Esther Yook
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assessment 1.2

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Esther Yook
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Assessment 1.2 Turning point

Assessment 1.2 Turning point

Question 1 of 49

1

Which of the following statements is not true regarding the need for a dosage form:

Select one of the following:

  • To protect the drug substance from the destructive influences of atmospheric oxygen or humidity

  • To conceal the bitter, salty, or offensive taste or odor of a drug substance.

  • To avoid drug-drug interactions thus providing greater clinical efficacy.

  • To provide for a safe and convenient delivery of accurate dosage

Explanation

Question 2 of 49

1

Which of the following is not true for different crystal polymorphs

Select one of the following:

  • May have different solubility

  • May have different dissolution rate

  • May have different chemical structure

  • May have different melting point

  • May have different physical and chemical stability

Explanation

Question 3 of 49

1

Biopharmaceutics Classification System is used to classify drugs based on

Select one of the following:

  • Melting point and pH

  • Aqueous solubility and bioavailability

  • Aqueous solubility and dissolution rate

  • Intestinal permeability and particle size

  • Dissolution rate and Intestinal permeability

  • Dissolution rate, aqueous solubility and intestinal permeability

Explanation

Question 4 of 49

1

When being incorporated into ointment bases, fine powders such as calamine and zinc oxide are often wetted and smoothed with mineral oil. What name is given to this process

Select one of the following:

  • Attrition

  • Levigation

  • Milling (pulverizing /grinding)

  • Pulverization by intervention

  • trituration

Explanation

Question 5 of 49

1

Which factor does not affect the rate and extent of absorption from immediate release solid dosage froms

Select one of the following:

  • Solubility

  • Dissolution

  • Appearance

  • Permeability

  • Particle size

Explanation

Question 6 of 49

1

Which of the following is NOT a reason for the extemporaneous preparation of a dosage form

Select one of the following:

  • Shortage of a marketed dosage form

  • Need a liquid dosage form for treating a pediatric patient

  • Medication is not commercially available

  • Geriatric patient is able to swallow solid oral dosage form

  • Patient may be allergic to preservative or dyes contained in the drug product

Explanation

Question 7 of 49

1

Which of the following is used in tablet formulations to reduce friction during tablet compression

Select one of the following:

  • Talc powder (Glidant)

  • Lactose (Diluents or Fillers)

  • Gum Acacia (Binders)

  • Magnesium stearate

  • Starch (Disintegrant)

  • Sodium carboxymethyl cellulose (Coatings)

Explanation

Question 8 of 49

1

Before placing a patient onto IV fat emulsions, the pharmacist should confirm that the patient does not have:

Select one of the following:

  • Egg allergies

  • Sensitivities to bisulfate

  • Milk intolerance

  • Lactose intolerance

  • Sensitivities to tartrazine

Explanation

Question 9 of 49

1

Based on the pH partition theory, weakly acidic drugs are most likely to be absorbed from the stomach because:

Select one of the following:

  • The drugs will exist primarily in the unionized, more lipid-soluble form

  • The drugs will exist primarily in the ionized, more water soluble form

  • Weak acids are more soluble in acid media

  • The ionic form of the drug facilitates dissolution

  • Weak acids will further lower the pH

Explanation

Question 10 of 49

1

The passage of drug molecules from a region of high drug concentration to a region of low drug concentration is known as:

Select one of the following:

  • Active transport

  • Bioavailability

  • Biopharmaceutics

  • Simple diffusion

  • Pinocytosis

Explanation

Question 11 of 49

1

A prime consideration in biopharmaceutics is a drug’s “biovavailability” which refers to the relative amount of drug that reaches the :

Select one of the following:

  • small intestine

  • stomach

  • Systemic circulation

  • Liver

  • kidneys

Explanation

Question 12 of 49

1

Which of the following is not true if a physician would like the patient to use a generic product equivalent to the brand-name product

Select one of the following:

  • Both the generic and the brand-name drug products must be pharmaceutical equivalents

  • Both the generic and the brand-name drug products must have the same bioavailability

  • Both the generic and the brand-name drug products must have the same excipients

  • Both the generic and the brand-name drug products must have identical amounts of the API

Explanation

Question 13 of 49

1

Dosage forms of nitroglycerin that are minimally affected by the First-Pass effect include:
I. Intravenous
II. Transdermal patches
III. Sublingual tablets

Select one of the following:

  • I only

  • III only

  • I and II only

  • II and III only

  • I, II and III

Explanation

Question 14 of 49

1

Which of the following is not an advantage of a tablet dosage form:

Select one of the following:

  • Accurate dosage/minimum variability

  • Easiest/cheapest to package and ship

  • Swallowing

  • Patient acceptance

  • Convenience (light and compact)

  • Tamper resistant

Explanation

Question 15 of 49

1

Which of the following IVIVC classes is the intestinal permeability the rate limiting step in systemic drug absorption?

