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B2w051 - V2Set1

Question 1 of 100

1

When we look at the most common electric tools you use in the munitions storage area, when using a drill, what is the first thing you do?

Select one of the following:

  • Make sure the diameter of the hole to be drilled is within the capacity of the drill

  • Connect the drill to the power source

  • Put on your safety goggles

  • Insert the chuck key

Explanation

Question 2 of 100

1

Which article(s) of safety gear must be worn when using a bench grinder?

Select one of the following:

  • Apron

  • Gloves

  • Eye or face protection

  • Eye protection and gloves

Explanation

Question 3 of 100

1

Which diameter (in inches) electric saw blade is the most common found in maintenance activities?

Select one of the following:

  • 6

  • 8

  • 10

  • 12

Explanation

Question 4 of 100

1

An electric saw's blade must be operating at what speed before it contacts the material being cut?

Select one of the following:

  • Full

  • Slow

  • Moderate

  • Accelerated

Explanation

Question 5 of 100

1

Which pneumatic impact tool is designed to install or remove nuts and bolts?

Select one of the following:

  • Hammer

  • Wrench

  • Socket

  • Drill

Explanation

Question 6 of 100

1

At what variation in pounds of pressure, while using an impact wrench, can the excess pressure become serious?

Select one of the following:

  • 20

  • 15

  • 10

  • 5

Explanation

Question 7 of 100

1

When operating mechanical lifting devices, safety is a function of operating technique, maintenance, management, and

Select one of the following:

  • sound operational practices

  • not so common “common sense"

  • good hand and eye coordination

  • sound mechanical knowledge of the device

Explanation

Question 8 of 100

1

What is worn if there is a potential for injury from falling objects?

Select one of the following:

  • Gloves

  • Face shield

  • Safety goggles

  • Protective helmets

Explanation

Question 9 of 100

1

What is the most common type of sling used in your everyday job?

Select one of the following:

  • Chain assembly

  • Web strapping

  • Metal mesh

  • Wire rope.

Explanation

Question 10 of 100

1

Hoist hooks must be replaced when they have more than

Select one of the following:

  • 5 percent in excess of normal throat opening or more than 15 degrees twist from the plane

  • 10 percent in excess of normal throat opening or more than 15 degrees twist from the plane

  • 15 percent in excess of normal throat opening or more than 10 degrees twist from the plane

  • 20 percent in excess of normal throat opening or more than 10 degrees twist from the plane

Explanation

Question 11 of 100

1

The following are all good safety practices to consider when using a sling except

Select one of the following:

  • standing clear of the attached load

  • keeping the sling well lubricated in order to prevent corrosion

  • keeping your hands and fingers from between the sling and the load

  • inspecting the sling by passing your bare hand over the body of the sling

Explanation

Question 12 of 100

1

Which meter is a four-wire Kelvin digital ohmmeter used for testing AIM–9 and the AIM–120 missile system?

Select one of the following:

  • 101–5BFG

  • AN/PSM–6

  • AMTEC 620.

  • Galvanometer

Explanation

Question 13 of 100

1

The maximum load capacity of the MHU–141/M trailer is

Select one of the following:

  • 1,500 pounds

  • 3,000 pounds

  • 5,500 pounds

  • 5,700 pounds

Explanation

Question 14 of 100

1

The steering system on the MHU–141/M trailer has a turning radius of how many inches?

Select one of the following:

  • 100

  • 200

  • 400

  • 550

Explanation

Question 15 of 100

1

When the MHU–141 trailer is loaded or towed with the hinged deck open, what must be done?

Select one of the following:

  • The two deck-panel supports must be properly positioned and locked in place with quick-release pins

  • The two deck-panel supports must be properly positioned and locked in place with bolts and self-locking nuts

  • The two deck-panel supports remain in the stowed position with quick-release pins

  • The trailer cannot be towed with the deck panels opened.

Explanation

Question 16 of 100

1

The MHU–141/M trailer parking brake is classified as

Select one of the following:

  • electrical

  • hydraulic

  • mechanical

  • automatic surge

Explanation

Question 17 of 100

1

What is the maximum load capacity of the MHU–110/M trailer?

Select one of the following:

  • 5,000 pounds

  • 5,500 pounds

  • 15,000 pounds

  • 15,500 pounds

Explanation

Question 18 of 100

1

The parking brakes on the MHU–110/M trailer are applied to which wheels?

Select one of the following:

  • Four inboard rear.

