AP Psychology Practice Exam

Question 1 of 100

1

Wilhelm Wundt and the structuralists studied questions still asked today primarily by

Select one of the following:

(A) behavioral psychologists
(B) cognitive psychologists
(C) psychodynamic psychologists
(D) humanistic psychologists
(E) sociocultural psychologists

Explanation

Question 2 of 100

1

With which definition of psychology would John Watson and B. F. Skinner most agree?

Select one of the following:

(A) Psychology is the science of behavior.
(B) Psychology is the science of mental processes.
(C) Psychology is the science of behavior and mental processes.
(D) Psychology is the science of behavior and mental processes specific to contexts.

Explanation

Question 3 of 100

1

The question “Is intelligence more influenced by heredity or experience?” deals with a big issue in psychology known as

Select one of the following:

(A) stability vs. change
(B) mind-body dualism
(C) rationality vs. irrationality
(D) structure vs. function
(E) nature vs. nurture

Explanation

Question 4 of 100

1

If Aristotle and Locke, who both believed that what we know is acquired from experience, were alive today, they would best agree with the

Select one of the following:

(A) behavioral approach
(B) psychoanalytic approach
(C) humanistic approach
(D) biological approach
(E) psychodynamic approach

Explanation

Question 5 of 100

1

Organized sets of concepts that explain phenomena are

Select one of the following:

(A) independent variables
(B) dependent variables
(C) hypotheses
(D) theories
(E) statistics

Explanation

Question 6 of 100

1

A quasi-experiment cannot be considered a controlled experiment because

Select one of the following:

(A) subjects cannot be randomly selected
(B) subjects cannot be randomly assigned
(C) experimenter bias is unavoidable
(D) demand characteristics are unavoidable
(E) too few subjects participate in the procedure

Explanation

Question 7 of 100

1

Of the following, which research method is most effective for studying unusually complex or rare phenomena?

Select one of the following:

(A) controlled experiment
(B) quasi-experiment
(C) test
(D) survey
(E) case study

Explanation

Question 8 of 100

1

Of the following, which research method would be most appropriate for investigating the relationship between political party membership and attitude toward the death penalty?

Select one of the following:

(A) controlled experiment
(B) quasi-experiment
(C) test
(D) survey
(E) case study

Explanation

Question 9 of 100

1

Of the following, the strongest positive correla- tion would most likely be shown between

Select one of the following:

(A) an adult’s weight and running speed
(B) close friendships and happiness
(C) sense of humor and years of education
(D) poverty and good health
(E) visual acuity and salary

Explanation

Question 10 of 100

1

John wants to study the effects of alcohol on the behavior of college students. For his study, he spends 5 hours every night for 2 weeks at a bar near a college watching how the patrons act before and after drinking alcoholic beverages. The research method John is employing is a

Select one of the following:

(A) controlled experiment
(B) quasi-experiment
(C) test
(D) naturalistic observation
(E) case study

Explanation

Question 11 of 100

1

Of the following, which can establish a cause and effect relationship?
I. controlled experiment
II. quasi-experiment
III. correlational research

Select one of the following:

(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) I and II only
(D) I and III only
(E) I, II, and III

Explanation

Question 12 of 100

1

Ms. Costas owns a business with nine other employees. Ms. Costas’s annual salary is $90,000. Her manager’s salary is $60,000. Of her other employees, three earn $25,000 each and five earn $15,000 each.The range of this distribution is

Select one of the following:

(A) $ 75,000
(B) $ 50,000
(C) $ 25,000
(D) $ 20,000
(E) $ 15,000

Explanation

Question 13 of 100

1

A neuron without terminal buttons would be unable to

Select one of the following:

(A) receive information from neighboring neurons
(B) generate an action potential
(C) direct the synthesis of neurotransmitters
(D) secrete neurotransmitters to postsynaptic neurons
(E) transport ions across the cell membrane

Explanation

Question 14 of 100

1

Paul Broca found that the loss of the ability to speak intelligibly is associated with damage to a region of the brain in the

Select one of the following:

(A) thalamus
(B) right parietal lobe
(C) right occipital lobe
(D) left temporal lobe
(E) left frontal lobe

Explanation

Question 15 of 100

1

Scientists are able to see changes in the brain as it processes information by means of

Select one of the following:

(A) lesioning
(B) autopsy
(C) CT
(D) MRI
(E) PET

Explanation

Question 16 of 100

1

The simplest behaviors we carry on

Select one of the following:

(A) are learned when we are infants
(B) do not involve the central nervous system
(C) are called instincts
(D) include sneezing and blinking
(E) must be processed by the medulla

Explanation

Question 17 of 100

1

Mr. Jenkins’ suffered a “stroke” as a result of a brain injury. Although he can still move the fingers on his right hand, he has lost sensation in these parts. Of the following, the site of damage to his brain is most likely in the

Select one of the following:

(A) right frontal lobe
(B) right temporal lobe
(C) left frontal lobe
(D) left parietal lobe
(E) hypothalamus

Explanation

Question 18 of 100

1

Of the following, which are located exclusively in the central nervous system?

