curfman.melissa
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SAM neurology Practice Questions. These are student written questions and need to be used as such. Do not assume all answers are correct or that all questions are relevant for the exam.

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curfman.melissa
Created by curfman.melissa about 9 years ago
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SAM I Neurology Practice Questions

Question 1 of 27

1

Which of the following statements about fibrocartilaginous emboli is INCORRECT?

Select one of the following:

  • Clinical signs develop slowly over days to weeks

  • FCE mostly occurs in large breed dogs and rarely in cats

  • The condition is usually non-painful

  • Diagnosis is by exclusion of other possible causes of clinical signs

  • Surgery is of no benefit and only supportive medical therapy is indicated

Explanation

Question 2 of 27

1

Which of the following not a sign that the UMN is involved in a lesion?

Select one of the following:

  • Paralysis

  • Hyporeflexia or areflexia

  • Normal or hyperreflexia

  • Normal to increased muscle tone

  • Minimal muscle atrophy

Explanation

Question 3 of 27

1

Which of the following is not associated with a LMN lesion?

Select one of the following:

  • Potential paralysis/paresis

  • Increased muscle tone

  • Hyporeflexia or Areflexia

  • Potentially severe muscle atrophy

  • Markedly dilated bladder

Explanation

Question 4 of 27

1

A dog comes in with paralysis of all four limbs, which part of the neurological exam may be excluded?

Select one of the following:

  • Extensor carpi radialis flexor withdrawal reflex may be excluded due to the paralysis

  • Cranial tibial flexor withdrawal reflex may be excluded due to the paralysis

  • Perineal Reflex may be excluded due to the complete paralysis

  • Postural reactions may be excluded

  • None, all parts of the neurological exam must be performed for a full assessement

Explanation

Question 5 of 27

1

A lesion at C6-T2 would show which of the following?

Select one of the following:

  • LMN signs in one or both of the forelimbs and UMN signs in the hindlimbs and bladder

  • Normal innervation signs of both the upper and lower limbs

  • Normal innervation of forelimbs with UMN signs seen caudal to T2

  • LMN signs of all four limbs

  • UMN signs of all four limbs

Explanation

Question 6 of 27

1

A lesion between C1 and C5 would show which of the following?

Select one of the following:

  • Upper signs in all four limbs

  • Normal forelimbs and UMN signs in hindlimbs

  • Normal forelimbs and LMN signs in hindlimbs

  • LMN signs in forelimbs and UMN signs in hindlimbs

  • No abnormal UMN or LMN signs in any limbs

Explanation

Question 7 of 27

1

Which of the following is INCORRECT?

Select one of the following:

  • Peripheral nerve injury of one limb quickly resolves with no signs of previous injury.

  • Decreased reflexes of the affected limb are seen with peripheral nerve injury.

  • Glucocorticoids can be given to decrease inflammation at sight of injury

  • Amputation of a limb affected by peripheral nerve damage may still be the end result even with diligent owners.

  • LMN signs of affected limb are seen with peripheral nerve injuries

Explanation

Question 8 of 27

1

Which of the following is INCORRECT with regards to brachial plexus avulsion?

Select one of the following:

  • Brachial plexus avulsion can occur spontaneously without any history indicating a potential cause

  • Brachial plexus avulsion can include any or all nerve roots between C6 and T2 and may also involve the dorsal roots

  • Damage to nerve roots C8 and T1 leads to denervation of the extensors and flexors of the elbow and carpus

  • C6 and C7 damage leads to denervation of the extensors and flexors of the shoulder

  • Brachial plexus avulsion can result in Horner's syndrome.

Explanation

Question 9 of 27

1

Neuropraxia is defined as...?

Select one of the following:

  • A full degeneration of nerves with remnants of the myelin sheath remaining

  • A condition due to a loss of blood supply, pressure from the weight of an animal during anesthesia or a tourniquet.

