Pass ASCP Question of The Day

Question 1 of 1

10

Which of the following best describes the benefits of the RPR or VDRL tests:

Select one of the following:

Diagnostic of active syphilis
Diagnostic of latent syphilis
Diagnostic of neuro-syphilis
Monitoring course of treatment

Explanation

Question 2 of 1

10

The National Heart, Lung, and Blood Institute (NHLBI) and American Heart Association (AHA) have created a set of parameters to define the presence of metabolic syndrome.
Select the set of laboratory assays that are utilized in the NHLBI and AHA criteria for metabolic syndrome diagnosis.

Select one of the following:

LDL-C, triglycerides, HDL-C, and fasting blood glucose
Fasting blood glucose, triglycerides, insulin, and VLDL
Fasting blood glucose, triglycerides, HDL-C
Fasting blood glucose, triglycerides, HDL-C, and VLDL

Explanation

Question 3 of 1

10

If test scores are significantly skewed, which measurement of central tendency is best?

Select one of the following:

Mean
Median
Mode
Range

Explanation

Question 4 of 1

10

Which genotype is associated with alpha thalassemia minor?

Select one of the following:

-a/aa
-a/-a
--/-a
--/--

Explanation

Question 5 of 1

10

What is the increase in the risk for developing antibodies against red cell antigens (RBC alloimmunization) for patients who are characterized as chronically transfused patients?

Select one of the following:

1% - 4%
2% - 8%
5% - 10%
30% or greater

Explanation

Question 6 of 1

10

Which of the following tests on amniotic fluid would be included when assessing fetal lung maturity:

Select one of the following:

Alpha Fetoprotein
Bilirubin
L/S Ratio
Fetal hemoglobin

Explanation

Question 7 of 1

10

Which marker is most useful for the detection of gestational trophoblastic disease?

Select one of the following:

CEA (Carcinoembryonic antigen)
AFP (a-fetoprotein)
hCG (human chorionic gonadotropin)
CA-125 (cancer antigen 125)

Explanation

Question 8 of 1

10

All of the following are Lancefield carbohydrate antigens found on beta-hemolytic Streptococcus species. All of the following antigens are found on organisms from the Streptococcus anginosus group EXCEPT?

Select one of the following:

A
B
F
G

Explanation

Question 9 of 1

10

Which of the following errors occurs in the pre-analytical phase?

Select one of the following:

Incorrectly performed instrument calibration
Incorrectly collected sample
Incorrectly handled critical test value
Incorrectly performed dilution on the instrument

Explanation

Question 10 of 1

10

A variety of additives are used in blood collection tubes. Which of the following additives prevents clotting by inhibiting thrombin and thromboplastin?

Select one of the following:

EDTA
Gel
Lithium or sodium heparin
Sodium fluoride

Explanation

Question 11 of 1

10

Homogentisic acid in urine will cause urine to be which of the following colors?

Select one of the following:

Green
Pink
Port-wine
Brown/black

Explanation

Question 12 of 1

10

If detected in antibody screen testing, which of the following antibodies is NOT considered clinically significant in prenatal patients?

Select one of the following:

Anti-M
Anti-N
Anti-Leb
Anti-Fya

Explanation

Question 13 of 1

10

Approximately how many doses are required to obtain a steady-state oscillation allowing for peak and trough levels to be evaluated?

Select one of the following:

1 to 2
3 to 4
5 to 7
> 10

Explanation

Question 14 of 1

10

From the IgG molecule illustration, which region is the heavy chain?

Select one of the following:

A
B
C
D

Explanation

Question 15 of 1

10

What is the identification of this organism that measures 12 µm and is found in stool?

Select one of the following:

Pneumocystis carinii cyst
Entamoeba coli cyst
Endolimax nana cyst
Iodamoeba butschlii cyst

Explanation

Question 16 of 1

10

All of the terms below are a measure of central tendency, EXCEPT:

Select one of the following:

Mean
Molarity
Median
Mode

Explanation

Question 17 of 1

10

The presence of an increased number of hypersegmented neutrophils in the peripheral blood, as shown in this image, is an indication of which of the following conditions?