Select one of the following:

(A) afferent neurons
(B) interneurons
(C) efferent neurons
(D) glial cells
(E) effectors

Explanation

Question 19 of 100

1

Which of the following glands interact(s) most directly with all of the others to help regulate body processes?

Select one of the following:

(A) pituitary
(B) adrenals
(C) parathyroids
(D) thyroid
(E) ovaries

Explanation

Question 20 of 100

1

The part of the brain most closely associated with maintaining balance and the coordination of complex sequences of movements is the

Select one of the following:

(A) hypothalamus
(B) thalamus
(C) pons
(D) medulla
(E) cerebellum

Explanation

Question 21 of 100

1

Loss of the ability of the brain to produce adequate levels of dopamine often leads to

Select one of the following:

(A) aphasia
(B) Alzheimer’s disease
(C) Parkinson’s disease
(D) bipolar disorder
(E) amnesia

Explanation

Question 22 of 100

1

Mechanical energy of vibrations is transduced to the electrochemical energy of neural impulses at the

Select one of the following:

(A) retina
(B) lens
(C) cochlea
(D) olfactory mucosa
(E) taste buds

Explanation

Question 23 of 100

1

Of the following, which bend incoming light rays to focus an image on the retina?
I. cornea
II. iris
III. lens

Select one of the following:

(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) III only
(D) I and III only
(E) I, II, III

Explanation

Question 24 of 100

1

When food supplies may be unsafe, which of the following would have an adaptive advantage over most other people?
I. Supertasters
II. Average Tasters
III. Nontasters

Select one of the following:

(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) III only
(D) I and III only
(E) I, II, III

Explanation

Question 25 of 100

1

On its way to the cones and rods of the eye, (in order) light passes through the

Select one of the following:

(A) cornea, vitreous humor, lens, iris, aqueous humor
(B) sclera, lens, pupil, iris, vitreous humor
(C) cornea, aqueous humor, pupil, lens, vitreous humor
(D) sclera, aqueous humor, lens, pupil, vitreous humor
(E) retina, vitreous humor, lens, iris, aqueous
humor, fovea

Explanation

Question 26 of 100

1

Neural impulses go directly to the cortex without passing through the thalamus from receptors in the

Select one of the following:

(A) retina
(B) joints
(C) cochlea
(D) olfactory epithelium
(E) taste buds

Explanation

Question 27 of 100

1

Of the following, which is not a basic taste?

Select one of the following:

(A) sweet
(B) salty
(C) peppery
(D) bitter
(E) sour

Explanation

Question 28 of 100

1

Receptors for kinesthesis are located in the

Select one of the following:

(A) retina
(B) joints
(C) semicircular canals
(D) olfactory epithelium
(E) taste buds

Explanation

Question 29 of 100

1

Carlos was just able to perceive a difference in weight when Maria removed two of the 50 jelly beans from his plastic bag. It is most likely that if Carlos had the jumbo bag of 100 jelly beans, the smallest number of jelly beans he could notice removed would be

Select one of the following:

(A) 2
(B) 4
(C) 8
(D) 16
(E) 20

Explanation

Question 30 of 100

1

As you are reading this question, you are probably not thinking about what you ate for lunch. The memory of what you ate for lunch is most likely in your

Select one of the following:

(A) nonconscious
(B) preconscious
(C) unconsciousness
(D) sensory memory
(E) attention

Explanation

Question 31 of 100

1

Traveling in a jet plane from California to New York is most likely to

Select one of the following:

(A) disrupt your circadian rhythms
(B) prevent the onset of REM sleep
(C) stimulate your parasympathetic nervous system
(D) induce delta brain waves
(E) cause withdrawal symptoms

Explanation

Question 32 of 100

1

According to psychodynamic psychologists, the unconscious

Select one of the following:

