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phar530 assessment 1.2 practice

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Assessment 1.2 Practice

Assessment 1.2 Practice

Question 1 of 80

1

Which of the following drug substance properties is important for capsule size selection?

Select one of the following:

  • Melting Point

  • Bulk density

  • Particle Size

  • Drug solubility

Explanation

Question 2 of 80

1

Which of the following is not part of Capsule Quality Control program

Select one of the following:

  • Drug Content

  • Friability Test

  • Dissolution test

  • Fill Weight

  • Disintegration Test

Explanation

Question 3 of 80

1

The stability dating requirements of USP 795 for the extemporaneous compounding of capsules are

Select one of the following:

  • 4 months if prepared from USP/NF ingredients or 25% of remaining expiration dating if prepared from commercial products

  • 6 months if prepared from USP/NF ingredients or 50% of remaining expiration dating if prepared from commercial products

  • 2 months if prepared from USP/NF ingredients or 25% of remaining expiration dating if prepared from commercial products

  • 6 months if prepared from USP/NF ingredients or 25% of remaining expiration dating if prepared from commercial products

Explanation

Question 4 of 80

1

For human use, eight capsule sizes are available ranging from:

Select one of the following:

  • the smallest No. 000 to the largest No.5.

  • the smallest No. 5 to the largest No. 000

  • the smallest No. 01 to the largest No. 08.

  • the smallest No. 1 to the largest No. 8

Explanation

Question 5 of 80

1

The coni-snap® hard gelatin capsules have a unique design that:

Select one of the following:

  • Enables the two halves of the capsule shell to fit like a lock and key.

  • Enables the two halves of the capsule shell to be fit together by strong compression forces.

  • Enables the two halves of the capsule shell to be positively joined through locking grooves in the shell walls.

  • Enables the two halves of the capsule shell to be sealed with strong polymer adhesive

Explanation

Question 6 of 80

1

The USP content uniformity test for capsules specifies that:

Select one of the following:

  • 9 out of 10 capsules are within 80% to 120% of labeled drug amount

  • 9 out of 10 capsules are within 85% to 115% of labeled drug amount

  • 9 out of 10 capsules are within 70% to 125% of labeled drug amount

  • 9 out of 10 capsules are within 75% to 125% of labeled drug amount

Explanation

Question 7 of 80

1

Substances that absorb moisture from the air to the extent that they liquefy are called

Select one of the following:

  • Deliquescent

  • Levigated

  • Efflorescent

  • Hygroscopic

Explanation

Question 8 of 80

1

The following property is especially important in dermatologicals

Select one of the following:

  • Rapid Disintegration

  • Content Uniformity

  • Nongrittiness of solid particles

  • Fast dissolution rate

Explanation

Question 9 of 80

1

Phenobartital divided powders have the advantage of

Select one of the following:

  • Being dispensed in sifter-top containers

  • Spreading uniformly, and clinging to the skin upon application

  • Allowing physicians to prescribe a precise amount of the drug

  • Having no irritant properties when applied externally

Explanation

Question 10 of 80

1

Which of the following is FALSE regarding a dusting powder?

Select one of the following:

  • Should flow easily, spread uniformly, and cling to the skin upon application

  • Would generally be dispensed in sifter-top containers

  • Must be able to have a systemic effect

  • Must be free from potential of causing local irritation

Explanation

Question 11 of 80

1

Which of the following is a natural emulsifying agent?

Select one of the following:

  • Acacia

  • Brij

  • Benzakonium Chloride

  • Myrj

  • Sodium lauryl sulfate

Explanation

Question 12 of 80

1

The following powders when mixed are an example of a eutectic mixture

Select one of the following:

  • Zinc oxide and glycerin

  • Phenol and talc powder

  • Camphor and menthol

  • Camphor and lactose

Explanation

Question 13 of 80

1

Metered inhalation aerosols containing micronized medicated powders typically have

Select one of the following:

  • A particle size in the range of 18-26μm

  • A particle size in the range of 1-6μm

  • A particle size in the range of 12-18μm

  • A particle size in the range of 6-12μm

Explanation

Question 14 of 80

1

Which of the following is not a component of the Lacrimal Apparatus?