Select one of the following:

Preleukemia
Megaloblastic anemia
Aplastic anemia
Myeloproliferative disorder

Explanation

Question 18 of 1

10

All of the following carbohydrates are considered reducing sugars EXCEPT:

Select one of the following:

Lactose
Sucrose
Glucose
Ribose

Explanation

Question 19 of 1

10

Which of the following tests require a 72-hour stool (fecal) collection?

Select one of the following:

Occult blood
Quantitative fecal fat
Ova and Parasite (O&P)
Stool culture

Explanation

Question 20 of 1

10

Which antinuclear antibody (ANA) pattern is seen in the image on the right, which represents the result of an ANA test viewed using fluorescent microscopy?
Note: (a) points to the nuclei of interphase cells, the primary consideration for discerning the ANA pattern and (b) indicates a metaphase mitotic cell.

Select one of the following:

There is no discernable pattern
Homogeneous
Centromere
Nucleolar

Explanation

Question 21 of 1

10

Which of the following gastrointestinal pathogens has an incubation period of 1-8 hours?

Select one of the following:

Salmonella spp.
Listeria monocytogenes
Staphylococcus aureus
Vibrio spp.

Explanation

Question 22 of 1

10

Which of the following analytes would be increased due to a delay in centrifugation?

Select one of the following:

Bicarbonate
Folate
Ionized Calcium
ALT

Explanation

Question 23 of 1

10

Which of the following phrases best describes a segmented neutrophil?

Select one of the following:

Cytoplasm appears pink-purple due to small specific granules.
Cytoplasm contains large red-orange granules.
Cytoplasm is a pale blue color with a ground glass appearance.
Cytoplasm is clear with no granules.

Explanation

Question 24 of 1

10

All of the following represent a 2 week temporary deferral from donating blood or blood products EXCEPT:

Select one of the following:

Measles (rubeola) vaccine
German measles (rubella) vaccine
Mumps vaccine
Polio vaccine

Explanation

Question 25 of 1

10

The ketone component that is measured by the nitroprusside reaction is:

Select one of the following:

Acetoacetic acid
Beta-hydroxybutyric acid
Acetone
C-Reactive Protein

Explanation

Question 26 of 1

10

This antinuclear antibody (ANA) pattern is characterized by granular staining in the nuclei of the interphase cells (a). There is also an absence of staining in the chromosomal area of the metaphase mitotic cells (b). The slide is viewed using fluorescent microscopy.
Which pattern is this?

Select one of the following:

Homogeneous
Speckled
Nucleolar
Centromere

Explanation

Question 27 of 1

10

Which one of the following statements about Campylobacter jejuni is false?

Select one of the following:

It can occur in domestic animals, raw milk, and undercooked poultry.
It does not require special incubation conditions to grow in culture.
It is associated with neutrophils in the stool.
It is a curved gram-negative rod.

Explanation

Question 28 of 1

10

A blood collection system that has a retractable needle malfunctions and causes an injury to a patient. Which of the following actions must be taken?

Select one of the following:

An incident report must be completed.
The phlebotomist must be retrained
The phlebotomist must be reprimanded
The patient must be given a Hepatitis C vaccine.

Explanation

Question 29 of 1

10

Platelets are:

Select one of the following:

The smallest nucleated cells seen in normal peripheral blood.
The largest nucleated cells seen in normal peripheral blood.
Fragments of megakaryocyte cytoplasm and do not contain nuclei
Fragments of neutrophils

Explanation

Question 30 of 1

10

All of the following laboratory tests are used to determine kidney function, EXCEPT?

Select one of the following:

Creatinine
Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
Amylase
Phosphorus

Explanation

Question 31 of 1

10

What procedure utilizes leukapheresis to collect the buffy coat from whole blood?

Select one of the following:

Photopheresis
Plasmapheresis
Therapeutic apheresis
Erythrocytapheresis

Explanation

Question 32 of 1

10

Which of the following may be seen in a CSF sample of a patient that has a subarachnoid (intracranial) hemorrhage (SAH)?

Select one of the following:

Macrophages containing hemosiderin
Uneven distribution of blood in CSF tubes collected
Clot is present in the CSF sample
Supernatant of CSF sample does not have xanthochromia

Explanation

Question 33 of 1

10

A patient has a history of repeated spontaneous abortion. Coagulation studies reveal an elevated APTT, normal PT, normal platelet function, and normal thrombin time. Schistocytes were seen on the peripheral blood smear.

