Jens Helfferich
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Jens Helfferich
Created by Jens Helfferich about 10 years ago
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Das Großes Deutsche Kuchen-Quiz

Das Großes Deutsche Kuchen-Quiz

Question 1 of 90

1

In a hydraulic braking system, the accumulator is:

Select one of the following:

  • an accumulator designed to restore brake energy in the event of a hydraulic failure.

  • a damping type accumulator designed to take up the pressure fluctuations of the automatic braking system.

  • designed to take up the hydraulic energy filtered by the antiskid system in order to prevent wheel blocking.

  • a buffer accumulator whose function is to assist the hydraulic system during high intensity braking.

Explanation

Question 2 of 90

1

How is an electrical gyro kept erected?

Select one of the following:

  • Gravity

  • Levelling and torque motors

  • A nozzle integral within the outer gimbal ring

  • Pneumatic vanes

Explanation

Question 3 of 90

1

The critical Mach number for an aerofoil equals the free stream airfoil Mach number at which:

Select one of the following:

  • sonic speed (M=1) is reached at a certain point on the upper side of the aerofoil.

  • the maximum operating temperature is reached.

  • a shock-wave appears on the upper surface.

  • a "supersonic bell" appears on the upper surface.

Explanation

Question 4 of 90

1

In case of grave and imminent danger what is the message you should transmit?

Select one of the following:

  • 7700

  • 7600

  • 7500

  • 1200

Explanation

Question 5 of 90

1

What are the major errors of the turn and slip indicator?

Select one of the following:

  • Looping error & real wander

  • G-Lock

  • Gimbal Lock

  • Topple & Regidity

Explanation

Question 6 of 90

1

How is a drug and alcohol therapy called?

Select one of the following:

  • Action Coping

  • Environmental Capture

  • Complacency

  • Distress

Explanation

Question 7 of 90

1

You are at 2000ft, outside temperature is at 6 C. At what altitude is the freezing level?

Select one of the following:

  • 5000ft

  • 4000ft

  • 6000

  • 2000ft

Explanation

Question 8 of 90

1

Ground speed 360kts. You fly from 60N10E to 55N10E. How long does it take?

Select one of the following:

  • 50min

  • 60min

  • You will never reach 55N10E

  • 55min

Explanation

Question 9 of 90

1

If the speed triples, what makes the lift?

Select one of the following:

  • 9x bigger

  • remain the same

  • 2x bigger

  • 3x bigger

Explanation

Question 10 of 90

1

What is the sense of fuel cross-feed?

Select one of the following:

  • allows feeding of any engine from any fuel tank.

  • allow the unusable fuel elimination.

  • allow the fuel to be quickly thrown away in case of emergency

  • automatically fill every tank up to the desired level.

Explanation

Question 11 of 90

1

How can you increase the rigidity of a gyro?

Select one of the following:

  • Increasing RPM and mass

  • Increase diameter

  • Decrease gyro's weight

  • Decreasing RPM and mass

Explanation

Question 12 of 90

1

What is real wander?

Select one of the following:

  • When the gyro’s spin axis moves away from its fixed position in space

  • The apparent movement of a gyro due to earth rotation

  • None of the answers above

  • All of the answers above

Explanation

Question 13 of 90

1

You follow a great circle route from BCN (43N) to NYC (42N). How varies as your true heading?

Select one of the following:

  • Decreases

  • Increases

  • Remains the same

  • Changes by 180°

Explanation

Question 14 of 90

1

During an acceleration phase at constant attitude, the resetting principle of the artificial horizon results in the horizon bar indicating a :

Select one of the following:

  • nose-down followed by a nose-up attitude

  • nose-up attitude

  • nose-down attitude

  • constant attitude

Explanation

Question 15 of 90

1

What are your feelings in IMC during a forward acceleration?

Select one of the following:

  • Bank to the left

  • Pitch-up

  • Pitch-down

  • no changes

Explanation

Question 16 of 90

1

If during a loss of all communication procedure you are on final and see a red flare on the runway, what do you do?

Select one of the following:

  • Continue circling.

  • No not land, airport unsafe.

  • Continue the approach.

  • Give to another aircraft.

Explanation

Question 17 of 90

1

What is the minimum cabin pressure / maximum cabin altitude for a commercial flight?

Select one of the following:

  • 10.000ft

  • 8.000ft

  • 12.000ft

  • 14.000ft

Explanation

Question 18 of 90

1

'Environmental capture' is a term used to describe which of the following statements?

Select one of the following:

  • The gaining of environmental skills.

  • The tendency for a skill acquired in one aircraft type to be executed in a new aircraft type, even if it is inappropriate to do.

  • The tendency for people to behave in different ways in different social situations.

  • None of the mentioned above.

