Virology (week 8)

Question 1 of 74

1

What is the basic structure of the Paramyxoviridae?

Select one of the following:

Enveloped, ss – sense, RNA viruses
Non-enveloped, ss – sense, RNA viruses
Enveloped, ss + sense, RNA viruses
Enveloped, ds – sense, RNA viruses
Non-nveloped, ss + sense, RNA viruses

Explanation

Question 2 of 74

1

What are the two major peplomers found on the envelope of Paramyxoviridae?

Select one of the following:

Haemagglutinin and Neuraminidase protein
Nucleocapsid phosphoprotein and Neuraminidase protein
Hernagglutinin and Neuraminidase protein
Haemagglutinin and Nucleocapsid phosphoprotein

Explanation

Question 3 of 74

1

Why is the Fusion (F) protein essential?

Select one or more of the following:

Cleavage of F protein is essential for infectivity
Cleavage of F protein is essential for entering the host cell
Cleavage of F protein is essential for leaving the host cell

Explanation

Question 4 of 74

1

What are important features of Newcastle disease?

Select one or more of the following:

Characterised by respiratory, gastrointestinal, circulatory and nervous signs
Virulence varies between strains
Important disease of poultry worldwide
Highly contagious
Spreads rapidly among susceptible birds
Zoonotic
Latent infection

Explanation

Question 5 of 74

1

What is the incubation period of Newcastle disease?

Select one of the following:

~ 5 days
~ 10 days
~ 9 days
~ 15 days
~ 2 days

Explanation

Question 6 of 74

1

Clinical presentation of Newcastle disease relates to?

Select one or more of the following:

Virulence of the virus strain
Tissue tropism
Age of chicken
Immune status
Temperature

Explanation

Question 7 of 74

1

❌ = high virulence. Produce sudden high mortality (~100%)

❌ = intermediate virulence. Cause mild disease with mortality confined to young birds

❌ = low virulence. Cause mild disease or inapparent infection

❌= a virus that has a preference for the viscera (organs)

❌= a virus that is able to infect nerve cells

Drag and drop to complete the text.

Velogenic

Mesogenic

Lentogenic

Viscerotropic

Neurotropic

Explanation

Question 8 of 74

1

What is virulence associated with in Paramyxoviridae?

Select one of the following:

“cleavability” and activation of the F protein
“cleavability” and activation of the Haemagglutinin protein
“cleavability” and activation of the Neuraminidase protein
“cleavability” and activation of the Haemagglutinin/Neuraminidase protein

Explanation

Question 9 of 74

1

What are the clinical signs of a virus that is Viscerotropic velogenic?

Select one of the following:

Severe fatal disease with haemorrhagic intestinal lesions and bright green diarrhoea (mortality 90-100%)
Respiratory signs: tachypnoea, gasping, rales, oedema of head/neck. Progresses to nervous signs: tremors, paralysis, torticollis (mortality 10-20% in adults)
Coughing, weight loss, reduced egg production (mortality ~10% - usually young birds)
Mainly subclinical

Explanation

Question 10 of 74

1

What are the clinical signs of a virus that is Lentogenic?

Select one of the following:

Mainly subclinical
Coughing, weight loss, reduced egg production (mortality ~10% - usually young birds)
Respiratory signs: tachypnoea, gasping, rales, oedema of head/neck. Progresses to nervous signs: tremors, paralysis, torticollis (mortality 10-20% in adults)
Severe fatal disease with haemorrhagic intestinal lesions and bright green diarrhoea (mortality 90-100%)

Explanation

Question 11 of 74

1

What are the clinical signs of a virus that is Mesogenic?

Select one of the following:

Coughing, weight loss, reduced egg production (mortality ~10% - usually young birds)
Mainly subclinical
Respiratory signs: tachypnoea, gasping, rales, oedema of head/neck. Progresses to nervous signs: tremors, paralysis, torticollis (mortality 10-20% in adults)
Severe fatal disease with haemorrhagic intestinal lesions and bright green diarrhoea (mortality 90-100%)

Explanation

Question 12 of 74

1

What are the clinical signs of a virus that is Neurotropic velogenic?

Select one of the following:

Mainly subclinical
Coughing, weight loss, reduced egg production (mortality ~10% - usually young birds)
Respiratory signs: tachypnoea, gasping, rales, oedema of head/neck. Progresses to nervous signs: tremors, paralysis, torticollis (mortality 10-20% in adults)
Severe fatal disease with haemorrhagic intestinal lesions and bright green diarrhoea (mortality 90-100%)

Explanation

Question 13 of 74

1

Where does Newcastle disease replicate?