(A) processes information of which you are unaware
(B) includes unacceptable feelings, wishes, and thoughts
(C) is characterized by loss of responsiveness to the environment
(D) is synonymous with the preconscious
(E) develops after the ego and superego

Explanation

Question 33 of 100

1

Of the following, which does your hypothalamus regulate over the course of 24 hours?
I. body temperature
II. hormonal levels
III. memory of the day’s events

Select one of the following:

(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) III only
(D) I and II only
(E) I, II, and III

Explanation

Question 34 of 100

1

“Humans developed a unique waking-sleep cycle that maximized our chances of survival,” is a statement most typical of

Select one of the following:

(A) developmental psychologists
(B) physiological psychologists
(C) psychoanalysts
(D) sociologists
(E) evolutionary psychologists

Explanation

Question 35 of 100

1

Which has enabled psychologists to learn the most about sleep processes over the last 50 years?

Select one of the following:

(A) psychopharmacology
(B) lesions
(C) EEGs
(D) CT scans
(E) MRI

Explanation

Question 36 of 100

1

Which stage of sleep is characterized by brain waves with spindles and K-complexes?

Select one of the following:

(A) stage 1
(B) stage 2
(C) stage 3
(D) stage 4
(E) REM

Explanation

Question 37 of 100

1

Nightmares most frequently occur during

Select one of the following:

(A) stage 1
(B) stage 2
(C) stage 3
(D) stage 4
(E) REM

Explanation

Question 38 of 100

1

Once Pavlov’s dogs learned to salivate to the sound of a tuning fork, the tuning fork was a(n)

Select one of the following:

(A) unconditioned stimulus
(B) neutral stimulus
(C) conditioned stimulus
(D) unconditioned response
(E) conditioned response

Explanation

Question 39 of 100

1

Shaping is

Select one of the following:

(A) a pattern of responses that must be made before classical conditioning is completed
(B) rewarding behaviors that get closer and closer to the desired goal behavior
(C) completing a set of behaviors in succession before a reward is given
(D) giving you chocolate pudding to increase the likelihood you will eat more carrots
(E) inhibition of new learning by previous learning

Explanation

Question 40 of 100

1

John loves to fish. He puts his line in the water and leaves it there until he feels a tug. On what reinforcement schedule is he rewarded?

Select one of the following:

(A) continuous reinforcement
(B) fixed ratio
(C) fixed interval
(D) variable ratio
(E) variable interval

Explanation

Question 41 of 100

1

Chimpanzees given tokens for performing tricks were able to put the tokens in vending machines to get grapes. The tokens acted as

Select one of the following:

(A) primary reinforcers
(B) classical conditioning
(C) secondary reinforcers
(D) negative reinforcers
(E) unconditioned reinforcers

Explanation

Question 42 of 100

1

Which of the following best reflects negative reinforcement?

Select one of the following:

(A) Teresa is scolded when she runs through the house yelling.
(B) Lina is not allowed to watch television until after she has finished her homework.
(C) Greg changes his math class so he doesn’t have to see his old girlfriend.
(D) Aditya is praised for having the best essay in the class.
(E) Alex takes the wrong medicine and gets violently ill afterwards.

Explanation

Question 43 of 100

1

Watson and Rayner’s classical conditioning of “Little Albert” was helpful in explaining that

Select one of the following:

(A) some conditioned stimuli do not generalize
(B) human emotions such as fear are subject to classical conditioning
(C) drug dependency is subject to classical as well as operant conditioning
(D) small children are not as easily conditioned as older children
(E) fear of rats and rabbits are innate responses previously undiscovered

Explanation

Question 44 of 100

1

Jamel got very sick after eating some mushrooms on a pizza at his friend’s house. He didn’t know that he had a stomach virus at the time, blamed his illness on the mushrooms, and refused to eat them again. Which of the following is the unconditioned stimulus for his taste aversion to mushrooms?

Select one of the following:

(A) pizza
(B) stomach virus
(C) mushrooms
(D) headache
(E) aversion to mushrooms

Explanation

Question 45 of 100

1

The three stages of the Atkinson–Shiffrin process of memory are

Select one of the following:

(A) iconic, echoic, encoding
(B) sensory, short term, long term
(C) shallow, medium, and deep processing
(D) semantic, episodic, procedural
(E) cerebellum, temporal lobe, hippocampus

Explanation

Question 46 of 100

1

Which of the following examples best illustrates episodic memory?