Which test should be performed to determine if the patient has lupus anticoagulant?

Select one of the following:

Factor VIII assay
Mixing studies with factor-deficient plasmas
Antinuclear antibody test
Platelet neutralization test

Explanation

Question 34 of 1

10

Which of the following Clostridium spp. produces a toxin that is a potential bioweapon?

Select one of the following:

Clostridium perfringens
Clostridium tetani
Clostridium botulinum
Clostridium sordellii

Explanation

Question 35 of 1

10

Which type of lipoprotein is the least dense?

Select one of the following:

Chylomicrons
VLDL
LDL
HDL

Explanation

Question 36 of 1

10

Which one of these Lewis blood group system phenotypes usually produces anti-Lea?

Select one of the following:

Le(a+b+)
Le(a+b-)
Le(a-b+)
Le(a-b-)

Explanation

Question 37 of 1

10

This species of Candida accounts for around 20 percent of urinary yeast isolates.

Select one of the following:

Candida albicans
Candida glabrata
Candida krusei
Candida tropicalis

Explanation

Question 38 of 1

10

Suppose a patient with stiffness in her fingers has a positive antinuclear antibody (ANA) test with a centromere pattern at a 1:1280 titer. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Select one of the following:

Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)
Rheumatoid arthritis
Sjogren's syndrome
CREST syndrome

Explanation

Question 39 of 1

10

The measurement of sodium and chloride in the sweat is the most useful test for the diagnosis of what condition/disease?

Select one of the following:

Steatorrhea
Direct determination of the exocrine secretory capacity of the pancreas.
Cystic fibrosis
Zollinger-Ellison syndrome

Explanation

Question 40 of 1

10

How does hydroxyurea aid in the treatment of sickle cell disease?

Select one of the following:

Acts as an analgesic in pain management.
Prevents sickle cells from clumping together.
Induces increased production of HbF.
Reduces the number of sickle cells that form.

Explanation

Question 41 of 1

10

CD5 antigen is normally found on which of the following lymphocyte populations?

Select one of the following:

Mature T cells
Normal B cells
Both mature T cells and normal B cells
None of the above, CD5 is not a lymphoid marker

Explanation

Question 42 of 1

10

When identifying Mycobacteria by molecular methods, the most reliable gene sequence is:

Select one of the following:

23S
16S
ITS 1
rpoB

Explanation

Question 43 of 1

10

Donor red blood cells (RBCs) were collected on July 12th of this year. The RBCs were then frozen in glycerol on July 17th (5 days later) and stored at -65o C.

What should the expiration date read on the frozen RBC unit?

Select one of the following:

July 12th; 1 year from collection date
July 17th; 1 year from freezing date
July 17th; 10 years from freezing date
July 12th; 10 years from collection date

Explanation

Question 44 of 1

10

A reaction is in ____________ kinetics when the reaction rate depends only on enzyme concentration.

Select one of the following:

Zero-order
First-order
Second-order
Mixed-order

Explanation

Question 45 of 1

10

This suspicious form, found in a trichrome-stained stool specimen, measures 10 µm. What is the identification?

Select one of the following:

Endolimax nana trophozoite
Entamoeba coli trophozoite
Chilomastix mesnili trophozoite
Pseudoparasite

Explanation

Question 46 of 1

10

Which of the following genotypes is found with the highest frequency in the Caucasian population?

Select one of the following:

CDe/cDe
cDE/ce
cDE/cE
CDe/ce

Explanation

Question 47 of 1

10

What is a typical finding for determining the endpoint for the initial or iron-depletion phase of treatment for hereditary hemochromatosis (HH)?

Select one of the following:

The serum ferritin decreases to between 20 and 50 ng/mL
The hepatic iron index returns to normal
The transferrin saturation drops below 20%
The serum iron falls to below 35 µg/dL.

Explanation

Question 48 of 1

10

Pseudomonas aeruginosa was isolated from a sputum specimen. Susceptibility testing was performed and the microbiologist determined that further evaluation was needed before reporting out the susceptibilities. Which of the antibiotic results would indicate a need for further evaluation?