Select one or more of the following:

Virus replication in epithelia of respiratory and gastrointestinal tracts
Secondary viraemia - infection of lung, intestine, CNS
Haematogenous spread - spleen and bone marrow (viraemia)
Arthropod vector transmission replicates at localised site initially

Explanation

Question 14 of 74

1

What is true of the epidemiology of Newcastles disease?

Select one or more of the following:

Wide range of avian species are susceptible
chickens, turkeys, ducks, geese, pheasants, pigeons…
Wild birds may act as reservoir – mutation at cleavage
Virus is excreted in faeces, from respiratory tract and survives in environment and in carcasses for weeks
Transmission by inhalation of aerosols or ingestion of contaminated food or water
Transmission by arthropods (mosquitos)

Explanation

Question 15 of 74

1

How might you control Newcastles disease?

Select one or more of the following:

Antivirals
ND free countries use test and slaughter
ND endemic countries use attenuated live vaccine strains (such as the V4 strain that is an endemic Australian strain)
Sentry chickens

Explanation

Question 16 of 74

1

When was Rinderpest eradicated?

Select one of the following:

2011
1998
1972
2001
2014

Explanation

Question 17 of 74

1

What is Rinderpest characterised by?

Select one of the following:

Pyrexia, inflammation and necrosis of the mucous membranes
Diarrhoea and fever
Abortion and reproductive failure
Neurological symptoms (encephalitis)

Explanation

Question 18 of 74

1

Rinderpest has?

Select one of the following:

High morbidity and high mortality
High morbidity and low mortality
Low morbidity and high mortality
Low morbidity and low mortality

Explanation

Question 19 of 74

1

How long is the incubation period of Rinderpest?

Select one of the following:

3 – 5 days
6 – 9 days
1 – 2 days
1 – 4 days

Explanation

Question 20 of 74

1

What are the clinical signs of Rinderpest?

Select one or more of the following:

Mucopurulent nasal and ocular discharge
Necrotic foci (ulcers and erosions)
Profuse haemorrhagic diarrhoea
Dehydration, wasting and secondary infection
Abortion and reproductive failure

Explanation

Question 21 of 74

1

How long until death occurs in an animal infected with Rinderpest?

Select one of the following:

Within 12 days
Within 2 days
Within 5 days
Within 9 days

Explanation

Question 22 of 74

1

What is the pathogenesis of Rinderpest?

Select one or more of the following:

Leucopaenia due to destruction/necrosis of lymphoid tissue
Transmission by inhalation
Viraemia: spread of virus to other lymphoid tissue and mucosae of respiratory and gastrointestinal tracts
Replication in tonsils and local URT lymph nodes

Explanation

Question 23 of 74

1

What is the epidemiology of Rinderpest?

Select one or more of the following:

One serotype, but different strains recognised
No carrier state (young animals affected in endemic areas)
Virus is labile in environment
Infection requires close contact
Shedding before obvious clinical signs
Virus shed in faeces, urine, respiratory secretions etc
Can survive in the environment for weeks
Carrier states exist

Explanation

Question 24 of 74

1

How was Rinderpest eradicated?

Select one or more of the following:

Vaccination: attenuated vaccine (eradication planned by 2010, achieved 2011)
Lasting immunity to vaccine, no carriers, no animal reservoir, good
diagnostic tests
Quarantine
Rinderpest spreads slowly

Explanation

Question 25 of 74

1

What other disease does the Rinderpest vaccine control?

Select one of the following:

Pest de Petit Ruminants
Newcastles disease
Bovine vascular disease
Canine Distemper

Explanation

Question 26 of 74

1

Outline the epidemiology of Canine Distemper?

Select one or more of the following:

Virus shed in expired air, faeces, urine, other secretions
Requires direct contact or close aerosol transmission
Virus is labile in environment
Outbreaks recorded in dogs, foxes, skunks, racoons, ferrets and lions
Higjly contagious
Urban dogs: infection spreads rapidly among young dogs as maternal antibody wanes (3-6months)
Rural dogs: lower population pressure, more susceptible, unvaccinated dogs. Outbreaks in dogs of varying ages
Urban dogs: lower population pressure, more susceptible, unvaccinated dogs. Outbreaks in dogs of varying ages
Rural dogs: infection spreads rapidly among young dogs as maternal antibody wanes (3-6months)

Explanation

Question 27 of 74

1

How long is the incubation period of Canine Distemper?

Select one of the following:

3- 6 days
5- 9 days
1- 2 days
9- 10 days

Explanation

Question 28 of 74

1

What is true of the clinical signs of Canine Distemper?