Select one of the following:

(A) telling someone how to tie a shoe
(B) answering correctly that the Hastings was in 1066
(C) knowing that the word for black in French is noir
(D) remembering that a clown was at your fifth birthday party
(E) long-term memory for the times tables learned in second grade

Explanation

Question 47 of 100

1

Doug wrote a grocery list of 10 items, but leaves it at home. The list included in order: peas, corn, squash, onions, apples, pears, bananas, flour, milk, and eggs. If the law of primacy holds, which of the following is Doug most likely to remember when he gets to the store?

Select one of the following:

(A) peas, pears, eggs
(B) banana, flour, peas
(C) apples, pears, bananas
(D) flour, milk, eggs
(E) peas, corn, onions

Explanation

Question 48 of 100

1

According to the levels of processing theory of memory,

Select one of the following:

(A) we remember items that are repeated again and again
(B) maintenance rehearsal will encode items into our long-term memory
(C) deep processing involves elaborative rehearsal, ensuring encoding into long-term memory
(D) input, output, and storage are the three levels
(E) we can only hold 7 items in our short-term memory store before it is full

Explanation

Question 49 of 100

1

Which of the following brain structures plays a key role in transferring information from short- term memory to long-term memory?

Select one of the following:

(A) hypothalamus
(B) thalamus
(C) hippocampus
(D) frontal lobe
(E) parietal lobe

Explanation

Question 50 of 100

1

Dai was drunk, so his girlfriend convinced him to get out of his car, and she drove him home in her car. He could not remember where his car was parked when he got up the next morning, but after drinking some liquor, Dai remembered where he left his car. This phenomenon best illustrates

Select one of the following:

(A) the misinformation effect
(B) mood-congruent memory
(C) the framing effect
(D) state-dependent memory
(E) anterograde amnesia

Explanation

Question 51 of 100

1

Phonemes are:

Select one of the following:

(A) the rules of grammar that dictate letter combinations in a language
(B) the smallest unit of sound in a language
(C) the smallest unit of meaning in a language
(D) semantically the same as morphemes
(E) about 100 different words that are common to all languages

Explanation

Question 52 of 100

1

Imprinting is

Select one of the following:

(A) the adaptive response of an infant when its mother leaves a room
(B) a maladaptive response of anxiety by an infant when abandoned by its mother
(C) a period shortly after birth when a newborn reacts to salty, sweet, or bitter stimuli
(D) a period shortly after birth when an adult forms a bond with his or her newborn
(E) the tendency of some baby animals to form an attachment to the first moving object they see or hear during a critical period after birth

Explanation

Question 53 of 100

1

Which of the following topics would a sociobiologist be most interested in studying?

Select one of the following:

(A) whether or not ape communication can be defined as language
(B) whether pigeons are capable of cognitive learning
(C) altruistic acts that ensure the survival of the next generation
(D) aggressive behavior in stickleback fish related to sign stimuli
(E) stress and its relationship to heart attacks

Explanation

Question 54 of 100

1

When asked why he wants to become a doctor, Tom says, “Because I’ve always liked biology and being a doctor will allow me to make a good salary to take care of a family.” His answer is most consistent with which of the following theories of motivation?

Select one of the following:

(A) drive reduction
(B) incentive
(C) hierarchy of needs
(D) arousal
(E) instinct

Explanation

Question 55 of 100

1

According to the Yerkes-Dodson model, when facing a very difficult challenge, which level of arousal would probably lead to the best outcome?

Select one of the following:

(A) a very low level
(B) a moderately low level
(C) a moderate level
(D) a moderately high level
(E) a very high level

Explanation

Question 56 of 100

1

The James-Lange theory of emotion states that

Select one of the following:

(A) emotional awareness precedes our physiological response to a stressful event
(B) emotional expression follows awareness of our physiological response to an arousing event
(C) an arousing event simultaneously triggers both a cognitive awareness and a physiological response
(D) the level of fear we first feel when we ride a roller coaster is reduced each time we experience the same event until thrill replaces it
(E) when we are unaware of why we are feeling arousal, we take our cue from the environment

Explanation

Question 57 of 100

1

Which of the following factors stimulate us to eat?

Select one of the following:

(A) stomach contractions, high levels of glucagon, and stimulation of the VMH
(B) high levels of cholecystokinin, high levels of insulin, and stimulation of the VMH
(C) lack of cholecystokinin, high levels of glucagon, and stimulation of the LH
(D) lack of cholecystokinin, high levels of insulin, and stimulation of the LH
(E) low blood sugar, stomach contractions, and stimulation of the VMH

Explanation

Question 58 of 100

1

Homeostasis refers to

Select one of the following:

(A) arousal of the sympathetic nervous system
(B) a tendency for individuals to behave consistently when highly motivated
(C) a need state resulting from the physiological experience of hunger or thirst
(D) the body’s tendency to maintain a balanced internal state
(E) the second stage of Selye’s General Adaptation Syndrome

Explanation

Question 59 of 100

1

What is the response pattern of securely attached children in the Strange Situation when their mothers return?