Select one of the following:

  • Lacrimal Gland

  • Lacrimal Sac

  • Lacrimal Muscle

  • Lacrimal Ducts

Explanation

Question 15 of 80

1

Aqueous humor is produced by filtration of blood plasma in the region known as the:

Select one of the following:

  • Choroid

  • Lacrimal Caruncle

  • Conjunctiva

  • Ciliary Body

Explanation

Question 16 of 80

1

Which of the following statements regarding the ophthalmic insert “Ocusert” is NOT true?

Select one of the following:

  • Clinical acceptance of the device has been slow

  • It is a controlled delivery device for the drug pilocarpine

  • It is designed to dissolve completely in lacrimal fluids within a few days of insertion

  • It is more costly than traditional delivery systems such as solutions

Explanation

Question 17 of 80

1

Which layer(s) of the cornea offers the greatest barrier(s) to absorption into the eye for hydrophilic drugs?

Select one of the following:

  • Endothelial layer

  • Epithelial layer

  • Stroma

  • b and c only

Explanation

Question 18 of 80

1

Cataracts are caused by

Select one of the following:

  • clouding of the lens caused by clumping of crystallins.

  • loss of elasticity of the lens with age.

  • sloughing (peeling) of the posterior layers of the lens caused by various diseases

  • destruction of the cuboidal epithelial lining on the anterior surface of the lens.

Explanation

Question 19 of 80

1

To prevent possible corneal damage, ophthalmic formulations should be buffered in the pH range of:

Select one of the following:

  • 4.5 to 10.5

  • 6.5 to 8.5

  • 3.5 to 11.5

  • 5.5 to 9.5

Explanation

Question 20 of 80

1

Which of the following is NOT an antioxidant that has been found appropriate for use in ophthalmic formulations?

Select one of the following:

  • Sodium metabisulfite

  • Sodium Bisulfite

  • Thimerosal

  • Ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid

Explanation

Question 21 of 80

1

Particle size can influence:

Select one of the following:

  • Penetrability of particles for inhalation (dry powder inhaler) for deposition deep in the respiratory tract.

  • Dissolution rate

  • Suspendability of suspensions

  • Uniformity of mixtures in powder dosage forms to ensure dose to dose content uniformity

  • All of the above

Explanation

Question 22 of 80

1

Below what pH will free phenobarbital begin to separate from a solution having an initial concentration of 2 g of sodium phenobarbital per 200 ml at 25 0C? The saturation solubility of phenobarbital is 0.005 M and the pKa =7.41 at 25 0C. Molecular weight of phenobarbital is 232 and sodium phenobarbital is 254.

Select one of the following:

  • 8.45

  • 8.25

  • 8.35

  • 8.55

  • 8.65

Explanation

Question 23 of 80

1

The process of comminution by utilizing a SOLVENT that can be easily removed is termed:

Select one of the following:

  • Geometric Dilution

  • Pulverization by intervention

  • Levigation

  • micronization

Explanation

Question 24 of 80

1

Which of the following is NOT an accurate characteristic of the rectum

Select one of the following:

  • It is nonmotile in the resting state

  • It is approximately 15 to 20 cm in length

  • The mucosal lining contains Goblet cells which release collagen into the lumen.

  • When void of fecal matter it has a fluid content of 2 to 3 ml

Explanation

Question 25 of 80

1

Of the veins that drain the blood from the rectal area, which one(s) bypass the liver and deliver blood directly to the systemic circulation?

Select one of the following:

  • The inferior and middle rectal veins

  • The inferior, middle and superior rectal veins

  • The inferior and superior rectal veins

  • The middle and superior rectal veins

Explanation

Question 26 of 80

1

The names of four drugs are given blow along with their corresponding density factors for cocoa butter.

