These are preparations intended for injection through the skin or other external boundary tissue, rather than the alimentary canal.

These are single dose injections containing more than 100mL of solution that are intended for intravenous use.

These are injections of 100mL or less and may either be single-dose and multi-dose products.

This term is used to designate the probability of finding a non-sterile unit following a sterilization step or procedure.

This is a procedure carried out at the end of processing, when a product is in its final sealed container that destroys all viable organisms.

This term refers to processing operations involving sterile products that are carried out in a laminar airflow workbench or barrier isolator.

These are workbenches that provide an environment of specially filtered air that sweeps the work area and provides an aseptic work area.

This area is designed and maintained to prevent particulate and microbiological contamination of drug products as they are being prepared or processed.

In this type of intravenous administration, the drug is added to a large volume parenteral solution and the solution is then slowly and continuously dripped into a vein.

In this type of intravenous administration, the drug is added to an intermediate volume (25-100 mL) and given in an intermediate period of time (15-60 minutes), at spaced interval, such as every 6 hours.

It is the feeding of a patient by the intravenous infusion of fluids and basic nutrients.

It is a method of providing nutrition support via tubes inserted into the stomach or small intestine.

This nutritional support supplements oral intake and provides only part of daily nutritional requirements.

These preparations consist of one or more sterile drug products, added to an IV fluid, generally dextrose or sodium chloride solution alone or in combination.

It is a therapeutic agent whose place in therapy is well-established.

It is a commercially available, non formulary agent that is temporarily made available to a particular physician for the purpose of evaluation.

It is a therapeutic agent, admitted to the formulary, the use of which is authorized by a specific group of physicians designated by the committee.

It is a therapeutic agent undergoing clinical investigation.

This is a mistake in prescribing, dispensing, or planned medication administration that is detected and corrected through intervention (by another health-care provider or patient) before actual medication administration.

This includes incorrect drug selection, dose, dosage form, quantity, route, concentration, rate of administration, or instructions for use of a drug product ordered or authorized by a physician.

It refers to the responsible of drug therapy to achieve definite outcomes that are intended to improve a patient’s way of life.

It involves measuring direct and indirect cost attributable to a specific disease.

This method allows the identification, measurement, and comparison of the costs of a program or treatment alternative.

The method that involves the determination of the least costly alternatives when comparing two or more treatment alternatives.

The method that integrates the patient preferences and health-related quality of life.

A way of summarizing the health benefits and resources used by competing health care programs so that policy makers can choose from them.

It refers to the value assigned to the duration of life as modified by impairments, functional states, perceptions, and social opportunities that are influenced by disease, injury, treatment or policy.

A study design in which neither the study subject nor the study staff is aware of which group or intervention the subjects has been assigned.

A retrospective comparison of causal factors or exposure in a group of persons with disease and those of persons without disease.

A retrospective or prospective follow-up study of exposed and non-exposed defined group in which a variable of interest is measured.

A trial comparing treatments in which participants, on completion of one treatment, are switched to the other.

A study that determines the presence or absence of a disease and other variable in a defined population and the potential risk factor at a particular point in time or time-interval.

Which of the following describes the neonates?

Which of the following best describes the infants?

Clinical manifestations of Gray Baby Syndrome include:
I. Characteristic gray color
II. Abdominal distention
III. Hypertension
IV. Progressive shock

Which of the following is associated with the use of thalidomide?
I. Polyneuritis
II. Mental retardation
III. Limb deformities

Factors that increase the risk of drug-related problems in the elderly include:
I. Polypharmacy
II. Inappropriate prescribing
III. Medication adherence
IV. Multiple diseases

Potential difficulties that may occur while taking medication histories form the elderly include:
I. Impaired hearing
II. Mental acuity
III. Multiple diseases and medication
IV. Reliance on a caregiver for the history

Refers to the continual monitoring for unwanted effects and other safety-related aspects of marketed drugs.