Select one of the following:

(A) They tend to ignore their mothers because they are secure about her care.
(B) Sometimes they run over to their mothers and sometimes they do not; there’s no consistent pattern in their responses.
(C) They tend to run over to their mothers and beg them not to leave again.
(D) They tend to go to their mothers for comfort.
(E) They hit their mothers.

Explanation

Question 60 of 100

1

In the nature versus nurture controversy, “nature” refers to

Select one of the following:

(A) heredity
(B) plants and animals
(C) all living things we interact with
(D) constituents of the problem
(E) the environment

Explanation

Question 61 of 100

1

Researchers were interested in studying the effects of divorce on children. Their study included 250 4-year-olds. Interviews and family observations were conducted 6 months, 2 years, 5 years, and 10 years after the initial interviews and observations. Which method did the researcher use?

Select one of the following:

(A) cohort sequential
(B) cross sectional
(C) longitudinal
(D) experimental
(E) quasi-experimental

Explanation

Question 62 of 100

1

Object permanence is

Select one of the following:

(A) the belief that all objects have life just like humans do
(B) the idea that gender does not change by putting on the clothes of the opposite sex
(C) the understanding that a tall beaker and a short beaker can hold the same amount of water
(D) a belief that all objects in the world, including mountains and streams, are made by people
(E) the understanding that things continue to exist even when they are out of sight

Explanation

Question 63 of 100

1

The rooting reflex is a neonate’s tendency to

Select one of the following:

(A) open its mouth and turn its head when touched on the cheek
(B) throw out its arms and legs and quickly retract them when startled
(C) explore the world through sucking objects
(D) look longer at round shapes that look like faces than square shapes that do not
(E) grasp nearby objects

Explanation

Question 64 of 100

1

Dorothy just celebrated her 90th birthday with her close friends, and is excited about a visit from her grandchildren. According to Erikson, she has probably most recently achieved

Select one of the following:

(A) isolation
(B) integrity
(C) despair
(D) autonomy
(E) industry

Explanation

Question 65 of 100

1

Mr. Hernandez explains to his son that the speed limit is 55 mph. He tells him to stay under the speed limit when driving because it’s the law and will probably prevent accidents. Kohlberg’s level of morality illustrated by this example is

Select one of the following:

(A) preconventional
(B) concrete operational
(C) conventional
(D) egocentric
(E) postconventional

Explanation

Question 66 of 100

1

A critical period is a stage in development when

Select one of the following:

(A) specific stimuli have a major effect on develop- ment that they do not produce at other times
(B) children are resistant to any kind of discipline by their parents
(C) new learning is prevented by older learning
(D) bonding between the child and parent first takes place
(E) the child first enters elementary school and needs positive reinforcement

Explanation

Question 67 of 100

1

Adam loved the girlfriend who dropped him, but acts as if he’s glad to be rid of her. His behavior most clearly illustrates which of the following Freudian defense mechanisms?

Select one of the following:

(A) repression
(B) projection
(C) reaction formation
(D) sublimation
(E) regression

Explanation

Question 68 of 100

1

Which Freudian personality system is guided by the reality principle?

Select one of the following:

(A) id
(B) libido
(C) ego
(D) unconscious
(E) superego

Explanation

Question 69 of 100

1

In contrast to the blank slate view of human nature held by the behaviorists, humanists believe humans are born

Select one of the following:

(A) evil and instinctively selfish
(B) good and with an inner drive to reach full potential
(C) neutral and that personality is based on perceptions of reality
(D) neither good nor evil, but personality is a product of their environment
(E) weak and needing others to find a meaning and purpose in life

Explanation

Question 70 of 100

1

Which of the following is a good example of a Jungian archetype?

Select one of the following:

(A) John, whose domineering mother’s voice is always in the back of his head
(B) Patty, who is haunted by her memories of child abuse
(C) Yan, who always roots for the underdog
(D) Tariq, who consciously strives to be the best tennis player he can be
(E) Kendra, whose power motive influences everything she does

Explanation

Question 71 of 100

1

Which is an example of a projective test, consisting of a set of ambiguous pictures about which people are asked to tell a story?