  • Two onboard rear

  • Rear two outboard rear

  • Front two outboard rear

Explanation

Question 19 of 100

1

How many trolley and chock assemblies are supplied with the MHU–110/M respectively?

Select one of the following:

  • 10 and 20

  • 20 and 40

  • 20 and 10

  • 40 and 20

Explanation

Question 20 of 100

1

What is the maximum load capacity of the MHU–226 trailer?

Select one of the following:

  • 6,000 pounds

  • 9,000 pounds.

  • 12,000 pounds

  • 15,000 pounds

Explanation

Question 21 of 100

1

How many openings are on the deck of the MHU–226 trailer?

Select one of the following:

  • One

  • Two

  • Three

  • Four

Explanation

Question 22 of 100

1

What type of steering aids the MHU–226 in a tighter steering radius?

Select one of the following:

  • Rack and pinion

  • Automotive type.

  • Recirculating ball

  • Double Ackerman

Explanation

Question 23 of 100

1

What ensures the HCU–6/E pallets transfer smoothly from a rollerized trailer to an aircraft/K-loader?

Select one of the following:

  • A winch

  • The use of J-bars

  • An adjustable ramp

  • The speed the pallet is moved

Explanation

Question 24 of 100

1

After HCU–6/E pallets are positioned on a rollerized trailer, what can you use to secure the pallets to the trailer?

Select one of the following:

  • Tie-down straps only

  • Tie-down cables only

  • Nails or wood bracing

  • MB–1 chain assemblies or tie-down straps

Explanation

Question 25 of 100

1

Moving munitions and weapons from one base to another, depot to base, or base to depot is called what kind of movement?

Select one of the following:

  • An off-base

  • A logistical

  • An interbase

  • An operational.

Explanation

Question 26 of 100

1

What kind of movement supports on-base operations to or from the flight line?

Select one of the following:

  • On-base.

  • Intrabase

  • Operational

  • Logistical

Explanation

Question 27 of 100

1

All of these are loaded into transport modules except?

Select one of the following:

  • BDU–33

  • MK 106

  • ALE–50

  • 20 MM

Explanation

Question 28 of 100

1

What transport module has a maximum capacity of 30 magazines?

Select one of the following:

  • BDU–33.

  • ALE–40

  • ALE–50

  • 20 MM

Explanation

Question 29 of 100

1

How often should the positive locking devices on a transport module be checked?

Select one of the following:

  • After loading, unloading, and periodically between stops.

  • After loading and periodically between stops

  • At the beginning of each day

  • After unloading is complete

Explanation

Question 30 of 100

1

Which lift truck has a manually extendible wheelbase?

Select one of the following:

  • 6,000-pound all-terrain forklift.

  • MHU–83-series bomb-lift truck

  • MJ–1-series aerial stores lift truck

  • 6,000-pound rough-terrain forklift

Explanation

Question 31 of 100

1

The purpose of the transport beam beneath the lift arm assemblies on the MJ–1-series lift truck is to

Select one of the following:

  • provide added support and to relieve excess hydraulic pressure from the lift arms in carrying loads for long distances

  • provide added support and to relieve excess hydraulic pressure from the lift boom in carrying loads for long distances

  • relieve excess hydraulic pressure from the lift boom when the lift truck is parked

  • relieve excess hydraulic pressure from the lift arms when the lift truck is parked

Explanation

Question 32 of 100

1

How many pounds max can the MJ–1 lift?

Select one of the following:

  • 3,000

  • 3,500

  • 6,000

  • 6,500

Explanation

Question 33 of 100

1

What is the lifting capacity of the MHU–83-series lift truck?

Select one of the following:

  • 3,000 pounds

  • 3,500 pounds

  • 6,000 pounds

  • 7,000 pounds

Explanation

Question 34 of 100

1

When using the MHU–83B with fork adapters, you immediately

Select one of the following:

  • reduce its lifting capacity by 800 pounds.

  • increase its lifting capacity by 800 pounds

  • reduce its lifting capability by 1,000 pounds

  • increase its lifting capability by 1,000 pounds

Explanation

Question 35 of 100

1

What happens when you release the accelerator pedal on a vehicle driven with a hydrostatic transmission?

Select one of the following:

  • The lift truck stops immediately

  • The unit rolls until its inertia is spent

  • The unit coasts to a stop very quickly

  • The transmission automatically drops to a lower gear, stopping forward motion.