Select one or more of the following:

Hyperkeratosis of nose and footpads
Skin rash and pustules may develop
Variable duration and severity of illness
Biphasic pyrexia: Second peak = onset of oculonasal discharge, pharyngitis, tonsillar enlargement
Old dog encephalitis: persistence in brain, motor and behavioural deterioration, invariably fatal
Acute disease is followed by recovery and life-long immunity, or progresses to CNS disease
Neurological signs include myoclonic contractions,
ataxia, paresis, seizures and death-- Grave prognosis for dogs with neurological signs
Animals develop cough, vomiting, diarrhoea
Usually asymptomatic

Explanation

Question 29 of 74

1

What is the pathogenesis of Canine Distemper?

Select one or more of the following:

???
??
????
?

Explanation

Question 30 of 74

1

How is Canine Distemper controlled?

Select one of the following:

Maternal antibodies and vaccination
Test and kill
Vaccinate to kill

Explanation

Question 31 of 74

1

What is the reservoir for Hendra virus?

Select one of the following:

Wild birds
Flying foxes (Fruit bats)
Rodents
Arthropods

Explanation

Question 32 of 74

1

In what year was the initial Hendra outbreak?

Select one of the following:

1994
1995
1998
1991

Explanation

Question 33 of 74

1

What are the clinical signs of Hendra virus?

Select one or more of the following:

Congested, firm, fluid filled lungs, with dilated lymphatics. Thick, foamy, haemorrhagic exudate in airways
Liver necrosis
Diarrhoea
Encephalitis

Explanation

Question 34 of 74

1

What virus is closely related to Hendra virus?

Select one of the following:

Nipah virus
African Horse Sickness
Japanese Encephalitis

Explanation

Question 35 of 74

1

What is the basic structure of Orthomyxoviridae?

Select one of the following:

Enveloped, segmented, ss, - sense RNA
Non-enveloped, segmented, ss, - sense RNA
Non-enveloped, segmented, ds, - sense RNA
Enveloped, segmented, ss, + sense RNA

Explanation

Question 36 of 74

1

Which of the below are genera of Orthomyxoviridae?

Select one or more of the following:

Orbivirus
Thogotovirus
Quaranjavirus
Isavirus
Influenzavirus B
Influenzavirus A

Explanation

Question 37 of 74

1

Which genera of Orthomyxoviridae ismainly responsible for epidemics and pandemics in the susceptible populations?

Select one of the following:

Orbivirus
Influenzavirus B
Thogotovirus
Quaranjavirus
Isavirus
Influenzavirus A
Influenzavirus C

Explanation

Question 38 of 74

1

Orthomyxoviridae are labile in the environment, sensitive to high temperatures and acid pH

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 39 of 74

1

How many subtypes of inflenza A are there?

Select one of the following:

17 HA subtypes and 9 NA subtypes
7 HA subtypes and 5 NA subtypes
17 HA subtypes and 4 NA subtypes
9 HA subtypes and 17 NA subtypes

Explanation

Question 40 of 74

1

What subtypes of influenza A commonly infect swine?

Select one or more of the following:

H1N1
H1N2
H3N2
H5N1
H7N9

Explanation

Question 41 of 74

1

What subtype of influenza A is associated with Equine influenza currently?

Select one of the following:

H7H7
H3N8
H1N1
H2N3

Explanation

Question 42 of 74

1

How long does it take influenza A virus to spread through the respiratory tract?

Select one of the following:

1-3 days
5-7 days
7-9 days
4-5 days

Explanation

Question 43 of 74

1

What clinical signs are often associated with influenza A?

Select one or more of the following:

Fever (up to 41°C)
Coughing
Sneezing and oranasal discharge
Fatigue and anorexia
Lymphadenopathy
Diarrhoea and vomiting

Explanation

Question 44 of 74

1

How many times has equine influenza been found in Australia?

Select one of the following:

Twice
Once
Three times
It is endemic to Australia

Explanation

Question 45 of 74

1

How long does it take a horse with equine influenza to recover?

Select one of the following:

2-3 weeks for well-rested, mildly affected horses and up to 6 months in the
most severe cases
2-3 months for well-rested, mildly affected horses and up to 6 months in the
most severe cases
2-3 weeks for well-rested, mildly affected horses and up to 3 months in the
most severe cases
2-3 months for well-rested, mildly affected horses and up to 9 months in the
most severe cases

Explanation

Question 46 of 74

1

What is the difference between Low pathogenicity avian influenza (LPAI) and High pathogenicity avian influenza (HPAI)

Select one of the following:

Mortality rates in HPAI are nearly 100% compared to 3-15% iin LPAI
Mortality rates in HPAI are nearly 100% compared to 40% iin LPAI
Mortality rates in HPAI are nearly 100% compared to 30-50% iin LPAI

Explanation

Question 47 of 74

1

What is the function of HA (haemagglutin)?