Select one of the following:

(A) TAT
(B) MMPI-2
(C) 16 PF
(D) NEO-PI
(E) Rorschach

Explanation

Question 72 of 100

1

In order to determine a client’s personality, Carl Rogers used a Q-sort to measure the difference between

Select one of the following:

(A) self-esteem and self-efficacy
(B) ideal self and real self
(C) locus of control and self-actualization
(D) conditions of worth and locus of control
(E) ego strength and need for approval

Explanation

Question 73 of 100

1

Aptitude tests are designed to measure

Select one of the following:

(A) previously learned facts
(B) future performance
(C) previously learned skills
(D) current competence
(E) your IQ score

Explanation

Question 74 of 100

1

A standardization sample for developing a test

Select one of the following:

(A) should be representative of all the types of people for whom the test is designed
(B) is an early version of the test to determine questions that differentiate individuals
(C) is a set of norms that will determine what score should be considered passing
(D) should include people from all different age groups, ethnic groups, and genders
(E) must include a standard set of directions for administering the test that all students will receive

Explanation

Question 75 of 100

1

If Mrs. Delvecchio compared the scores of stu- dents on the odd-numbered questions on the test with their scores for the even-numbered questions, she would be attempting to determine if the test had

Select one of the following:

(A) content validity
(B) split-half reliability
(C) predictive validity
(D) test-retest reliability
(E) concurrent validity

Explanation

Question 76 of 100

1

Advantages of group tests as compared to individualized tests include

Select one of the following:

(A) that they are cheaper and give more accurate results
(B) that they can be given to a large group of people at one time and are cheaper to grade
(C) the ability to establish rapport between the examiner and subjects to put them at ease
(D) that they have proven to be more reliable and valid in measuring abilities
(E) more subjective scoring of results by examiners who evaluate them

Explanation

Question 77 of 100

1

Which of the following best describes Charles Spearman’s g of intelligence?

Select one of the following:

(A) There are many factors that determine intelligence, but genetics is the most important one.
(B) The internal validity of an intelligence test is g.
(C) A general intelligence that underlies success on a wide variety of tasks is g.
(D) Giftedness is determined by both innate ability to perform and experiences one has in life.
(E) The g is measured by the speed with which one can process information.

Explanation

Question 78 of 100

1

According to Sternberg, which of the following types of intelligence in his triarchic theory are measured by standard IQ tests?
I. analytic
II. practical
III. creative

Select one of the following:

(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) III only
(D) I and II only
(E) I, II, and III

Explanation

Question 79 of 100

1

Hani was unable to tell the difference between right and wrong. Which of the following definitions of abnormal behavior is described in this example?

Select one of the following:

(A) maladaptive
(B) insanity
(C) commitment
(D) statistical
(E) personal

Explanation

Question 80 of 100

1

The behavioral approach attributes the cause of abnormal behavior to

Select one of the following:

(A) internal conflict from early childhood trauma
(B) the result of neurochemical imbalances
(C) poor self-concept
(D) reinforcement of maladaptive behaviors learned through experience
(E) irrational and illogical perceptions of reality

Explanation

Question 81 of 100

1

Which of the following best characterizes a person experiencing obsessive-compulsive disorder?

Select one of the following:

(A) Anna, who hyperventilates whenever she is trapped in an elevator
(B) Ben, who returns home seven times a day to see if he has turned off the stove
(C) Katia, who complains constantly about feeling sick and goes to many different doctors
(D) Kabir, who keeps remembering the plane crash that killed the other members of his family
(E) Miguel, who wanders about a town in a daze, not sure who he is or how he got there

Explanation

Question 82 of 100

1

A soldier who experiences sudden blindness after seeing his buddies killed in battle is best diagnosed with

Select one of the following:

(A) a phobic disorder
(B) hypochondriasis
(C) bipolar disorder
(D) dissociative fugue
(E) conversion disorder

Explanation

Question 83 of 100

1

Which of the following is NOT characteristic of the manic state of bipolar disorder?

Select one of the following:

(A) inflated ego
(B) excessive talking
(C) shopping sprees
(D) fearfulness
(E) too much sleep

Explanation

Question 84 of 100

1

A delusion is a

Select one of the following:

(A) phobia of being in a social situation
(B) misperception of visual and auditory stimuli
(C) faulty and disordered thought pattern
(D) first indication of dissociative disorders
(E) characteristic of people suffering from dependent personality disorder

Explanation

Question 85 of 100

1

Which of the following is a negative symptom of schizophrenia?