Explanation

Question 19 of 90

1

What is a turn and slip indicator?

Select one of the following:

  • Rate gyro

  • Bound gyro

  • None

  • Both

Explanation

Question 20 of 90

1

The presence of altocumulus lenticularis is an indication of the

Select one of the following:

  • development of thermal lows

  • presence of mountain waves and severe turbulences

  • risk of orographic thunderstorms

  • presence of valley winds

Explanation

Question 21 of 90

1

DOC 4444 (ICAO) - Heavy (H) Category, are all aircraft types of:

Select one of the following:

  • Less than 7.000kg MTOM

  • Less than 136.000kg MTOM

  • More than 7.000kg MTOM

  • More than 136.000kg MTOM

Explanation

Question 22 of 90

1

(ICAO Doc 8168): CAT C approach speeds are?

Select one of the following:

  • Between 91 and 120 knots.

  • Speed 90 knots or less.

  • Between 121 and 140 knots.

  • Between 141 knots and 165 knots.

Explanation

Question 23 of 90

1

DOC 4444 (ICAO) - Medium (M) Category, are all aircraft types of:

Select one of the following:

  • 7.000kg – 136.000kg TOM

  • 0kg - 7.000kg TOM

  • 136.000+ kg TOM

  • there are no Medium (M) Category in use.

Explanation

Question 24 of 90

1

What organ is responsible for Gravity and linear acceleration?

Select one of the following:

  • The otoliths in the utriculus and sacculus

  • The cochela

  • The semi-circular channels

  • The tympanic membrane

Explanation

Question 25 of 90

1

Which part of the vestibular apparatus is affected by changes in gravity and linear acceleration?

Select one of the following:

  • The sacculus and utriculus

  • The cochela

  • The entire vestibular apparatus

  • The Eustachian tube

Explanation

Question 26 of 90

1

Angular accelerations are perceived by?

Select one of the following:

  • The sacculus and utriculus

  • The cochela

  • The semicircular canals

  • The seat of the pants feeling

Explanation

Question 27 of 90

1

The eustachian tube is the passage way between the

Select one of the following:

  • pharynx and inner ear

  • nose, pharynx and the external auditory canal

  • sinuses and the pharynx

  • pharynx and the middle ear

Explanation

Question 28 of 90

1

The eustachian tube serves for the pressure equalization between

Select one of the following:

  • frontal, nose and maxillary sinuses

  • middle ear and external atmosphere

  • sinuses of the nose and external atmosphere

  • nose and pharyngeal cavity and external atmosphere

Explanation

Question 29 of 90

1

What is the main use of the Eustachian tube?

Select one of the following:

  • To equalize pressure

  • To make the voice resonant

  • To enhance hearing capabilities

  • All abovc

Explanation

Question 30 of 90

1

How is oxygen transported in the organism?

Select one of the following:

  • Hemoglobin in the red blood cells.

  • White blood cells.

  • Plasma.

  • Blood fat.

Explanation

Question 31 of 90

1

GS 300kts, you must be at 20000ft within the next 50NM. What is the rate of descent you have to keep?

Select one of the following:

  • 2.000ft/min.

  • 4.000ft/min.

  • 1850ft/min.

  • 2150ft/min.

Explanation

Question 32 of 90

1

HDG 020°, RILPO 040°, Variation is 10W. What your QDR?

Select one of the following:

  • 220°

  • 240°

  • 230°

  • 040°

Explanation

Question 33 of 90

1

You are at W40 and the sun is on the vertical. How long does it take the sun to get to W85?

Select one of the following:

  • 3h

  • 2h

  • 6h

  • more than 24h

Explanation

Question 34 of 90

1

On a Lambert Chart, scale 1 : 500000. How much is the distance of 10cm?

Select one of the following:

  • 50km

  • 5.000km

  • 50.000km

  • 5km

Explanation

Question 35 of 90

1

Which are the data that goes to the Air Data Computer?

Select one of the following:

  • P(static), P(dynamic), TAT

  • P(static), P(dynamic), TAT, Radio Altitude, INS Position

  • P(static), TAT

  • P(dynamic), TAT

Explanation

Question 36 of 90

1

What is a Standard Turn / Rate-1-Turn?

Select one of the following:

  • 3° / sec

  • 6° / sec

  • 1° / sec

  • 2° / sec

Explanation

Question 37 of 90

1

What instrument measures low compressor rpm?

Select one of the following:

  • N1

  • N2

  • EPR

  • EGT

Explanation

Question 38 of 90

1

What does the CSD?

Select one of the following:

  • Organize the Christopher Street Day

  • Ensuring equal AC voltage from all generators.

  • The function of a CSD in an AC generating system is to drive the generator at a constant speed.

  • Keep the starter-motor maintaining a constant RPM not withstanding the acceleration of the engine.