Select one of the following:

Amikacin resistant, Gentamicin or tobramycin sensitive, Carbapenem-resistant
Amikacin sensitive, Gentamicin or tobramycin sensitive, Carbapenem-resistant
Amikacin resistant, Gentamicin or tobramycin sensitive, Carbapenem sensitive
Amikacin sensitive, Gentamicin or tobramycin sensitive, Carbapenem sensitive

Explanation

Question 49 of 1

10

What is the shelf-life of whole blood collected in CPDA-1?

Select one of the following:

21 days
28 days
35 days
48 days

Explanation

Question 50 of 1

10

What drug may be used to decrease iron levels in patients with iron overload?

Select one of the following:

Desferrioxamine
Cobalamin
Antibiotics
Eculizumab

Explanation

Question 51 of 1

10

Which of the following animals is a likely source of human tularemia infections?

Select one of the following:

Wild rats
Wild rabbits
Dairy cattle
Domestic cats

Explanation

Question 52 of 1

10

A standard blood donation of 450-500 mL requires a minimum anticoagulant-preservative solution volume of:

Select one of the following:

57 mL
63 mL
70 mL
82 mL

Explanation

Question 53 of 1

10

All of the following hormones stimulate gluconeogenesis, the formation of glucose from noncarbohydrate sources such as amino acids, glycerol, and fatty acids, EXCEPT?

Select one of the following:

Insulin
Thyroxine (T4)
Cortisol
Glucagon

Explanation

Question 54 of 1

10

This image depicts a scavenger that lives in the mouth and measures about 10 µm. What is the identification of this organism?

Select one of the following:

Trichomonas hominis cyst
Entamoeba gingivalis trophozoite
Trichomonas vaginalis cyst
Trichomonas tenax trophozoite

Explanation

Question 55 of 1

10

In which of the following conditions would one see Pappenheimer bodies on the peripheral blood smear?

Select one of the following:

Iron deficiency anemia
Malarial infections
G6PD deficiency
Splenectomies

Explanation

Question 56 of 1

10

Chloroquine diphosphate can be used in blood banking for which of the following methodologies?

Select one of the following:

To remove antibody bound to red cells so that cells can be further tested
To remove an specific antibody in serum or plasma
To remove ABO antigens from cells
To remove Rh antigens from cells

Explanation

Question 57 of 1

10

A male patient’s urea nitrogen value is 15 mg/dL and his creatinine is 5 mg/dL. If this patient is not undergoing dialysis, what conclusion would you draw from these results?

Select one of the following:

The patient's laboratory results are normal
The patient is in the early stage of renal disease
One of the values is in error
The patient has suffered muscle deterioration

Explanation

Question 58 of 1

10

The tubes shown in this photograph reading from left to right are Kligler Iron Agar (KIA), tryptophane broth for detecting indole and Simmon's citrate. The KIA tube shows an entirely yellow slant and butt, the indole tube shows a layer of red color, and the Simmon's citrate tube is green in color. Of the bacterial species listed, the one most likely to produce the reactions observed is:

Select one of the following:

Shigella flexneri
Escherichia coli
Klebsiella oxytoca
Enterobacter aerogenes

Explanation

Question 59 of 1

10

The first time a cell containing HbSS is deoxygenated, it forms a sickle cell. Upon reoxygenation, which of the following is true for the sickle cell?

Select one of the following:

It will remain sickled.
It will return to a normal biconcave shape.
It will turn into a codocyte (target cell).
It will appear as an echinocyte (burr cell).

Explanation

Question 60 of 1

10

The qualitative differences between A1 and A2 phenotypes includes all of the following EXCEPT:

Select one of the following:

The formation of anti-A1 in A subgroups.
The amount of transferase enzymes.
The length of the precursor oligosaccharide chains.
The lack of agglutination of patient red cells with anti-A reagent.

Explanation

Question 61 of 1

10

The accuracy of an immunoassay is its ability to discriminate between results that are true positive and results that are true negative. Two parameters of test accuracy are specificity and sensitivity. Which of these statements apply to an immunoassay with high specificity?