Select one of the following:

(A) delusional thinking
(B) incoherent speech
(C) hyperexcitability
(D) hearing voices
(E) flat affect

Explanation

Question 86 of 100

1

Jenna is telling her therapist about the dream she had last night, and her therapist begins to interpret it for her. Which approach to psychotherapy does Jenna's therapist represent?

Select one of the following:

(A) group
(B) behaviroal
(C) Gestalt
(D) cognitive
(E) biomedical

Explanation

Question 87 of 100

1

In contrast to a clinical psychologist, a psychiatrist is more likely to

Select one of the following:

(A) engage in an eclectic approach
(B) use a biomedical treatment
(C) recognize the importance of group therapy with patients having the same disorder
(D) treat clients in community mental health centers excusively
(E) see patients with less serious mental health problems

Explanation

Question 88 of 100

1

Tommy came to Dr. Chambers seeking help with his fear of heights. First, Dr. Chambers asked Tommy to list all of the situations concerning heights that led to his fear response. After they had ordered them from least fear-provoking to most fear-provoking, Dr. Chambers had Tommy listen to soothing music and slowly relaxed him as he imagined each step. Which of the following best describes Dr. Chambers’s treatment?

Select one of the following:

(A) the exposure technique of flooding
(B) systematic desensitization
(C) rational emotive therapy
(D) aversive conditioning
(E) the social cognitive technique of modeling

Explanation

Question 89 of 100

1

The goal of psychoanalytic therapy is

Select one of the following:

(A) to change maladaptive behavior to more socially acceptable behavior
(B) to change negative thinking into more positive attributions
(C) to attain self-actualization
(D) to unite the mind and body elements into a whole
(E) to bring unconscious conflicts to conscious awareness and gain insight

Explanation

Question 90 of 100

1

Vic is encouraged to take charge of the therapy session and his therapist uses an active listening approach to mirror back the feelings he hears from him. Which therapy is most likely being described?

Select one of the following:

(A) client-centered therapy
(B) cognitive therapy
(C) psychodynamic therapy
(D) existential therapy
(E) rational-emotive therapy

Explanation

Question 91 of 100

1

Mr. Moffatt overheard another teacher describe one of his students as lazy and unmotivated. Though Mr. Moffatt had not previously noted this tendency, he began to see exactly what the other teacher had noted. What might account for this phenomenon?

Select one of the following:

(A) norms
(B) deindividuation
(C) social loafing
(D) self-fulfilling prophecy
(E) representativeness heuristic

Explanation

Question 92 of 100

1

Some difficult cuts needed to be made in the school board budget and everyone on the board knew that there had to be consensus and cooperation. Even though many members disagreed with certain proposals, each one met with unanimous support or defeat. To preserve cooperation, no one offered conflicting viewpoints. Which of the following concepts is best described by this example?

Select one of the following:

(A) group polarization
(B) fundamental attribution error
(C) groupthink
(D) role schema
(E) reciprocity

Explanation

Question 93 of 100

1

A young woman was gunned down at a gas station. A busload of onlookers saw the entire event and no one did anything. The bus driver even stepped over the body to pay for his gas. What social psychological phenomenon best accounts for this behavior?

Select one of the following:

(A) groupthink
(B) altruism
(C) social impairment
(D) superordinate goals
(E) diffusion of responsibility

Explanation

Question 94 of 100

1

You read in the newspaper that survivors in a plane accident in the Andes were discovered to have eaten other survivors during their 32-day ordeal. You will have committed the fundamental attribution error if you

Select one of the following:

(A) attribute the behavior to dispositional (personal) factors
(B) attribute the behavior to situational factors
(C) think you would have done the same thing if you had been there
(D) consider the behavior as a signal for the moral degradation of our society
(E) decide never to fly in a plane again

Explanation

Question 95 of 100

1

Ethnocentrism is the belief that

Select one of the following:

(A) ethnic foods are all good
(B) human diversity is a positive force
(C) one’s own culture is superior to others
(D) other people are all pretty much alike in their opinions
(E) cultural pluralism is a destructive goal that fosters conflict

Explanation

Question 96 of 100

1

The effect of one confederate selecting a different line from the others in the Asch conformity test was

Select one of the following:

(A) continuing conformity by the participant to avoid looking bad to the others
(B) the participant asking to vote privately on a separate piece of paper
(C) a boost to the self-efficacy of the participant
(D) to release the participant from the conformity effect
(E) to cause the experimenter to release that confederate in the next trial period, thus ensur- ing continued conformity by the participant

Explanation

Question 97 of 100

1

Which of the following factors probably plays the least important role in explaining why children often share the same political and economic values as their parents?