Study the use of and effects of drugs in a large number of people.

Any noxious, unintended, and undesired effect of a drug that occurs at doses used in humans for prophylaxis, diagnosis or therapy.

Which of the following is/are true regarding chest X-ray?
I. Provides supplemental information to the physical examination and is usually the first diagnostic test in a cardiac workup
II. Provides details of internal cardiac structures
III. Gives information about position and size of the heart and chambers and surrounding anatomy.

The manifestations of chromium deficiency include:
I. Alopecia
II. Depigmentation of the hair and skin
III. Red blood cell fragility
IV. Glucose intolerance

The manifestations of zinc deficiency include:
I. Poor wound healing
II. Poor growth
III. Poor resistance to infection

Incompatibilities with fat emulsions cause a majority of formulation problems in TPN. Which of the following affects lipid stability in TPN preparations?
I. Nature of amino acid solution
II. pH
III. Amount of dissolved oxygen in the solution
IV. Electrolyte content

Ascorbic acid is the most rapidly oxidized vitamin. The rate of oxidation depends on:
I. Electrolyte content
II. Presence of trace minerals
III. Amount of dissolved oxygen in the solution
IV. pH

Which of the following is the most rapidly reduced vitamin?

Which of the following are associated with dilutional hyponatremia?
I. Administration of albumin
II. Congestive heart failure
III. Cirrhosis

Which of the following is/are true regarding blood urea nitrogen (BUN)?
I. End product of protein metabolism
II. Produced by liver and kidney
III. Filtered completely at glomerulus

Which of the following accurately describes creatinine?
I. Not absorbed and secreted by the kidney
II. Filtered freely at the glomerulus
III. Metabolized in the kidney

Considered the drug of choice in the treatment of angina at rest.

Used for the same arrhythmias for which quinidine is give, but possess added concern when used intravenously because of increased cardiovascular effects such as hypotension, syncope and myocardial infarction.

Most commonly used to treat digitalis-induced ventricular and supraventricular arrhythmias.

Class I arrhythmias work by blocking the rapid inward sodium content and thereby slowly down the rate of rise of the cardiac tissue’s action potential. Which sub classification moderately reduces the depolarization rate and prolong repolarization?

Which of the following is/are not associated with cinchonism caused by Quinidine?
I. Hearing loss
II. Photophobia
III. Tinnitus
IV. Blurred vision

Among the type III arrhythmics listed below, which has been reported as causing Torsades de Pointes type of ventricular tachycardia?

Class I antiarrhythmic drug that can cause fatigue, arthralgia, myalgia, and low-grade fever, suggestive of systemic lupus erythematosus-like syndrome.

A Class IV antiarrhythmic that is primarily indicated for the treatment of supraventricular tachyarrhythmias.

The New York Heart Association functional limitation class indicates that the degree of effort necessary to elicit Heart Failure symptoms is equal to those that would limit normal individuals.

The New York Heart Association functional limitation class indicates that the degree of effort necessary to elicit Heart Failure symptoms occurs with less-than ordinary exertion.

The New York Heart Association functional limitation class indicates that the degree of effort necessary to elicit Heart Failure symptoms occurs while at rest.

Term referred for that exerted on the ventricular muscle at the end of the diastole that determines the degree of muscle fiber stretch.

Determined by the amount of force needed to overcome pressure in the aorta.

Which of the following is/are true regarding precautions with the use of digoxin
I. Increased potassium levels favor digoxin binding to cardiac cells and increase its effect
II. Increased calcium levels increase the force of myocardial contraction
III. Magnesium levels are inversely related to digoxin activity

Which of the following dosages of dopamine is selected for its positive inotropic effects in treating the patient with Heart Failure?

A loop diuretic that is useful as a rapid-acting intravenous agent in reversing acute pulmonary edema.