Select one of the following:

Accurately identifies the presence of disease
Accurately identifies the absence of disease
Has many false-positives
Has few false-negatives

Explanation

Question 62 of 1

10

A CSF shunt tip specimen was sent to the microbiology laboratory for culture. The shunt specimen was inoculated to sheep blood agar, chocolate agar, and a thioglycollate broth. After 24 hours of CO2 and non-CO2incubation at 37°C, the sheep blood agar, chocolate agar, and the thioglycollate broth had growth. The microbiology tech evaluated the media and observed the following:
Growth: Sheep blood grew small, white non-hemolytic colonies. Chocolate grew small, white colonies.
Gram Stain: Gram-positive cocci in clusters
Biochemical: Catalase positive; coagulase-negative
Which of the following organisms is most likely the cause of the CSF shunt tip infection?

Select one of the following:

Staphylococcus aureus
Cutibacterium (Propionibacterium) acnes
Coagulase-negative staphylococci
Viridans group streptococci

Explanation

Question 63 of 1

10

Which of the following laboratory results would you find with disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) but NOT with thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP) or hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS)?

Select one of the following:

Prolonged PT and aPTT
Thrombocytopenia
Schistocytes on the peripheral blood smear
Elevated LDH

Explanation

Question 64 of 1

10

Which of these methods measures fetal hemoglobin or D positive red cells or both to evaluate fetomaternal hemorrhage?

Select one of the following:

Rosette test
Kleihauer-Betke test
Flow cytometry
AHG testing

Explanation

Question 65 of 1

10

There are several different types of media that can be used in electrophoresis. Most methods today use a gel - cellulose acetate, agarose, or polyacrylamide gel. Which one of the following statements is true regarding these gels?

Select one of the following:

The compounds used to make cellulose acetate gels are carcinogenic
Polyacrylamide gels are composed of polysaccharides and acrylamides
Polyacrylamide gels have the greatest resolution or separation of solutes
Cellulose acetate and agarose gels are the more commonly used gels

Explanation

Question 66 of 1

10

Sequence-based analysis is an alternate method used to identify bacteria and fungal isolates. This methodology uses rRNA genes (rDNA) and their intergenic regions as common target sites to identify these organisms. Which of the following rRNA gene target sites is used to identify fungal isolates?

Select one of the following:

16S rRNA
28S rRNA
25S rRNA
14S rRNA

Explanation

Question 67 of 1

10

A peripheral smear demonstrates a population of red cells that are mostly 5 - 5.5 µm in diameter. The CBC data shows RDW of 13% (reference range 11.5-14.5%). Which of the following morphologies is consistent with these findings?

Select one of the following:

Macrocytosis, low variation of cell volume
Normocytic cell, low variation of cell volume
Microcytosis, low variation of cell volume
Normocytic cell, high variation of cell volume

Explanation

Question 68 of 1

10

A mother's serologic results are shown above. Her newborn types as group A Rh positive with a (1+) positive direct antiglobulin test (DAT).
Which of the following investigative tests would be most useful to resolve the cause of the positive DAT and should be done FIRST?

Select one of the following:

Test an eluate prepared from newborn's red cells against an antibody identification panel by IAT.
Test newborn's plasma against group A1 red cells and group O antibody screen cells by IAT.
Test newborn's plasma against mother's red cells by IAT.
Test newborn's plasma against father's red cells by IAT.

Explanation

Question 69 of 1

10

Which condition is caused by deficient secretion of bilirubin into the bile canaliculi?

Select one of the following:

Gilbert’s disease
Neonatal hyperbilirubinemia
Dubin-Johnson syndrome
Crigler-Najjar syndrome

Explanation

Question 70 of 1

10

An expectorated sputum specimen is received for culture at your laboratory. You are preparing to make slides and inoculate the media and are observing the gross appearance of the specimen. The specimen is a mixture of watery, bloody, and purulent material. Which area(s) of the specimen is most likely indicated for culture and slides?

Select one of the following:

Any area is acceptable for culture and slide preparation.
Only the watery portion of the specimen is most indicated for culture and slide preparation.
The bloody and purulent areas of the specimen are most indicated for culture and slide preparation.
An equal sampling of the watery, bloody, and purulent areas is most indicated for culture and slide preparation.

Explanation

Question 71 of 1

10

What is the composition of the granules associated with basophilic stippling?