Select one of the following:

(A) exposure to mass media
(B) operant conditioning
(C) they have never questioned these beliefs and do not really understand them
(D) modeling
(E) mere exposure effect

Explanation

Question 98 of 100

1

Of the following, which would be a good example of a self-serving bias?

Select one of the following:

(A) Carlos, who feels that everyone should strive to help themselves as well as others
(B) Antoine, who says that he has bombed a test even though he always gets an A
(C) Mai, who works harder for teachers who compliment her on her efforts
(D) Lina, who overestimates the degree to which people agree with her opinions
(E) Betty, who believes that she works harder than others and is underappreciated

Explanation

Question 99 of 100

1

Although Graham has not yet met his future col- lege roommate, he learned that the roommate is a football player. He is anxious and unhappy about sharing his room with a football player because he expects that his roommate will be a “party animal” who makes studying in his room difficult. Graham’s attitude can be classified as

Select one of the following:

(A) stereotype threat
(B) prejudice
(C) discrimination
(D) scapegoating
(E) fully justified

Explanation

Question 100 of 100

1

When asked what they would do if they could be totally invisible and there would be no recrimination, most people answered that they would commit an antisocial act. Which of the following social phenomena might best be able to explain this response?

Select one of the following:

(A) reciprocity
(B) group polarization
(C) social loafing
(D) deindividuation
(E) self-fulfilling prophecy

	Created by Jacob Simmons almost 9 years ago

This exam is built from the percentages used by the AP board in building the multiple choice section of the AP exam.

AP Psychology Practice Exam

AP Psychology Practice Exam

Question 1 of 100

Wilhelm Wundt and the structuralists studied questions still asked today primarily by

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 2 of 100

With which definition of psychology would John Watson and B. F. Skinner most agree?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 3 of 100

The question “Is intelligence more influenced by heredity or experience?” deals with a big issue in psychology known as

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 4 of 100

If Aristotle and Locke, who both believed that what we know is acquired from experience, were alive today, they would best agree with the

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 5 of 100

Organized sets of concepts that explain phenomena are

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 6 of 100

A quasi-experiment cannot be considered a controlled experiment because

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 7 of 100

Of the following, which research method is most effective for studying unusually complex or rare phenomena?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 8 of 100

Of the following, which research method would be most appropriate for investigating the relationship between political party membership and attitude toward the death penalty?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 9 of 100

Of the following, the strongest positive correla- tion would most likely be shown between

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 10 of 100

John wants to study the effects of alcohol on the behavior of college students. For his study, he spends 5 hours every night for 2 weeks at a bar near a college watching how the patrons act before and after drinking alcoholic beverages. The research method John is employing is a

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 11 of 100

Of the following, which can establish a cause and effect relationship? I. controlled experiment II. quasi-experiment III. correlational research

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 12 of 100

Ms. Costas owns a business with nine other employees. Ms. Costas’s annual salary is $90,000. Her manager’s salary is $60,000. Of her other employees, three earn $25,000 each and five earn $15,000 each.The range of this distribution is

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 13 of 100

A neuron without terminal buttons would be unable to

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 14 of 100

Paul Broca found that the loss of the ability to speak intelligibly is associated with damage to a region of the brain in the

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 15 of 100

Scientists are able to see changes in the brain as it processes information by means of

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 16 of 100

The simplest behaviors we carry on

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 17 of 100

Mr. Jenkins’ suffered a “stroke” as a result of a brain injury. Although he can still move the fingers on his right hand, he has lost sensation in these parts. Of the following, the site of damage to his brain is most likely in the

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 18 of 100

Of the following, which are located exclusively in the central nervous system?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 19 of 100

Which of the following glands interact(s) most directly with all of the others to help regulate body processes?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 20 of 100

Of the following, which can establish a cause and effect relationship?
I. controlled experiment
II. quasi-experiment
III. correlational research

Of the following, which bend incoming light rays to focus an image on the retina?
I. cornea
II. iris
III. lens

When food supplies may be unsafe, which of the following would have an adaptive advantage over most other people?
I. Supertasters
II. Average Tasters
III. Nontasters

Of the following, which does your hypothalamus regulate over the course of 24 hours?
I. body temperature
II. hormonal levels
III. memory of the day’s events