Explanation

Question 36 of 100

1

How many cubic feet is the rated capacity of air per minute needed for the MC–7 air compressor to discharge 100 psi of pressure?

Select one of the following:

  • 50

  • 75

  • 100

  • 125

Explanation

Question 37 of 100

1

What is the MC–7 air compressor designed for?

Select one of the following:

  • Vehicle maintenance

  • General maintenance

  • Aircraft servicing.

  • Paint sprayers

Explanation

Question 38 of 100

1

The diesel model of the MC–7 air compressor is capable of operating up to how many hours at a time without refueling?

Select one of the following:

  • 4

  • 6

  • 8

  • 10

Explanation

Question 39 of 100

1

The maximum tow capacity of the bobtail towing support equipment is how many pounds?

Select one of the following:

  • 20,000

  • 30,000

  • 40,000

  • 50,000

Explanation

Question 40 of 100

1

The maximum towing speed of the bobtail while towing equipment is

Select one of the following:

  • 10 mph

  • 15 mph

  • 20 mph

  • 25 mph

Explanation

Question 41 of 100

1

What is the purpose behind good operator maintenance of all assigned vehicles?

Select one of the following:

  • Mission readiness

  • Reduce maintenance costs

  • Maintain vehicle serviceability at reduced cost

  • Make sure vehicles are serviceable and in good condition

Explanation

Question 42 of 100

1

How many pounds maximum can the MB–4 aircraft towing tractor tow and push?

Select one of the following:

  • 120,000

  • 130,000

  • 140,000.

  • 150,000

Explanation

Question 43 of 100

1

What should you do if the differential shift lever of the MB–4 aircraft towing tractor is difficult to shift?

Select one of the following:

  • Pump the clutch several times and attempt to shift the lever

  • Drive forward or backward a short distance, stop the tractor, and attempt to shift the lever

  • Shift the transmission through all of the gears including reverse, and then attempt to shift the lever.

  • Shift the transmission back and forth between forward and reverse gears, then attempt to shift the lever

Explanation

Question 44 of 100

1

Which position should the differential shift lever be in while driving the MB–4 towing tractor on dry road surfaces?

Select one of the following:

  • Unlocked

  • Locked

  • Neutral

  • Drive

Explanation

Question 45 of 100

1

Pintle safety pins must remain attached to the pintle assembly

Select one of the following:

  • to prevent the possibility of foreign object damage.

  • to ensure it is available when needed

  • to prevent the pintle from unlocking

  • by a chain only.

Explanation

Question 46 of 100

1

What range should be selected in a tractor with an automatic transmission while going down grades?

Select one of the following:

  • Neutral

  • Low range

  • High range

  • Any range is acceptable

Explanation

Question 47 of 100

1

What is the purpose of the trailer hand valve (Johnson bar)?

Select one of the following:

  • Test the trailer brakes

  • Slow the tractor on wet pavement

  • Slow the tractor to prevent skidding

  • Straighten the trailer in a jackknife skid

Explanation

Question 48 of 100

1

Straighten the trailer in a jackknife skid

Select one of the following:

  • Use a spotter

  • Use mirrors on both sides

  • Turn toward the driver’s side

  • Turn toward the passenger’s side

Explanation

Question 49 of 100

1

What is the maximum depth of water you may drive a rough-terrain forklift through?

Select one of the following:

  • Three feet

  • Four feet

  • Five feet

  • Six feet

Explanation

Question 50 of 100

1

Which forklift has the solid front axle and a pivot pin that allows the front end to pivot when turning the steering wheel, making it very dangerous when climbing in or out?

Select one of the following:

  • Adverse-terrain

  • Variable-reach

  • Rough-terrain

  • Swingmast

Explanation

Question 51 of 100

1

What is the maximum speed limit of a forklift when operating around aircraft?

Select one of the following:

  • 5 mph.

  • 10 mph.

  • 15 mph.

  • 20 mph.

Explanation

Question 52 of 100

1

When are unfuzed loaded weapons transported on the tines of a forklift?

Select one of the following:

  • Never, this is an example of a safety violation.

  • When mission accomplishment is at risk and permission of the squadron commander is given in writing.

  • When the weapons body is strong enough to prevent damage and is long enough to be transported safely

  • Only when no other transport vehicle is available and the weapons are securely fastened to the forklift tines

Explanation

Question 53 of 100

1

When can you store powered equipment in a building with explosives?