Select one of the following:

Aggregates of iron
Aggregates of hemoglobin
Aggregates of ribosomes
Aggregates of DNA

Explanation

Question 72 of 1

10

Which adsorption technique removes cold (IgM) antibodies, particularly anti-I specificities?

Select one of the following:

Cold autoadsorption
Warm autoadsorption
Differential (allogeneic)
Rabbit erythrocyte stroma (RESt)

Explanation

Question 73 of 1

10

Each of the following hypothalamic hormones is correctly matched with the anterior pituitary hormone that it releases EXCEPT:

Select one of the following:

TRH --> TSH
GnRH --> LH and FSH
CRH --> ACTH
GHRH --> Oxytocin

Explanation

Question 74 of 1

10

When working up a culture, Scedosporium species may presumptively be identified if colonies have a “house mouse” gray appearance and microscopically observed are long delicate condiophores from the tips of which are produced a single oval conidium (“lollipop”). In some cases, further examination of the microscopic mount may reveal the branching, sheath-like arrangement (graphium form) of conidiophores as seen in the top image, and/or the spherical conidia-containing ascospores seen in the lower image. From the multiple choices, indicate the fungal species to be recognized.

Select one of the following:

Sepedonium species
Chrysosporium species
Scedosporium species
Pseudoallescheria boydii

Explanation

Question 75 of 1

10

A patient initially has a prolonged PT. After reviewing the patient's case and laboratory findings, the physician administers intravenous vitamin K. The repeat PT results are normal after 24 hours of vitamin K therapy. What clinical condition is MOST likely to produce these results?

Select one of the following:

Liver disease
Factor XI deficiency
Fibrinogen deficency
vWF deficency

Explanation

Question 76 of 1

10

What is the term used to describe a clinical syndrome caused by heart disease, represented by abnormal sodium and water retention and breathlessness, usually resulting in edema?

Select one of the following:

Acute myocardial infarction (AMI)
Angina
Congestive heart failure (CHF)
Myocardial ischemia

Explanation

Question 77 of 1

10

A stool culture from a hospitalized patient produces the following characteristics:
Gram-negative bacillus
Urease positive
Weakly fermentative
TSI slant is A/A
These reactions suggest that the organism is most likely:

Select one of the following:

Yersinia enterocolitica
Escherichia coli
Plesiomonas shigelloides
Pasteurella multocida

Explanation

Question 78 of 1

10

Which of the following types of anemia can be described as an inherited bone marrow failure syndrome with patients developing dystrophic nails and white patches in the mouth?

Select one of the following:

Fanconi anemia
Dyskeratosis congenita
Chronic aquired pure red cell aplasia
Diamond-Blackfan anemia

Explanation

Question 79 of 1

10

Which one of the following statements about lead poisoning is false?

Select one of the following:

While lead distributes to all tissues, the central nervous system, kidney, and bone marrow are particularly susceptible to lead toxicity
Whole blood lead measurement is the best test for detecting lead toxicity
Serum lead level is a good inexpensive screening test for lead toxicity
Lead levels below 5 µg/dL in children do not prompt ongoing monitoring

Explanation

Question 80 of 1

10

An immunosuppressed patient with a CSF shunt is exhibiting symptoms of a shunt infection. When performing a Gram stain, the organism observed in the image to the right is seen. What is the most likely identity of this organism?

Select one of the following:

Candida sp.
Staphylococcus sp.
E. coli
Enterococcus sp.

Explanation

Question 81 of 1

10

Identify the leukocyte seen in this illustration:

Select one of the following:

Myeloblast
Promyelocyte
Reactive lymphocyte
Metamyelocyte

Explanation

Question 82 of 1

10

A deficiency in which of the folowing vitamins is associated with "rickets"?

Select one of the following:

Thiamine
Vitamin C
Vitamin A
Vitamin D

Explanation

Question 83 of 1

10

This serum protein electrophoresis (SPE) scan most likely represents which of the following disease states:

Select one of the following:

Chronic inflammation
Myocardial infarction
Liver disease
Multiple myeloma

Explanation

Question 84 of 1

10

Abiotrophia defectiva (formerly Streptococcus defectivus) and Granulicatella adiacens (formerly S. adjacens, then A. adiacens) are the names currently given to two species of what were previously called nutritionally variant streptococci (NVS). What supplement must be added to the blood culture medium to recover these organisms in cases of "culture-negative endocarditis?"