Select one of the following:

Attachment, Fusion and Antigenicity
Attachment, Fusion and Disattachment
Attachment, Fusion and Exclusion

Explanation

Question 48 of 74

1

What is the function of Neuraminidase?

Select one of the following:

cleaves sialic acid (also known as neuraminic acid) from glycoproteins and glycolipids and removes sialic acid from newly formed virions to prevent their aggregation and promote their release from infected cells
Attachment of the virion to the host cell
Breakdown of the host cell so that the new virions can leave

Explanation

Question 49 of 74

1

❌- occurs WITHIN a subtype and describes the gradual accumulation of mutations in the HA or NA sequence and appearance of new strains of the same subtype.

❌- results in the emergence of a NEW SUBTYPE within a population, and this is usually is an abrupt change.

Drag and drop to complete the text.

Antigenic DRIFT

Antigenic SHIFT

Explanation

Question 50 of 74

1

What is the basic structure of Picornaviridae?

Select one of the following:

Non-enveloped, Icosahedral ss + sense RNA
Enveloped, Icosahedral ss + sense RNA
Non-enveloped, Icosahedral ds - sense RNA
Non-enveloped, Icosahedral ss - sense RNA
Enveloped, Icosahedral ss - sense RNA

Explanation

Question 51 of 74

1

Which of the below genera of Picornaviridae are of veterinary importance?

Select one or more of the following:

Hepatovirus
Rhinovirus
Enterovirus
Cardiovirus
Erbovirus
Aphthovirus
Parechovirus

Explanation

Question 52 of 74

1

Which disease of economic importance is found within the genera Aphthovirus (family Picornaviridae)?

Select one of the following:

Foot and Mouth Disease
Encephalomyocarditis virus
Equine Rhinitis A virus
Porcine enterovirus 1
Poliomyelitis
Swine vesicular disease virus

Explanation

Question 53 of 74

1

What is the biggest disadvantage of FMD?

Select one of the following:

High mortality
Dramatic reduction in production
Infertility
Zoonotic

Explanation

Question 54 of 74

1

What are the main features of FMD?

Select one or more of the following:

Highly contagious
Carrier state
Rapid replication
Virus shedding before clinical signs
Small infective dose
Multiple serotypes
Multiple modes of transmission
Multiple host species
Latent infection
Persistent infection

Explanation

Question 55 of 74

1

Why is FMD such an issue in dairy cattle?

Select one of the following:

Lost milk production for remainder of lactation and subsequent lactations - mastitis 25% loss of milk
Reduced growth rate
Reproductive dysfunction

Explanation

Question 56 of 74

1

How long is the FMD incubation?

Select one of the following:

2 – 8 days
1 – 2 days
9 – 12 days

Explanation

Question 57 of 74

1

What species of animal does FMD infect?

Select one of the following:

Infects cloven hoofed animals
Infects birds (eg. chickens)
Infects horses
Infects carnivores

Explanation

Question 58 of 74

1

What clinical symptoms are associated with FMD?

Select one or more of the following:

Fever, inappetence, depression
Vesicles on tongue and oral mucosa-->Excessive salivation
Reduced milk production
Vesicles in interdigital region and coronary bands
Vesicles on teats, nasal mucosa, muzzle
Ulceration (ruptured vesicles)
Myocarditis which result in sudden death in young piglets and calves
Pulmonary oedema
Reproductive failure
Abortions

Explanation

Question 59 of 74

1

What is the main route of infection for FMD?

Select one of the following:

Via the respiratory tract- Inhalation of aerosolised droplets
Via the skin (broken or damaged skin, direct contact)
Venereal transmission
Vector transmission
Faecal-oral route

Explanation

Question 60 of 74

1

Where does FMD virus replication occur?

Select one of the following:

Pharyngeal mucosa and draining lymph nodes
The GIT
The LRT

Explanation

Question 61 of 74

1

Which is the amplifier host for FMD infection?

Select one of the following:

Birds
Cattle
Sheep
Goats
Horses
Pigs

Explanation

Question 62 of 74

1

What is important in the epidemics of FMD?

Select one or more of the following:

Virus excretion ceases 4-6 days after vesicle appearance (when circulating antibodies develop)
Virus shed longer from hoof vesicles than oral
Virus shed in milk (23 days) and semen (56 days)
Vaccinated animals are protected, but can become carriers
80% of ruminants become persistently infected (pharyngeal and upper oesophageal tissues)
Latent infection can occur

Explanation

Question 63 of 74

1

How many serotypes of FMD are there?