A. Aminophylline (1.1)
B. Bismuth subnitrate (6.0)
C. Menthol (0.7)
D. Iodoform (4.0)

For which drug would the greatest weight be required in order to displace 1 gram of coca butter from a formulation?

Select one of the following:

  • A

  • B

  • C

  • D

Explanation

Question 27 of 80

1

Which of the following is NOT an advantage of drug dosing via the rectal route?

Select one of the following:

  • Drugs are not exposed to GI membrane enzymatic activity

  • It can be used for unconscious or debilitated patients

  • Absorption from the rectal area is more rapid and predictable than from other regions of the GI tract

  • Hepatic first-pass metabolism may be avoided partially or completely

Explanation

Question 28 of 80

1

The maximum amount of solid that can normally be incorporated into a suppository is ______ of the blank weight.

Select one of the following:

  • 50%

  • 40%

  • 30%

  • 10%

Explanation

Question 29 of 80

1

You desire to administer a drug rectally in order to obtain a rapid onset of action. Which of the following suppositories would you use?

Select one of the following:

  • An oleaginous base containing the unionized form of the drug

  • An oleaginous base containing a salt form of the drug

  • A water miscible base containing the unionized form of the drug

  • A water miscible base containing a salt form of the drug

Explanation

Question 30 of 80

1

You are preparing a cocoa butter suppository and have added ingredients that have lowered the melting point below that of room temperature. In order to elevate the melting point of the mixture you will add:

Select one of the following:

  • Beeswax

  • Chloral hydrate

  • Menthol

  • Camphor

Explanation

Question 31 of 80

1

The physical characteristics of Polyethylene glycol (PEG) polymers change with size. At what molecular weight do these polymers change from liquid to solid?

Select one of the following:

  • 100

  • 1000

  • 10000

  • 500

Explanation

Question 32 of 80

1

You prepared and recorded the disintegration time for salicylic acid capsules in different pH media. Which statement is TRUE?

Select one of the following:

  • The disintegration time of salicylic acid capsules was shortest in pH 7.4 buffer

  • The disintegration time of salicylic acid capsules was shortest in water

  • The disintegration time of salicylic acid capsules is longest in pH 1.2 buffer

  • The disintegration time of salicylic acid capsules was shortest in pH 1.2 buffer

Explanation

Question 33 of 80

1

Sedimentation rate of particles in suspension decreases with

Select one of the following:

  • Increase in the viscosity of dispersed phase

  • Increase in the particle size

  • Decrease in the viscosity of dispersed phase

  • Decrease in the viscosity of dispersion medium

  • Increase in the viscosity of dispersion medium

Explanation

Question 34 of 80

1

Shelf-life is generally based on the time when the active drug is greater than ______ of the labeled.

Select one of the following:

  • 99%

  • 95%

  • 90%

  • 85%

Explanation

Question 35 of 80

1

The pre-exponential factor, A, of the Arrhenius equation is representative of:

Select one of the following:

  • the probability that any given collision will result in a reaction

  • the total number of collisions per unit time, whether they lead to a reaction or not

  • the fraction of molecules in the reaction that have energies higher than that of the activation energy, Ea.

  • the total number of collisions per unit time that result in a reaction

Explanation

Question 36 of 80

1

A solution has a shelf-life of 10 hours at a temperature of 35oC. Use the Q10 method to estimate the shelf-life if the solution is stored in a refrigerator at 5oC. Use a value of 3 for Q10.

Select one of the following:

  • 30 hours

  • 90 hours

  • 150 hours

  • 270 hours

Explanation

Question 37 of 80

1

You are working in a pharmacy and are compounding a solid formulation in which the manufactured drug is the source of the active ingredient. The product’s expiration date is 16 months from today. What Beyond Use Date will you assign this formulation?