  • Degeneration of axons but endoneurium and Schwann cells remain intact which allows axon regeneration at 1mm/day and return to function

  • Complete severance of a nerve and degeneration of the distal portion of Schwann cells

Explanation

Question 10 of 27

1

Which of the following is INCORRECT with regards to nerve root/peripheral nerve neoplasia?

Select one of the following:

  • A history of slowly progressive monoparesis with "root signs" is highly suggestive of neoplasia

  • Nerve sheath tumors can occur in any spinal or cranial nerve

  • Nerve sheath tumors only occur in the caudal cervical area and are associated with the brachial plexus

  • Advanced diagnostic techniques can be used to identify the site of the tumor but a definitive diagnosis is made using histopathology of samples collected during surgery.

  • Although surgical removal is the best available treatment for all tumors it can result in further loss of function.

Explanation

Question 11 of 27

1

Which of the following are CORRECT in regards to Fibrocartilaginous emboli (FCE)?

Select one of the following:

  • There are a variety of possible emboli including fat, septic-type, thrombi in cats with HCM etc although fibrocartilaginous emboli are the most common cause of spinal cord injuries.

  • The condition is uncommon in large breed dogs with Miniature Schnauzers being the most affected breed

  • FCEs are only seen as a congenital defect in the very young

  • FCEs are extremely painful to the patient and sedation may be necessary

  • The condition is rare in cats where it occurs in the C6-T2 region and associated with exercise.

Explanation

Question 12 of 27

1

Which of the following shows the steps to a neural evaluation in the correct order?

Select one of the following:

  • Observation of posture and gait, Palpation of muscular skeletal system, Evaluation of sensation, Evaluation of cranial nerves, Evaluation of spinal nerves, Evaluation of postural reactions

  • Observation of mental status, Palpation of muscular skeletal system, Evaluation of postural reactions, Evaluation of cranial nerves, Evaluation of spinal nerves, Evaluation of sensation

  • Observation of mental status, Palpation of muscular skeletal system, Evaluation of cranial nerves, Evaluation of postural reactions, Evaluation of spinal nerves, Evaluation of sensation

  • Observation of posture and gait, Palpation of muscular skeletal system, Evaluation of sensation, Evaluation of postural reactions, Evaluation of cranial nerves, Evaluation of spinal nerves

Explanation

Question 13 of 27

1

Evaluation of mental status based lesion of the thalamocortex is best obtained from:

Select one of the following:

  • Patient/Client History

  • Patient Physical exam

  • Patient Neural exam

  • Research and experimental information

Explanation

Question 14 of 27

1

Which of the following is mismatched?

Select one of the following:

  • Perineal Reflex : Perineal nerve

  • Patellar Reflex : Femoral nerve

  • Cranial Tibial Reflex : Sciatic nerve

  • Flexor Withdrawal Reflex : Femoral and Sciatic nerves

  • Flexor Withdrawal Reflex : Musculocutaneous, Median, and Ulnar nerves

Explanation

Question 15 of 27

1

What is the other spinal reflex that is usually tested for that was not named in the previous question?

Select one of the following:

  • Brachialis reflex

  • Tricipital reflex

  • Gastrocnemius reflex

  • Extensor Carpi Radialis Reflex

Explanation

Question 16 of 27

1

A five month old male neutered stegosaurus is brought into your clinic. The client complains his pet took a tumble down the stairs and hasn't been acting right since. Upon examination, you find the animal is very aware of you and its surroundings. You don't even have to touch the hind limbs to instigate a reflex from them, but the reflexes on the front limbs are very small if even present. While palpating on a physical exam, you squeeze the abdomen and some urine comes shooting out. Where is the lesion located?

Select one of the following:

  • Not enough information has been given

  • Brain

  • C1-C6

  • C7-T2

  • T3-L3

  • L4-S3

  • S3 and caudally

Explanation

Question 17 of 27

1

Which of the following animals is least likely to get Vegetative Endocarditis?