Select one of the following:

  • Class IV

  • Class II

  • Class III

  • Class I

Explanation

Question 16 of 49

1

Which of the following is the primary purpose of orally disintegrating tablet:

Select one of the following:

  • Avoid exposure of content to stomach acid

  • Avoid hepatic first-pass effect

  • Increase drug bioavailability

  • Increase ease of swallowing

Explanation

Question 17 of 49

1

Which of the following organic esters is commonly used in enteric coating of solid dosage forms:

Select one of the following:

  • Phthalate

  • Tannate

  • Succinate

  • Acrylate

  • Phosphate

Explanation

Question 18 of 49

1

Which of the following tablet dosage forms avoids the hepatic first-pass effects?

Select one of the following:

  • Enteric coating

  • Instantly disintegrating

  • Chewable

  • Sublingual

  • Film coated

Explanation

Question 19 of 49

1

The partial or complete separation of the top or bottom crowns of a tablet from the main body of the tablet is known as:

Select one of the following:

  • Lamination

  • Slugging

  • Capping

  • Mottling

  • Picking

Explanation

Question 20 of 49

1

False statement regarding the function of excipients used in tablet manufacture

Select one of the following:

  • Binders promote granulation during the wet granulation process

  • Glidants help promote the flow of the tablet granulation during manufacture

  • Lubricants help patient swallow the tablets

  • Disintegrants are added to tablet formulations to facilitate the disintegration when the tablet contacts water in the gastrointestinal tract.

Explanation

Question 21 of 49

1

Which manufacturing variables would be likely to affect the dissolution of a prednisone tablet in the body?

Select one of the following:

  • The amount and type of binder

  • The amount and type of disintegrant added

  • The force of compression used during tableting

  • All of the above

Explanation

Question 22 of 49

1

If the preparation is compounded from USP/NF ingredients,

Select one of the following:

  • a beyond-use date of 3 months is appropriate

  • a beyond-use date of 6 months is appropriate

  • a beyond-use date of 9 months is appropriate

  • a beyond-use date of 12 months is appropriate

Explanation

Question 23 of 49

1

Inconsistent in-vitro dissolution test results for the same solid oral dosage form of the same drug and strength generally indicate differences in all of the following EXCEPT:

Select one of the following:

  • Dose units containing the same amount of drug but from different manufacturing process by the same manufacturer

  • Dose units from different batches or lots by the same manufacturer

  • Dose units from different manufacturers

  • Dose units from the same batch or lot

Explanation

Question 24 of 49

1

The United States Pharmacopeia (USP) content uniformity test for tablets is used to ensure which quality?

Select one of the following:

  • Bioequivalence

  • Dissolution

  • Potency

  • Purity

  • Toxicity

Explanation

Question 25 of 49

1

Which of the following is most likely to occur with high speed machines that produce ≥ 10,000 tablets per minute?

Select one of the following:

  • Granulation underfilling

  • Excessive tablet hardness

  • Inconsistent tablet weights

  • Capping

Explanation

Question 26 of 49

1

United Stated Pharmacopeia (USP) tests to ensure the quality of drug products in tablet form include all of the following EXCEPT:

Select one of the following:

  • Disintegration

  • Dissolution

  • Hardness and friability

  • Content uniformity

  • Weight variation

Explanation

Question 27 of 49

1

Which of the following is false regarding dusting powders

Select one of the following:

  • Dusted on the skin , no systemic action

  • Must be homogenous, free from potential of causing local irritation

  • Should flow easily, spread uniformly, and cling to the skin upon application

  • Have a systemic action

  • Generally dispensed in sifter-top containers

Explanation

Question 28 of 49

1

Which of the following drug substance property is important for capsule size selection

Select one of the following:

  • Bulk density

  • Particle size

  • Drug substance solubility

  • Melting point

Explanation

Question 29 of 49

1

Which of the following is not part of Capsule Quality Control program

Select one of the following:

  • Drug Content

  • Fill Weight

  • Disintegration

  • Dissolution

  • Hardness

  • Stability

  • Moisture permeation test

Explanation

Question 30 of 49

1

The community pharmacist intends to prepare a fine dusting powder by triturating the components of the formulation in a mortar with a pestle and subsequently passing the mixture through a:

Select one of the following:

  • 80 mesh sieve

  • 60 mesh sieve

  • 20 mesh sieve

  • 8 mesh sieve

Explanation

Question 31 of 49

1

Which of the following can be influenced by Particle Size:

Select one of the following:

  • Dissolution rate

  • Suspendability of suspensions

  • Uniformity of mixtures in powder dosage forms to ensure dose to dose content uniformity

  • Penetrability of particles for inhalation (dry powder inhaler) for deposition deep in the respiratory tract.

  • Nongrittiness of solid particles for ointments, creams, gels

  • All of the above

Explanation

Question 32 of 49

1

When of the following drug substances will soften or liquefy when grinded

Select one of the following:

  • Lactose

  • Starch

  • Camphor

  • Magnesium stearate

  • Sodium carboxy methylcellulose

Explanation

Question 33 of 49

1

Which of the following is NOT an accurate characteristic of the rectum?