Select one of the following:

  • 6 months

  • 4 months

  • 30 days

  • 14 days

Explanation

Question 38 of 80

1

A pharmacist compounding a fine dusting powder typically would triturate the components of the formulation in a mortar with a pestle and subsequently pass the mixture through a (n):

Select one of the following:

  • #8 mesh sieve

  • #80 mesh sieve

  • #20 mesh sieve

  • #60 mesh sieve

Explanation

Question 39 of 80

1

Soft gelatin capsules are made of gelatin

Select one of the following:

  • to which polysorbate 80 has been added

  • to which glycerin has been added

  • to which mineral oil has been added

  • to which camphor has been added

Explanation

Question 40 of 80

1

Which one of the following has the highest aqueous solubility?

Select one of the following:

  • C6H5OH

  • C6H4(OH)2

  • C6H3Cl3

  • C6H5Cl

  • C6H3(OH)3

Explanation

Question 41 of 80

1

Which of the following is NOT a major factor affecting solubility?

Select one of the following:

  • Temperatur

  • pH of the solution

  • Polarity of the solvent

  • Polarity of the solute

  • Moleculare weight of the solvent

Explanation

Question 42 of 80

1

Active transport processes include all of the following except for which one?

Select one of the following:

  • Active transport of drug molecules may be saturated at high drug concentrations

  • Active transport moves drug molecules against a concentration gradient

  • active transport requires energy

  • Active transport follows fick's law of diffusion

  • Active transport is a carrier mediated transport system

Explanation

Question 43 of 80

1

When comparing an amorphous form of a drug to a crystalline form of a drug:

Select one of the following:

  • Amorphous forms dissolve more quickly

  • crystalline forms are more pharmacologically active

  • Metastable forms are more clinically effective

  • Amorphous forms are more chemically stable

Explanation

Question 44 of 80

1

According to the FDA Biopharmaceutics classification system, the class III type compounds are those with:

Select one of the following:

  • High solubility, low permiability

  • High solubility, high permeability

  • low solubility, low permeability

  • low solubility, high permeability

Explanation

Question 45 of 80

1

What imparts the pink color to Calamine USP

Select one of the following:

  • FD&C red no3

  • Carmine

  • Zinc Oxide

  • Ferric Oxide

Explanation

Question 46 of 80

1

Chemicals of indeterminate quality would be labeled as

Select one of the following:

  • USP/NF

  • ACS Reagent

  • Chemically Pure

  • Technical or commercial

Explanation

Question 47 of 80

1

this grade of ingredients is : High purity; conforms to minimum specifications set by the Reagent Chemicals Committee of the American Chemicals Society

Select one of the following:

  • USP/NF

  • ACS Reagent

  • Chemically Pure

  • Technical or commercial

Explanation

Question 48 of 80

1

This grade of chemicals is :More refined than technical or commercial grade but still of unknown quality

Select one of the following:

  • USP/NF

  • ACS Reagent

  • Chemically Pure

  • Technical or commercial

Explanation

Question 49 of 80

1

This grade of chemicals : Meets the minimum purity standards; and conforms to tolerances set by the United States Pharmacopeia/National Formulary for contaminants dangerous to health

Select one of the following:

  • USP/NF

  • ACS Reagent

  • Chemically Pure

  • Technical or commercial

Explanation

Question 50 of 80

1

Which of the following is NOT true for crystal polymorphs?

Select one of the following:

  • May have different solubility

  • May have different dissolution rates

  • May have different physical and chemical stability

  • May have different chemical structures

  • May have different melting points

Explanation

Question 51 of 80

1

Which condition usually increases the rate of drug dissolution from a tablet?

Select one of the following:

  • Use of enteric coating

  • Use of the ionized or salt of the drug

  • Use of the free acid or free base form of the drug

  • Decrease surface area of the drug

  • Increase particle size of the drug

Explanation

Question 52 of 80

1

Which of the following is FALSE regarding inconsistencies in dissolution rates?