Explanation

Question 39 of 90

1

Passing the transition altitude, how should you set the altimeter?

Select one of the following:

  • 1013hPa

  • 29.92hPa

  • QRH

  • QFE

Explanation

Question 40 of 90

1

When Dew point is equal to OAT temperature, relative humidity is?

Select one of the following:

  • 100%

  • 0%

  • between 50-70%

  • lower than 50%

Explanation

Question 41 of 90

1

What is a volume of air of nearly equal temperature and similar humidity (and origin)?

Select one of the following:

  • An air mass.

  • A cyclone.

  • A thermal low.

  • All above.

Explanation

Question 42 of 90

1

How far focuses on 'the eye and when' at rest?

Select one of the following:

  • Infinity

  • 0,75m

  • 0,50m

  • 2m

Explanation

Question 43 of 90

1

What is the earth's circumference at N60°?

Select one of the following:

  • 10800nm

  • 21600nm

  • 21600km

  • 10800km

Explanation

Question 44 of 90

1

When is wind shear more dangerous?

Select one of the following:

  • Low level temperature inversions

  • Heat high

  • Cold low

  • Cold air pool

Explanation

Question 45 of 90

1

What is the main responsible for the major climatic changes on the earth?

Select one of the following:

  • Solar radiation

  • Gravity

  • Phases of the moon

  • Aurea borealis

Explanation

Question 46 of 90

1

What are the marker frequencies?

Select one of the following:

  • OM:400kHz, MM:1.300kHz, IM:3.000kHz.

  • OM:400Hz, MM:1.300Hz, IM:3.000Hz.

  • OM:400MHz, MM:1.300MHz, IM:3.000MHz.

  • 75Hz

Explanation

Question 47 of 90

1

The Beta Range of a propeller is used for:

Select one of the following:

  • Speed brake & deceleration

  • Reverse Operations on ground only

  • Generate more thrust

  • There is no Beta Range

Explanation

Question 48 of 90

1

Calculate used fuel in kg: Distance: 1000nm, FF: 60l/min., Density: 0,8, Speed: 400km/h

Select one of the following:

  • 16667kg

  • 13334kg

  • 9000kg

  • 11250kg

Explanation

Question 49 of 90

1

In the absence of external reference points, the sensation that the vehicle in which you sitting is moving when it is in fact the vehicle directly alongside which is moving is called :

Select one of the following:

  • somato-gravic illusion

  • illusion of relative movement

  • autokinetic illusion

  • cognitive illusion

Explanation

Question 50 of 90

1

Flight Planning: What is the MSA around the highest obstacle?

Select one of the following:

  • 1000ft above, 25nm radius.

  • 500ft above, 25nm radius.

  • 1000ft above, 10nm radius.

  • 500ft above, 10nm radius.

Explanation

Question 51 of 90

1

Given: FL050, ONH 1000. What is the true altitude?

Select one of the following:

  • 4610ft

  • 5.390ft

  • 5.000ft

  • You can' calculate it with the figures given.

Explanation

Question 52 of 90

1

Name the degrees of freedom of an artificial horizon:

Select one of the following:

  • Roll and Pitch

  • Roll and Yaw

  • Roll, Pitch & Yaw

  • Yaw & Pitch

Explanation

Question 53 of 90

1

How to read-back after station change?

Select one of the following:

  • Station, Call-Sign, Altitude, Position, (SID or STAR).

  • Station, Altitude, Position, (SID or STAR), Call-Sign

  • Station, Altitude, Call-Sign, Position, (SID or STAR).

  • Call-Sign, Altitude, Station, Position, (SID or STAR).

Explanation

Question 54 of 90

1

How do air masses flow with in a cyclone?

Select one of the following:

  • They converge and rise

  • They diverge and sink

  • They converge and sink

  • They diverge and rise

Explanation

Question 55 of 90

1

What is the ISA-Temp at 19.000ft?

Select one of the following:

  • -23°C

  • -56,5°C

  • -21°C

  • +23°C

Explanation

Question 56 of 90

1

How many hours prior to Take-Off has a flight plan to be filed?

Select one of the following:

  • 1h

  • 2h

  • 1,5h

  • 0,5h

Explanation

Question 57 of 90

1

Flying through a Jet-Stream. Where are the most severe turbulences to be expected?

Select one of the following:

  • On the cold side, right below the core

  • On the warm side, right below the core

  • On the cold side, right above the core

  • On the warm side, right above the core

Explanation

Question 58 of 90

1

How has the sink rate to be change in tail-wind conditions?

Select one of the following:

  • Higher sink rate due to higher Ground Speed

  • Lower sink rate due to lower Ground Speed

  • No change

  • Lower sink rate due to higher Ground Speed

Explanation

Question 59 of 90

1

At which location does coriolis force have the least effect on wind direction?