Select one of the following:

Thiamine
Pyridoxal
Sodiumpolyanethol sulfonate (SPS)
Synthetic resins

Explanation

Question 85 of 1

10

Illustrated in the top photograph are dry, chalky, heaped colonies growing on Middlebrook agar with a distinctive yellow-orange pigmentation. They were recovered after 5 days of incubation from a subcutaneous lesion of the foot from a South American field laborer. Illustrated in the acid-fast stain in the lower photomicrograph are slender, branching acid-fast bacilli. Casein and tyrosine were hydrolyzed. With these observations and reactions, select the species identification of this isolate.

Select one of the following:

Nocardia asteroides
Nocardia brasiliensis
Mycobacterium fortuitum
Streptomyces species

Explanation

Question 86 of 1

10

Gas-liquid chromatography is useful in the identification of anaerobes in addition to Gram-stain morphology. Which anaerobe produces succinic acid in abundance?

Select one of the following:

Fusobacterium nucleatum
Lactobacillus sp.
Actinomyces israelii
Clostridium difficile

Explanation

Question 87 of 1

10

Whipworm infection is typically diagnosed by the microscopic observation of adult worms or barrel-shaped eggs with polar plugs in stool specimens. What organism is known as the whipworm?

Select one of the following:

Trichuris trichiura
Ascaris lumbricoides
Necator americanus
Enterobius vermicularis

Explanation

Question 88 of 1

10

Which of the following parasites has the longest undulating membrane?

Select one of the following:

Trichomonas vaginalis
Trichomonas tenax
Pentatrichomonas hominis
Dientamoeba fragilis

Explanation

Question 89 of 1

10

This organism is very similar to Serratia marcescens, except it is DNAse negative.

Select one of the following:

Kluvera ascorbata
Rahnella aquatilis
Cedecea davisae
Ewingella americana

Explanation

Question 90 of 1

10

This parasite was observed in a stained blood smear and measured 260 µm in length. It is most likely which of the following?

Select one of the following:

Wuchereria bancrofti microfilaria
Brugia malayi microfilaria
Loa loa microfilaria
Onchocerca volvulus microfilaria

Explanation

Question 91 of 1

10

Which of the following is a selective medium for Campylobacter jejuni?

Select one of the following:

CNA agar
Skirrow agar
Thayer-Martin media
Cystine-tellurite blood agar

Explanation

Question 92 of 1

10

A patient is being treated with gentamicin for a Gram-negative bacterial infection. The chemistry department has repeating peak and trough orders on the patient. Which of the following antibiotic classes does gentamicin belong to?

Select one of the following:

Aminoglycosides
Beta-lactams
Fluoroquinolones
Polymyxins

Explanation

Question 93 of 1

10

All of the following colony and microscopic descriptions are paired correctly with the mold indicated, EXCEPT:

Select one of the following:

Macroscopic description: rose red or purple red pigmentation
Microscopic description: multi-celled, sickle shaped macroconidia
Fusarium sp.
Macroscopic description: grayish-brown colonies
Microscopic description: Dark, elliptical conidia each supported by a conidiophore ("lollipops")
Scedosporium apiospermum
Macroscopic description: green, granular, rugose colonies
Microscopic description: chains of spherical conidia produced from branching phialides
Aspergillus sp.
Macroscopic description: green lawn that extends from edge to edge
Microscopic description: tight clusters of spherical conidia held by finger-like phialides
Gliocladium sp.

Explanation

Question 94 of 1

10

An autopsy of a 1-year-old female admitted to the emergency room 4 hours prior to her death revealed Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome. Blood and nasopharyngeal cultures taken prior to her death should reveal an oxidase-positive, Gram-negative diplococcus with the following biochemical reactions:

Select one of the following:

Glucose positive, Maltose positive, ONPG positive and DNase negative
Glucose positive, Maltose positive, Sucrose positive and Lactose negative
Glucose positive, Maltose positive, Lactose negative and Sucrose negative
Glucose positive, Maltose negative, Lactose negative and Sucrose negative

Explanation

Question 95 of 1

10

The dematiaceous colony illustrated here grew to a diameter of 3 - 4 cm in 5 days. Which of the following fungi can be ruled out based on the information given?