Diuretics which have become preferred due to their ability to increase sodium excretion by 20-25% of the filtered load and maintain their efficacy until renal function is severely impaired:
I. Spironolactone
II. Ethacrynic acid
III. Furosemide
IV. Bumetanide

Which of the following may be used in the acute management of digitalis toxicity?
I. Potassium
II. Cholestyramine resin
III. Fab fragment antibody

Which of the following best describes isoniazid?

Which of the following may be treated with streptomycin?
I. Bacterial endocarditis
II. Tularemia
III. Urinary tract infection
IV. Tuberculosis

Which of the following best illustrates the relative ototoxicity of aminoglycosides?

Which of the following aminoglycosides can cause primarily vestibular damage?

Which of the following aminoglycosides can cause mainly auditory damage?

Which is the least nephrotoxic aminoglycoside?

Which is the most nephrotoxic aminoglycoside?

Which carbapenem needs to be combined with cilastatin sodium to inhibit the action of renal dipeptidases to this drug?

Which of the following is/are the routes of administration of Penicillin G sodium and potassium?
I. Intradermal
II. Intravenous
III. Intramuscular
IV. Oral

Anaphylaxis is a life threatening reaction that most commonly occurs with parenteral administration of penicillin. The following are its signs and symptoms:
I. Nausea
II. Bronchoconstriction
III. Abdominal pain
IV. Severe hypertension

With which antibiotics does antibiotic antagonism occur when given 1 hour of penicillin administration?

An extended spectrum penicillin that is 10 times as active as carbenicillin against Pseudomonas organisms.

Include tumors of connective tissues such as bone or muscle.

Include tumors of blood-forming elements and are classified as acute or chronic, myeloid or lymphoid.

The stage in cardiogenesis wherein the environment becomes altered to allow preferential growth of mutated cells over normal cells.

The first stage of carcinogenesis wherein normal cells are exposed to a carcinogen.

A metabolite of cyclophosphamide and ifosfamide that is thought to cause a chemical reaction of bladder mucosa leading to bleeding.

Which of the following is/are true regarding pain?
I. An unpleasant sensory and emotional experience that is usually associated with structural or tissue damage
II. A subjective, individual experience
III. Has physical, psychological, and social determinants

Stimulation of mu receptors produces the characteristic necrotic effects. These morphine like effects include:
I. Analgesia
II. Euphoria
III. Sedation
IV. Physical dependence

A component of red pepper that causes the release of substance P from sensory nerve fibers, resulting in the prolonged cutaneous pain transmission, histamine release, and erythema because of reflex vasodilation.

All of the following provide acid suppression similar to omeprazole 20 mg. every day except:

Natural or synthetic polysaccharide derivatives that adsorb water to soften the stool and increase the bulk.

Laxatives that act as surfactants by allowing absorption of water into the stool, which makes the softened stool easier to pass.

Clusters of dilated blood vessels in the lower rectum or anus.

Which of the following statements adequately describe bulk-forming laxatives?

Which of the following is/are risk factor/s for hyperphosphatemia and death from sodium phosphate enema?
I. Renal insufficiency
II. Hirschsprung’s disease
III. Anorectal malformations

Which of the following is true regarding lactulose?
I. An osmotic laxative
II. May cause flatulence and cramping
III. Should be taken with milk or juice to increase its palatability

A condition characterized in a poorly functioning colon and resembles the symptoms of ulcerative colitis, caused by chronic use of stimulant laxatives.

A dark pigmentation of the colonic mucosa that results from long-term use of anthraquinone laxatives.

Adverse effects of Metoclopramide limit its usefulness. These adverse effects include:
I. Insomnia
II. Depression
III. Extra pyramidal effects

Which of the following statements is/are true regarding emollient laxatives?
I. Not good for acute constipation
II. More effective than placebo for long term use
III. Good for patients who should not strain by passing hard stool

Potential adverse effects of Aspirin include:
I. Gastrointestinal ulceration
II. Hypersensitivity asthma
III. Cardiac arrhythmias