Select one of the following:

  • Never, this violates storage regulations

  • Only when such equipment is essential to day-to-day operations

  • Anytime, as long as the equipment is kept 10 feet from combustible material

  • Only when stored in fire-resistive buildings and such equipment is essential to day-to-day operations

Explanation

Question 54 of 100

1

Which weapons replaceable assembly has no moving parts?

Select one of the following:

  • Conveyor

  • Transfer unit

  • Trailer chassis

  • Storage container

Explanation

Question 55 of 100

1

Which weapons replaceable assembly receives ammunition from three bays of the container assembly and merges them into a single stream?

Select one of the following:

  • Conveyor

  • Transfer unit

  • Storage container

  • Ammunition drum

Explanation

Question 56 of 100

1

Which component of the conveyor assembly transfers rounds into the aircraft gun feed system?

Select one of the following:

  • Transfer unit assembly

  • Conveyor belt assembly

  • Storage container assembly

  • Universal aircraft interface unit

Explanation

Question 57 of 100

1

What is the maximum number of rounds the universal ammunition loading system (UALS) drum can hold?

Select one of the following:

  • 2,000

  • 2,100

  • 2,200

  • 2,400

Explanation

Question 58 of 100

1

Which subassembly of the universal ammunition loading system (UALS) provides the means to load live rounds into the aircraft gun system?

Select one of the following:

  • Inner drum.

  • Outer drum

  • Interface unit

  • Ammunition conveyor

Explanation

Question 59 of 100

1

Which of the following is not counted by the three counters on the interface unit of the universal ammunition loading system (UALS) record during load/download operations?

Select one of the following:

  • Live rounds loaded.

  • Spent cases downloaded

  • Cleared rounds downloaded

  • Damaged rounds downloaded.

Explanation

Question 60 of 100

1

Which weapons replaceable assembly consists of the flex drive assembly?

Select one of the following:

  • Conveyor

  • Transfer unit

  • Storage container

  • Ammunition drum.

Explanation

Question 61 of 100

1

The bypass mode of the universal ammunition loading system (UALS) allows the gun to cycle

Select one of the following:

  • manually

  • without using the counter

  • without using the interface unit

  • without loading or downloading ammunitions or links

Explanation

Question 62 of 100

1

What is the inspection cycle for the universal ammunition loading system (UALS) replenisher?

Select one of the following:

  • Every 30 days when in use and annually when in storage

  • Every 45 days when in use and annually when in storage

  • Every 60 days when in use and annually when in storage

  • Every 90 days when in use and annually when in storage

Explanation

Question 63 of 100

1

Which subassembly on the universal ammunition loading system (UALS) replenisher prevents accidentally loading a spent cartridge into the loader assembly?

Select one of the following:

  • Drive assembly

  • Delinker loader unit

  • Empty space preclusion device

  • Rigid ammunition chute assembly

Explanation

Question 64 of 100

1

What tool can initiate cycling ammunition through the universal ammunition loading system (UALS) replenisher manually?

Select one of the following:

  • ¼-inch speed wrench

  • ½-inch speed wrench

  • ¼-inch ratchet and socket

  • ½-inch ratchet and socket

Explanation

Question 65 of 100

1

What happens to the unfired rounds returning from the loader when the linked ammunition is being processed?

Select one of the following:

  • Manually separated and counted for the next upload

  • Automatically counted and then uploaded back into the loader.

  • Manually downloaded through the second gate in the bottom of the replenisher

  • Automatically downloaded through the second gate in the bottom of the replenisher

Explanation

Question 66 of 100

1

Which 30 millimeter (mm) cannon is internally mounted in the A–10 aircraft?

Select one of the following:

  • M39

  • M61

  • GAU–8/A

  • GPU–5/A

Explanation

Question 67 of 100

1

During in-shop maintenance, 30 mm ammunition loading assembly power comes from the

Select one of the following:

  • GFU–7/E

  • GFU–8/E

  • GPU–5/A.

  • GAU–8/A

Explanation

Question 68 of 100

1

Which 30 mm ammunition loading system is used to service the GPU–5/A gun pod?

Select one of the following:

  • GFU–7/E

  • GFU–8/E

  • GFU–10/E

  • GFU–11/E

Explanation

Question 69 of 100

1

Which component of the A/E32K–3 munitions assembly conveyor (MAC) can be used as a forklift adapter to raise the gantry to full height?