Select one of the following:

7
3
4
2
9

Explanation

Question 64 of 74

1

What are outbreaks of FMD associated with?

Select one or more of the following:

Oral infection of pigs (swill feeding)
Aerosol spread to a susceptible population (10km over land and 250km over water)
Direct contact with sub-clinical / carrier animals or contaminated material
Changes in climate/weather causing an increase in athropods
Mutation of the virus

Explanation

Question 65 of 74

1

Where can FMD remain infective?

Select one or more of the following:

FMDV is acid labile (pH < 4 or > 11)
Virus can remain infective in uncooked, salted meats, improperly fermented salami, cheese etc
Virus can remain infective in faeces, urine and soil
Virus can remain infective on fomites for several weeks

Explanation

Question 66 of 74

1

FMD is clinically indistinguishable from other vesicular diseases of livestock

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 67 of 74

1

How is FMD controlled in FMD endemic countries?

Select one or more of the following:

Eradication campaign with blanket vaccination
Ring vaccination, +/- slaughter, blanket vaccination
Serological test & slaughter (positive and in contact animals)

Explanation

Question 68 of 74

1

How is FMD controlled in FMD free countries if an outbreak were to occur?

Select one or more of the following:

Serological test & slaughter (positive and in contact animals)
Ring vaccination, +/- slaughter, blanket vaccination
Eradication campaign with blanket vaccination

Explanation

Question 69 of 74

1

Which of the below are clinically indistinguishable from FMD?

Select one or more of the following:

Vesicular exanthema of swine
Swine Vesicular Disease
Swine influenza
Swine coronavirus

Explanation

Question 70 of 74

1

Equine rhinitis A virus is?

Select one of the following:

An upper respiratory tract disease in horses
A reproductive disease in horses
A GIT disease in horses
A lower respiratory tract disease in horses

Explanation

Question 71 of 74

1

Encephalomyocarditis virus is a disease of what species?

Select one of the following:

Swine
Cattle
Horses
Sheep

Explanation

Question 72 of 74

1

Porcine encephalomyelitis (Porcine enterovirus 1) is an important exotic disease of pigs causing?

Select one of the following:

Fever, depression, anorexia followed by tremors and ataxia, the hind limbs show neurological
signs first, progressing to paralysis, convulsions, coma and death
Odd behaviour (tongue lolling, salivation, head bobbing) which returns to normal when the virus is cleared
Pulmonary and myocardial oedema

Explanation

Question 73 of 74

1

How long can Porcine encephalomyelitis (Porcine enterovirus 1) survive in the environment?

Select one of the following:

4 weeks
3 days
6 months
2 weeks
4 months

Explanation

Question 74 of 74

1

Porcine encephalomyelitis (Porcine enterovirus 1) is highly contagious, how is it transmitted?

Select one of the following:

Faecal – oral route of transmission
Respiratory droplets
Vector transmission
Vertical transmission

	Created by Kathryn Borg almost 8 years ago

DVM2 Virology Quiz on Virology (week 8), created by Kathryn Borg on 05/08/2016.

Virology (week 8)

Virology (week 8)

Question 1 of 74

What is the basic structure of the Paramyxoviridae?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 2 of 74

What are the two major peplomers found on the envelope of Paramyxoviridae?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 3 of 74

Why is the Fusion (F) protein essential?

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 4 of 74

What are important features of Newcastle disease?

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 5 of 74

What is the incubation period of Newcastle disease?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 6 of 74

Clinical presentation of Newcastle disease relates to?

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 7 of 74

Drag and drop to complete the text.

Explanation

Question 8 of 74

What is virulence associated with in Paramyxoviridae?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 9 of 74

What are the clinical signs of a virus that is Viscerotropic velogenic?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 10 of 74

What are the clinical signs of a virus that is Lentogenic?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 11 of 74

What are the clinical signs of a virus that is Mesogenic?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 12 of 74

What are the clinical signs of a virus that is Neurotropic velogenic?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 13 of 74

Where does Newcastle disease replicate?

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 14 of 74

What is true of the epidemiology of Newcastles disease?

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 15 of 74

How might you control Newcastles disease?

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 16 of 74

When was Rinderpest eradicated?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 17 of 74

What is Rinderpest characterised by?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 18 of 74

Rinderpest has?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 19 of 74

How long is the incubation period of Rinderpest?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 20 of 74

What are the clinical signs of Rinderpest?