Select one of the following:

  • Dose units within a batch typically give consistent dissolution results

  • dose units within a batch typically give inconsistent dissolution results

  • dissolution inconsistencies can occur between batches or products from the same manufacturer

  • Dissolution inconsistencies can occur between batches or products from different manufacturers

Explanation

Question 53 of 80

1

All of the following factors depend on the rate of active drug dissolution within the gastrointestinal content EXCEPT:

Select one of the following:

  • Fraction of the administered dose that is bioavailable

  • Time after administration until therapeutic action begins

  • Intensity of systemic pharmacologic effects

  • site of action in the body

Explanation

Question 54 of 80

1

Which of the following is FALSE regarding the need for a dosage form?

Select one of the following:

  • To provide for a safe and convenient delivery of accurate dosage

  • To conceal the bitter, salty, or offensive taste, or odor of a drug

  • To protect the drug substance from the destructive influences of atmospheric oxygen or humidity

  • To enhance the dissolution rate of a drug substance.

Explanation

Question 55 of 80

1

What is the minimum weighable quantity with no more than 5% error for a balance with a sensitivity requirement of 6mg?

Select one of the following:

  • 300mg

  • 30mg

  • 120mg

  • 3mg

Explanation

Question 56 of 80

1

The Prescription balance needed for weighing chemicals is currently designated as a class ____ balance by the national bureau of standards

Select one of the following:

  • I

  • II

  • III

  • P

  • Q

Explanation

Question 57 of 80

1

A Class III balance should have a sensitivity requirement of:

Select one of the following:

  • 10mg

  • 5mg

  • 6mg

  • 2mg

Explanation

Question 58 of 80

1

All of the following are part of the compendial requirements for tablets according to USP/NF EXCEPT:

Select one of the following:

  • Tablet Content Uniformity test

  • Tablet Weight Variation Test

  • Tablet Thickness Test

  • Tablet Dissolution test

  • Tablet Disintegration test

Explanation

Question 59 of 80

1

At the first sign of Angina attack the patient should reach out and:

Select one of the following:

  • Apply Nitro ointment to the chest

  • Apply a Nitro patch to the skin

  • Swallow a sustained release 2.5 mg Nitro capsule

  • Place a sublingual Nitro tablet under the tongue

Explanation

Question 60 of 80

1

The requirements for tablet content uniformity are met if the amount of active ingredient in each dose unit is within the range:

Select one of the following:

  • 95-105% of the label claim and the standard deviation less than 6%

  • 90-110% of the label claim with a standard deviation less than 6%

  • 85-115% of the label claim and a standard deviation of less than 6%

  • 80-120% of the label claim and a standard deviation of less than 6%

Explanation

Question 61 of 80

1

Which of the following excipients can NOT be used in the formulation of tetracycline antibiotics?

Select one of the following:

  • Microcrystalline cellulose

  • starch

  • talc powder

  • Calcium Phosphate

Explanation

Question 62 of 80

1

The partial or complete separation of the top or bottom crowns of a tablet from the main body of the tablet is known as

Select one of the following:

  • Lamination

  • Picking

  • Slugging

  • Capping

  • Mottling

Explanation

Question 63 of 80

1

All of the following statements reflect the importance of in-vitro dissolution testing EXCEPT:

Select one of the following:

  • It guides the formulation and product development towards product optimization

  • It is a requirement for regulatory approval of marketed products registered with the FDA

  • It is important for guiding the testing of class I BCS type compounds

  • Consistent dissolution testing ensures bioequivalence between batch to batch

Explanation

Question 64 of 80

1

Which of the following organic esters is commonly used in enteric coating of solid dosage forms?

Select one of the following:

  • Phosphate

  • Tannate

  • Acrylate

  • Phthalate

  • Succinate

Explanation

Question 65 of 80

1

Which of the following is NOT a candidate for an extended release product?

Select one of the following:

  • Drug with narrow therapeutic index

  • Drug administered in relatively small doses

  • Drug that exhibits neither slow nor fast rate of excretion

  • Drug must be absorbed/excreted at a moderate rate

  • Drug used in the treatment of chronic conditions

Explanation

Question 66 of 80

1

Which of the following products is an osmotic oral release system?