Select one of the following:

  • Gantry

  • Rail conveyor

  • Pneumatic hoist

  • Interface control board (ICB)

Explanation

Question 70 of 100

1

The triple bomb bar is fitted with bomb slings and is used with each hoist to provide for lifting

Select one of the following:

  • three 500-pound munitions at a time or two 2,000-pound munitions items

  • three 500-pound munitions at a time or one 2,000-pound munitions item

  • two 500-pound munitions at a time or two 2,000-pound munitions items. d. two

  • two 500-pound munitions at a time or one 2,000-pound munitions item.

Explanation

Question 71 of 100

1

How many feet minimum is the area required to assemble the A/E32K–3?

Select one of the following:

  • 50 × 100.

  • 75 × 150

  • 100 × 200

  • 100 × 500.

Explanation

Question 72 of 100

1

Why is it important to monitor net explosive weight (NEW) during a bomb buildup operation?

Select one of the following:

  • Excessive NEW at your location probably means a shortage at other sites.

  • Excessive NEW at your location means you may run out of operating room.

  • If ignited, excessive NEW may cause propagation of an explosive from one location to another.

  • Excessive NEW means the breakout crew has to work harder just to keep up with the flow of munitions.

Explanation

Question 73 of 100

1

Which component of the munitions assembly conveyor (MAC) is disassembled last?

Select one of the following:

  • Gantry

  • Conveyor

  • Arming wire dispenser

  • Interface control board

Explanation

Question 74 of 100

1

What does not apply to munitions and explosives in the transportation mode?

Select one of the following:

  • Tie-down criteria

  • Placarding requirements

  • Compatibility requirements

  • Quantity distance (QD) criteria

Explanation

Question 75 of 100

1

Generally, transportation of munitions and explosives on an Air Force installation is subject to the criteria in

Select one of the following:

  • 11A–1–63

  • Title 49 CFR

  • TO 11A–1–10

  • AFMAN 91–201

Explanation

Question 76 of 100

1

When is it permissible to transport explosives in privately owned vehicles (POV)?

Select one of the following:

  • Never

  • During contingency operations

  • Must have written approval from squadron commander

  • Movements beginning and ending within the confines of a military base or installation

Explanation

Question 77 of 100

1

When is it permissible to leave explosives-laden vehicles unattended?

Select one of the following:

  • Never.

  • During shift change

  • During electrical storms

  • During contingency operations

Explanation

Question 78 of 100

1

What is the philosophy when designing explosive movement routes?

Select one of the following:

  • Designate the most concealed possible primary and alternate explosives routes.

  • Designate the securest possible primary and alternate explosives routes

  • Designate the fastest possible primary and alternate explosives routes

  • Designate the safest possible primary and alternate explosives routes

Explanation

Question 79 of 100

1

The purpose of placarding explosives-laden vehicles is to provide

Select one of the following:

  • a general warning to all personnel and to furnish specific fire-fighting guidance

  • withdrawal distances to all personnel and to furnish specific fire-fighting guidance

  • vehicle identification to all personnel and to furnish specific fire-fighting guidance

  • explosives identification to all personnel and to furnish specific fire-fighting guidance

Explanation

Question 80 of 100

1

What may be omitted from munitions and explosives transported on base?

Select one of the following:

  • Compatibility group letters

  • Placards for transporting HD 1.4 material

  • Placards where necessary to avoid attention of hostile forces

  • All of the above

Explanation

Question 81 of 100

1

While using TO 11–1–38, if a conflict occurs between the illustrations and the written procedures, which takes precedence?

Select one of the following:

  • Use either one.

  • The illustrations

  • The written procedures

  • Consult your shop chief

Explanation

Question 82 of 100

1

What type of information is given in the general notes on the first card of each trailer and weapon-type section in TO 11–1–38 and is required to be reviewed?

Select one of the following:

  • Illustrations for each trailer configuration

  • Equipment and quantity required for each trailer

  • Equipment and quantity required for each trailer and weapon.

  • WARNINGS, CAUTIONS, and NOTES pertaining to each trailer and weapon

Explanation

Question 83 of 100

1

If you cannot close the load-binder handle by hand,

Select one of the following:

  • use a cheater bar to close the handle

  • use an extension to secure the handle

  • adjust the load-binder hooks on the chain

  • replace the defective load binder with one that works

Explanation

Question 84 of 100

1

What chapter of TO 11–1–38 covers configuration of the MHU–141/M trailer?