Select one of the following:

  • 3 year old male Boxer

  • 4 year old female GSD

  • 7 year old male Irish Wolf Hound

  • 10 year old male DSH

Explanation

Question 18 of 27

1

Which of the following is a way to treat vegetative endocardiosis?

Select one of the following:

  • Digoxin + Mexilitene

  • Beta blockers + hypertonic fluid therapy

  • high long doses of bactericidal antibiotics

  • overdose of barbituates/euthanol

Explanation

Question 19 of 27

1

The signs of Glomerulonephritis and Proteinuria in Heartworm Disease is most likely caused by:

Select one of the following:

  • dead worms

  • released growth factors by damaged vessel walls

  • Wolbachia organisms

  • Melarsomine treatments

Explanation

Question 20 of 27

1

Which of the following is not an effect of combing an Ivermectin prophylaxis with Doxycycline?

Select one of the following:

  • reduces lung pathology

  • strengthens reachback effect

  • decreases resistance

  • lowers the reduction rate in worms when combined with Melarsomine

  • all of the above

Explanation

Question 21 of 27

1

A werewolf comes into your practice complaining of being short of breath, especially when exercising (he can talk because, you know, he’s a werewolf). During your history taking you ask if he’s been taking his heartworm preventative. He gives a long pause before saying “yes” while not making eye contact with you. You decide to administer a concentration test, which comes up negative, and an antibody test, which comes up positive. WTF is going?

Select one of the following:

  • The concentration test gave a false negative because this could be an occult infection.

  • The antibody test gave a false positive and this could be allergies.

  • There are no microfilaria or worms but the antibody test came up positive because he could have received adulticide treatment less than 24 weeks ago.

  • All of the above are possibilities

Explanation

Question 22 of 27

1

Which of the following is not matched correctly to its definition?

Select one of the following:

  • Neuropraxia – nerve damage caused by a lack of blood supply, mild

  • Axonotmesis – nerve damage but the cell bodies are still active and can regrow

  • Neurotmesis – nerve damage that is permanent because the axon is completely severed and separated from the cell body and schwanns

  • All of the above are correct

Explanation

Question 23 of 27

1

A Saber Tooth Tiger comes into your practice hunched and with its back legs positioned with the whole hock to the ground. What is this?

Select one of the following:

  • Sciatic sign

  • Radial nerve paralysis

  • Diabetes insipidus

  • Root sign

Explanation

Question 24 of 27

1

What is the number one concern of paralysis of a limb?

Select one of the following:

  • Infection

  • Muscle Atrophy

  • Self Mutilation

  • EMG changes

Explanation

Question 25 of 27

1

Lion-O, leader of the Thunder Cats!, comes into your office. His left eye is enophthalmotic, mitotic, ptotic, and the third eye lid is prolapsed. Where could his lesion be?

Select one of the following:

  • Oculomotor Nerve

  • T1

  • Trigeminal Nerve

  • Both Oculomotor Nerve and T1

  • Both Oculomotor nerve and Trigeminal nerve

Explanation

Question 26 of 27

1

A wiener dog presenting with front limb monoparesis, atrophy of the supraspinous muscle, and hyperpathia on palpation of its left front limb. On a myelogram, you see a golf-tee sign. What is the best course of treatment for this disease?

Select one of the following:

  • Surgical resection

  • Radiation

  • Chemotherapy

  • Cage rest

Explanation

Question 27 of 27

1

A 7 year-old cat is presented with miosis, ptosis, enophthalmos, and protruded nictitating membrane involving the right eye.

These symptoms are caused by damage to which one of the following innervation pathways?

Select one of the following:

  • Right sympathetic innervation to the eye

  • Right parasympathetic innervation to the eye

  • Left oculomotor innervation to the eye

  • Right trigeminal innervation to the eye

  • Left vagal innervation to the eye

Explanation