Select one of the following:

  • Spansule Capsule

  • Glucotrol XL

  • Micro-K10 extencaps

  • Desoxyn gradument

Explanation

Question 67 of 80

1

What is a feature of Procardia XL tablets?

Select one of the following:

  • Tablet remains intact in the stool

  • Rapid disintegration to quickly release components

  • Protect the drug from the acidic stomach environment

  • Fast dissolving of the outer core of the tablet allowing the drug dose to be immediately available

  • Orally disintegrating tablet which releases in the mouth within 1 minute

Explanation

Question 68 of 80

1

Tablets that are characterized by disintegrating or dissolving in the mouth within 1 minute are called:

Select one of the following:

  • Effervescent Tablets

  • Enteric coated Tablets

  • Modified release tablets

  • Immediate release tablets

  • Rapidly dissolving Tablets

Explanation

Question 69 of 80

1

Which chapter in the USP/NF provides for the procedures and requirements for nonsterile type of compounding?

Select one of the following:

  • 1075

  • 1163

  • 795

  • 797

  • 1160

Explanation

Question 70 of 80

1

In which of the following kinetic processes does the value of the half-life remain constant irrespective of time or amount of reactant?

Select one of the following:

  • Second order

  • First order

  • Zero order

  • All of the above

Explanation

Question 71 of 80

1

You prepare 2 plots. One you plot ln(Y) vs time. One you plot log(Y) vs time. Both plots yield straight lines. For which of these plots is the negative slope the steepest?

Select one of the following:

  • Plot of ln(Y) vs time

  • Plot of Log(Y) vs time

  • The slopes of the two lines are the same

  • The slopes depend on the amounts of Y present initially

Explanation

Question 72 of 80

1

The rate constant (k) is 0.08 moles/minute. If we begin the rxn with 10 moles of Y, how much Y will disappear in the first minute of the reaction

Select one of the following:

  • 0.08 moles

  • 0.4 moles

  • 0.8 moles

  • 10 moles

Explanation

Question 73 of 80

1

A ________ Dispersion has particles that range in the diameter from 1nm to 0.5micron and that are visible in an electron microscope but not an ordinary optical microscope

Select one of the following:

  • Molecular

  • Cellular

  • Coarse

  • Colloidal

Explanation

Question 74 of 80

1

Which of the following types of compounds would be least susceptible to degradation via oxidation

Select one of the following:

  • Alcohols

  • Esters

  • Aldehydes

  • Molecules with unsaturated linkages

Explanation

Question 75 of 80

1

The most important cause of drug decomposition is

Select one of the following:

  • Oxidation

  • Reduction

  • hydrolysis

  • condensation

Explanation

Question 76 of 80

1

How many half lives would it take for 90% of any initial concentration of a drug to disappear from a reaction vessel, assuming first order chemical kinetics?

Select one of the following:

  • 6.7

  • 4.3

  • 2.7

  • 3.3

Explanation

Question 77 of 80

1

In which of the following kinetic processes is the rate constant the same as the rate?

Select one of the following:

  • Zero-order

  • Second-order

  • Michaelis-Menten

  • first-order

Explanation

Question 78 of 80

1

When the concentration of the drug (Y) is low (Y<<K), the process will best be described by:

Select one of the following:

  • Zero-order

  • First-order

  • Second-order

  • Unimolecularity

Explanation

Question 79 of 80

1

An Inert system is:

Select one of the following:

  • Thermodynamically stable and kinetically stable

  • Thermodynamically unstable and kinetically unstable

  • Thermodynamically stable and kinetically unstable

  • Thermodynamically unstable and kinetically stable

Explanation

Question 80 of 80

1

Which kinetic process is linear

Select one of the following:

  • Zero-order

  • First-order

  • Both A and B

  • Neither a nor B

Explanation

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