Select one of the following:

  • One

  • Two

  • Three

  • Four

Explanation

Question 85 of 100

1

What piece of equipment must be used with the MHU–110/M to prevent the trailer from becoming unstable while loading or unloading?

Select one of the following:

  • M10 adapter

  • Wheel chocks

  • Rail extenders

  • Stabilizer jack

Explanation

Question 86 of 100

1

Which are constructed and attached to the bed of a 40-foot trailer to facilitate support of rounded munitions?

Select one of the following:

  • Chocks

  • Wooden rails

  • Conveyor belt

  • Pneumatic hoist

Explanation

Question 87 of 100

1

What provides an itemized list of all equipment authorized for use with nuclear weapons?

Select one of the following:

  • Master nuclear certification list.

  • TO 00–35D–54.

  • TO 11A–1–10

  • TO 11A–1–63

Explanation

Question 88 of 100

1

How are items identified as being nuclear certified?

Select one of the following:

  • A certified item will be stamped “Nuclear certified"

  • A certified item will be stenciled “Nuclear certified.”

  • Positive identification by a stamp, stencil, or etching

  • Positive identification by a nameplate, label, appropriate markings, or by official documents.

Explanation

Question 89 of 100

1

Which statement about pintle hooks and their use in operations with nuclear weapons is not correct?

Select one of the following:

  • Original equipment pintle hook assemblies are not authorized.

  • Off-center rear of vehicle pintle hooks shall not be used for nuclear operations

  • Replacements are authorized if procured and installed per appropriate technical orders.

  • Front mounted pintle hooks are only authorized for local positioning tasks such as inner warehousing.

Explanation

Question 90 of 100

1

Which equipment does not require nuclear safety certification before being used in operations with nuclear weapons?

Select one of the following:

  • Combat delivery vehicles

  • General-purpose hand tools

  • Noncombat delivery vehicles

  • Equipment used to transport nuclear weapons

Explanation

Question 91 of 100

1

Which action is not an authorized method for securing loose chain assembly ends?

Select one of the following:

  • Wrap the loose ends around the tie-down device; tape to the device.

  • Loop the excess chain around the chain assembly; secure with duct tape.

  • Coil the excess chain around itself; secure with pressure-sensitive adhesive tape.

  • Wrap the loose ends around the container tie-down point; secure with a cable tie.

Explanation

Question 92 of 100

1

After final tightening of the cable-type load binder, verify

Select one of the following:

  • the cable deflection is less than ¾ inch using hand pressure only

  • threads (more than one) are exposed inside the turnbuckle

  • the wing nuts are close to but not touching the turnbuckle

  • the clevis is centered on the tie-down point.

Explanation

Question 93 of 100

1

How many CGU–1/B straps are you authorized to use for one MB–1 tie-down assembly?

Select one of the following:

  • One

  • Two

  • Three

  • Four

Explanation

Question 94 of 100

1

How do you extend the CGU–1/B strap?

Select one of the following:

  • Close the tensioning mechanism; pull the strap

  • Release the adjusting mechanism; pull the strap.

  • Engage the release mechanism; the strap automatically releases

  • Disengage the spindle mechanism; the strap automatically releases

Explanation

Question 95 of 100

1

The key factors to consider during a nuclear weapons movement are

Select one of the following:

  • time and money

  • safety and security

  • people and equipment

  • people and the mode of transportation

Explanation

Question 96 of 100

1

Which term describes the type of area used during a delay of an off-base shipment involving nuclear weapons?

Select one of the following:

  • Secure area

  • No-lone zone

  • Close-in security

  • National defense

Explanation

Question 97 of 100

1

How often are couriers certified?

Select one of the following:

  • Every six months

  • Every two years

  • Every five years

  • Annually

Explanation

Question 98 of 100

1

What AF IMT form is used to transfer custody of missile warheads?

Select one of the following:

  • AF IMT 505

  • AF IMT 514

  • AF IMT 1348–1

  • AF IMT 2009–1

Explanation

Question 99 of 100

1

When are nuclear weapons moved by convoy?

Select one of the following:

  • When on base or within the confines of a military installation only.

  • When off base and traveling over state highways only.

  • Only when more than one vehicle is involved.

  • Every time weapons are moved.

Explanation

Question 100 of 100

1

What is the most difficult job for escort guards during a convoy?

Select one of the following:

  • Keeping other vehicles from entering the convoy

  • Maintaining the proper speed required in a convoy

  • Keeping the proper distance from the security forces

  • Identifying the correct checkpoints along the convoy route

Explanation