Select one of the following:

Phialophora verrucosum
Exserohilum species
Alternaria species
Ulocladium species

Explanation

Question 96 of 1

10

The select reactions observed in the partial API strip illustrated in this photograph, reading from left to right, are: ONPG negative; arginine, lysine, and ornithine decarboxylases positive; citrate positive; H2S positive, and the remaining reactions negative. These reactions are most consistent with which bacterial genus?

Select one of the following:

Citrobacter
Salmonella
Proteus
Edwardsiella

Explanation

Question 97 of 1

10

Which of the following is the MOST IMPORTANT first step to take when a patient is transfused with un-crossmatched RBCs that turn out to be incompatible?

Select one of the following:

Order new blood specimens for the investigation.
Identify the antibody.
Perform an immediate spin crossmatch to rapidly determine incompatibility.
Stop any transfusion in progress.

Explanation

Question 98 of 1

10

Which of the following choices best describes the primary function of antibodies?

Select one of the following:

Protection of B-lymphocytes
Binds with antigen
Fixes complement
Stimulates the immune response

Explanation

Question 99 of 1

10

	Created by Martin Muganzi over 3 years ago

	Copied by Martin Muganzi over 2 years ago

ASCP Question of Day Quiz on Pass ASCP Question of The Day, created by Martin Muganzi on 07/30/2024.

Pass ASCP Question of The Day

Pass ASCP Question of The Day

Question 1 of 1

Which of the following best describes the benefits of the RPR or VDRL tests:

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 2 of 1

The National Heart, Lung, and Blood Institute (NHLBI) and American Heart Association (AHA) have created a set of parameters to define the presence of metabolic syndrome. Select the set of laboratory assays that are utilized in the NHLBI and AHA criteria for metabolic syndrome diagnosis.

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 3 of 1

If test scores are significantly skewed, which measurement of central tendency is best?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 4 of 1

Which genotype is associated with alpha thalassemia minor?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 5 of 1

What is the increase in the risk for developing antibodies against red cell antigens (RBC alloimmunization) for patients who are characterized as chronically transfused patients?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 6 of 1

Which of the following tests on amniotic fluid would be included when assessing fetal lung maturity:

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 7 of 1

Which marker is most useful for the detection of gestational trophoblastic disease?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 8 of 1

All of the following are Lancefield carbohydrate antigens found on beta-hemolytic Streptococcus species. All of the following antigens are found on organisms from the Streptococcus anginosus group EXCEPT?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 9 of 1

Which of the following errors occurs in the pre-analytical phase?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 10 of 1

A variety of additives are used in blood collection tubes. Which of the following additives prevents clotting by inhibiting thrombin and thromboplastin?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 11 of 1

Homogentisic acid in urine will cause urine to be which of the following colors?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 12 of 1

If detected in antibody screen testing, which of the following antibodies is NOT considered clinically significant in prenatal patients?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 13 of 1

Approximately how many doses are required to obtain a steady-state oscillation allowing for peak and trough levels to be evaluated?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 14 of 1

From the IgG molecule illustration, which region is the heavy chain?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 15 of 1

What is the identification of this organism that measures 12 µm and is found in stool?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 16 of 1

All of the terms below are a measure of central tendency, EXCEPT:

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 17 of 1

The presence of an increased number of hypersegmented neutrophils in the peripheral blood, as shown in this image, is an indication of which of the following conditions?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 18 of 1

All of the following carbohydrates are considered reducing sugars EXCEPT:

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 19 of 1

Which of the following tests require a 72-hour stool (fecal) collection?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 20 of 1

The National Heart, Lung, and Blood Institute (NHLBI) and American Heart Association (AHA) have created a set of parameters to define the presence of metabolic syndrome.
Select the set of laboratory assays that are utilized in the NHLBI and AHA criteria for metabolic syndrome diagnosis.

This antinuclear antibody (ANA) pattern is characterized by granular staining in the nuclei of the interphase cells (a). There is also an absence of staining in the chromosomal area of the metaphase mitotic cells (b). The slide is viewed using fluorescent microscopy.
Which pattern is this?