Select one of the following:

  • It is approximately 15 – 20 cm in length

  • When void of fecal matter it has a fluid content of 2-3 ml

  • It is non-motile in resting state

  • The mucosal lining contains Goblet cells which release collagen into the lumen

Explanation

Question 34 of 49

1

Of the veins that drain the blood from the rectal area, which one(s) bypass the liver and deliver blood directly to the systemic circulation?

Select one of the following:

  • The inferior and middle rectal veins

  • The inferior and superior rectal veins

  • The middle and superior rectal veins

  • The inferior, middle and superior rectal veins

Explanation

Question 35 of 49

1

Which of the following is NOT an advantage of drug dosing via rectal route?

Select one of the following:

  • It can be used for unconscious patients

  • Rapid and predictable absorption as compared to other regions of GI tract

  • Hepatic first-pass metabolism may be avoided partially or completely

  • Drugs are not exposed to GI membrane enzymatic activity

Explanation

Question 36 of 49

1

The maximum amount of solid that can normally be incorporated into a suppository is ______ of the blank weight.

Select one of the following:

  • 20%

  • 30%

  • 40%

  • 50%

Explanation

Question 37 of 49

1

While preparing a cocoa butter suppository with other ingredients, the melting point is lowered below that of room temperature. To elevate the melting point of the mixture you will add (select all that apply):

Select one of the following:

  • Chloral hydrate

  • Menthol

  • Camphor

  • Beeswax

Explanation

Question 38 of 49

1

Above what molecular weight do PEG polymers change from liquid to solid ?

Select one of the following:

  • 100

  • 500

  • 1000

  • 5000

Explanation

Question 39 of 49

1

The density factors of four drugs for cocoa butter are given below. For which drug would the greatest weight be required in order to displace 1 g of cocoa butter from a formulation ?

Select one of the following:

  • Aminophylline (1.1)

  • Bismuth subnitrate (6.0)

  • Menthol (0.7)

  • Iodoform (4.0)

Explanation

Question 40 of 49

1

Pharmacist patient-counseling points for proper use of rectal suppositories includes all of the following EXCEPT:

Select one of the following:

  • PEG suppositories should not be stored in polystyrene vials because they react with polystyrene.

  • Before insertion PEG suppositories should be moistened with water.

  • Cocoa butter suppositories should be frozen first and then immediately inserted.

  • Suppositories should be inserted in an adult up to the first knuckle depth (~1 inch).

Explanation

Question 41 of 49

1

Compared to the oral route of administration, all of the following are advantages of the rectalroute of administration EXCEPT:

Select one of the following:

  • An effective route for treating nausea and vomiting.

  • Drugs are activated by the pH in the rectum to increase absorption.

  • Useful for administering drugs that cause stomach irritation.

  • Avoids first-pass hepatic deactivation.

Explanation

Question 42 of 49

1

When using cocoa butter suppositories, which of the following drugs will result in the slowest drug release?

Select one of the following:

  • Ionized hydrophilic drug

  • Unionized hydrophilic drug

  • Unionized lipophilic drug

  • Salt form of the drug

Explanation

Question 43 of 49

1

Which of the following is NOT a component of the Lacrimal Apparatus?

Select one of the following:

  • Lacrimal gland

  • Lacrimal ducts

  • Lacrimal sac

  • Lacrimal muscle

Explanation

Question 44 of 49

1

Which layer(s) of the cornea offers the greatest barrier(s) to absorption into the eye for hydrophilic drugs?

Select one of the following:

  • Epithelial layer

  • Stroma

  • Endothelial layer

  • 2 and 3 only

Explanation

Question 45 of 49

1

To prevent possible corneal damage, ophthalmic formulations should be buffered in the pH range of:

Select one of the following:

  • 3.5 to 11.5

  • 4.5 to 10.5

  • 5.5 to 9.5

  • 6.5 to 8.5

Explanation

Question 46 of 49

1

Which of the following is NOT an antioxidant that has been found appropriate for use in ophthalmic formulations?

Select one of the following:

  • Ethylenediaminetetra-acetic acid

  • Sodium Bisulfite

  • Thimerosal

  • Sodium metabisulfite

Explanation

Question 47 of 49

1

pH buffers for ophthalmic solutions are designed and intended to provide all of the following EXCEPT:

Select one of the following:

  • Patient comfort

  • Decreasing systemic absorption

  • Increasing drug stability

  • Increasing drug solubility

Explanation

Question 48 of 49

1

The respiratory region of the nasal cavity is believed to be most suitable for drug delivery because:

Select one of the following:

  • It is poorly supplied with blood vessels

  • It has a relatively large surface area

  • It contains stratified keratinized epithelial cells

  • It directly drains into the lungs

Explanation

Question 49 of 49

1

All of the following statements about nasal drug delivery are true EXCEPT:

Select one of the following:

  • Nasal bioavailability of a drug is typically lower than intravenous bioavailability

  • Nasally administered anesthetic agents can get absorbed by the olfactory region

  • Nasally absorbed drugs can bypass extensive hepatic metabolism

  • Nasal congestion does not affect the bioavailability of the drug

Explanation

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