperemic-hemorrhagic zone occurs in:

Select one or more of the following:

  • tophi urici

  • nodular amyloidosis

  • anemic infarction

  • pneumonia

Explanation

Question 72 of 100

1

Which types of bleeding occur in the digestive system?

Select one or more of the following:

  • hemothorax

  • hemoptysis

  • melena

  • hematemesis

Explanation

Question 73 of 100

1

Which of the following cell damages are irreversible?

Select one or more of the following:

  • necrosis

  • apoptosis

  • vacuolar degeneration

  • cellular edema

Explanation

Question 74 of 100

1

Left ventricular hypertrophy can develop in:

Select one or more of the following:

  • cor pulmonale

  • systemic hypertension

  • mitral stenosis

  • aortic stenosis

Explanation

Question 75 of 100

1

Cancer cells which show no resemblance to the tissue from which the tun originates are called:

Select one or more of the following:

  • undifferentiated carcinoma

  • well-differentiated carcinoma

  • scirrhous type carcinoma

  • histioid cancer

Explanation

Question 76 of 100

1

Which of the following is correct for the mechanical jaundice?

Select one or more of the following:

  • indirect bilirubin prevails in blood

  • elevated urine urobilinogen

  • elevated urine bilirubin

  • stools are hyperpigmented

Explanation

Question 77 of 100

1

Basal cell carcinoma is localized most frequently on:

Select one or more of the following:

  • the skin of the forearm

  • the skin of the lower limbs

  • the skin on the palms

  • skin of the face

Explanation

Question 78 of 100

1

Caseous necrosis is characteristic for:

Select one or more of the following:

  • specific inflammation

  • tuberculosis

  • enzyme fat necrosis

  • chronic pyelonephritis

Explanation

Question 79 of 100

1

Bilaterally, on the skin of the eyelids of a young woman are seen yellow nodules with the size of a grain of rice. What is it?

Select one or more of the following:

  • xanthelasmas

  • nevus

  • efelides

  • hemosiderin deposition

Explanation

Question 80 of 100

1

Which of the following are protein accumulations?

Select one or more of the following:

  • in the epithelial cells of renal tubules

  • russel bodies

  • bodies of Mallory

  • asteroid cells

Explanation

Question 81 of 100

1

Hemorrhagic infarction develops in:

Select one or more of the following:

  • organs with end type arteries (end type blood supply)

  • blockage of arterioles

  • previous venous stasis

  • organs with double blood supply

Explanation

Question 82 of 100

1

How do we call the local depigmentation of the skin?

Select one or more of the following:

  • vitiligo

  • hemosiderosis

  • albinism

  • ohronosis

Explanation

Question 83 of 100

1

What kinds of techniques are used for the detection of the lipids:

Select one or more of the following:

  • freezing microtome

  • paraffin method

  • alcohol fixation

  • staining with Sudan Ill

Explanation

Question 84 of 100

1

The sequence of local structural changes in a disease is called

Select one or more of the following:

  • sanogenesis

  • pathogenesis

  • tanatogenesis

  • morphogenesis

Explanation

Question 85 of 100

1

" Tiger Heart " is diagnosed when:

Select one or more of the following:

  • subepicardial fat is increased

  • yellowish lines in the papillary muscles are seen

  • the interventricular septum is injured

  • infarcted area of the left ventricle in seen

Explanation

Question 86 of 100

1

Which of the following is correct for the mechanical jaundice:

Select one or more of the following:

  • it is parenchymal jaundice

  • there is posthepatic occlusion

  • direct bilirubin is increased

  • it is also called hemolytic jaundice

Explanation

Question 87 of 100

1

The risks involved in fast draining of large quantities of acistes are:

Select one or more of the following:

  • development of low oncotic pressure edema

  • bleeding into the abdominal cavity

  • massive arterial hyperemia in the abdominal vessels

  • hemodynamic collapse

Explanation

Question 88 of 100

1

"Mutilation" means :

Select one or more of the following:

  • form of biological mutation

  • pendulum movement of the blood

  • zonal hair loss

  • self amputation of phalanges

Explanation

Question 89 of 100

1

It is true that :

Select one or more of the following:

  • concentric hypertrophy is also called tonogenic

  • eccentric hypertrophy is myogenic

  • hypertrophy can be combined with hyperplasia

  • false type of hypertrophy is hyperplasia

Explanation

Question 90 of 100

1

Sources of fat embolism in the lung are

Select one or more of the following:

  • the bone marrow in the long bones

  • subcutaneous fat

  • liver with fatty degeneration

  • ulcerated atherosclerotic plaque of the aorta

Explanation

Question 91 of 100

1

Which of these factors lead to nutmeg liver?

Select one or more of the following:

  • short venous stasis

  • arterial hyperemia

  • chronic venous congestion

  • mitral stenosis

Explanation

Question 92 of 100

1

In the bronchi and nasal cavity may develop squamous cell carcinoma based on:

Select one or more of the following:

  • hypoplasia

  • histological accommodation

  • anaplasia

  • metaplasia

Explanation

Question 93 of 100

1

Amyloid demonstates following characteristics:

Select one or more of the following:

  • identified with Tioflavin S in fluorescence

  • shows metachromasia with Perls

  • identified with Congo rot in polarized light

  • ultrastructurally has fibrillary structure

Explanation

Question 94 of 100

1

Anaphylactic shock occurs in:

Select one or more of the following:

  • hypersensitivity reactions cytotoxic type

  • response induced by immune complexes

  • atopic reactions

  • delayed type hypersensitivity

Explanation

Question 95 of 100

1

A basal cell carcinoma is localized most frequently on:

Select one or more of the following:

  • the skin of the forearm

  • the skin of the lower limbs

  • the skin on the palms

  • the skin of the face

Explanation

Question 96 of 100

1

Reaction for Prussian blue is used for:

Select one or more of the following:

  • tattoos

  • proof of bilirubin

  • proof of hemosiderin

  • in hemochromatosis

Explanation

Question 97 of 100

1

How could an air embolism be proved:

Select one or more of the following:

  • in the presence of witnesses

  • autopsy in a bathtub

  • puncturing the right ventricle

  • puncturing of the left ventricle

Explanation

Question 98 of 100

1

Which enzymes are involved in a melanogenesis?

Select one or more of the following:

  • hyaluronidase

  • tvrosinase

  • dopa oxidase

  • lipase

Explanation

Question 99 of 100

1

Infarctions of which organs could often lead to the death of the patient?

Select one or more of the following:

  • renal infarction

  • infarction of the spleen

  • infarction of heart

  • cerebral infarction

Explanation

Question 100 of 100

1

In cancers with epithelial origin:

Select one or more of the following:

  • cells are arranged in sheets, nests or cords

  • resemble 'fish meat'

  • metastasize primarily by blood

  • cells show atypia

Explanation