Select one of the following:

  • At the equator.

  • At the poles.

  • Over Canada.

  • At 60°N / 60°S

Explanation

Question 60 of 90

1

Explain the semi-circular rules:

Select one of the following:

  • 0° – 179°: odd FL, 180 – 359: even FL

  • 0° – 179°: even FL, 180 – 359: odd FL

  • 001° – 180°: even FL, 181° – 360°: odd FL

  • 001° – 180°: odd FL, 181° – 360°: even FL

Explanation

Question 61 of 90

1

Which part of an aeroplane provides the greatest positive contribution to the static longitudinal stability?

Select one of the following:

  • The horizontal tailplane.

  • The fusselarsch.

  • The wings.

  • The engines.

Explanation

Question 62 of 90

1

For a fan jet engine, the by-pass ratio is the?

Select one of the following:

  • Ratio of the external airflow mass divided by the internal airflow mass.

  • Ratio of the internal airflow mass divided by the external airflow mass.

  • It's always 10:1.

  • None above.

Explanation

Question 63 of 90

1

Myopia is?

Select one of the following:

  • When the optical image forms in behind of the retina; we are talking about short-sightedness

  • When the optical image forms in front of the retina; we are talking about long-sightedness

  • When the optical image forms in front of the retina; we are talking about short-sightedness

  • When the optical image forms in behind of the retina; we are talking about long-sightedness

Explanation

Question 64 of 90

1

How does the height of the tropopause normally vary with latitude in the northern hemisphere?

Select one of the following:

  • It decreases from south to north and strengthens in winter.

  • It decreases from south to north and weakens in winter.

  • It increases from south to north and strengthens in winter.

  • It increases from south to north and weakens in winter.

Explanation

Question 65 of 90

1

Which is true of the temperature at the tropopause?

Select one of the following:

  • It is higher in polar regions than in equatorial regions.

  • It is lower in polar regions than in equatorial regions.

  • It's equal.

  • It's always 56,5°C.

Explanation

Question 66 of 90

1

A controlled flight is requested to inform the appropriate ATC unit whenever the average True Air Speed at cruising level varies or is expected to vary from that given in the flight plan by plus or minus:

Select one of the following:

  • 5%

  • 2%

  • 10%

  • 3%

Explanation

Question 67 of 90

1

Regarding take-off, the take-off decision speed V1:

Select one of the following:

  • a chosen limit. If an engine failure is recognized before reaching V1 the take-off must be aborted.

  • not less than V2min, the minimum take-off safety speed.

  • a chosen limit. If an engine failure is recognized after reaching V1 the take-off must be aborted.

  • sometimes greater than the rotation speed VR.

Explanation

Question 68 of 90

1

How does the stall speed chance with 25° bank?

Select one of the following:

  • 1,1x higher

  • 1,3x higher

  • Remains the same

  • 1,2x higher

Explanation

Question 69 of 90

1

You are on RWY 25, Wind 270/15, what is your x-wind?

Select one of the following:

  • 5kts

  • 10kts

  • 15kts

  • 30kts

Explanation

Question 70 of 90

1

The transition level:

Select one of the following:

  • Shall be the lowest available flight level above the transition altitude that has been established

  • Shall be the highest available flight level above the transition altitude that has been established

  • Shall be the lowest available flight level below the transition altitude that has been established

  • Shall be the highest available flight level below the transition altitude that has been established

Explanation

Question 71 of 90

1

The transition altitude of an aerodrome should not be below:

Select one of the following:

  • 3.000ft

  • 1.000ft

  • 5.000ft

  • FL100

Explanation

Question 72 of 90

1

What is the minimum thickness of the transition layer?

Select one of the following:

  • 1.000ft

  • 5.000ft

  • 2.000ft

  • 3.000ft

Explanation

Question 73 of 90

1

At which altitude is the TA in Germany?

Select one of the following:

  • 5.000ft

  • 10.000ft

  • 3.000ft

  • 1.000ft

Explanation

Question 74 of 90

1

Dry air is a mixture of gases. Their volume percentage is about:

Select one of the following:

  • 21% oxygen, 78% nitrogen, 1% other gases

  • 78% oxygen, 21% nitrogen, 1% other gases

  • 88% oxygen, 11% nitrogen, 1% other gases

  • 21% oxygen, 1% nitrogen, 78% other gases

Explanation

Question 75 of 90

1

In an aeroplane utilising a constant frequency AC power supply, DC power is obtained from a:

Select one of the following:

  • A Transformer Rectifier Unit

  • An inverter

  • A Constant Speed Drive

  • A starter coil

Explanation

Question 76 of 90

1

Name the correct action to be taken when landing on a contaminated runway?

Select one of the following:

  • Positive Touchdown, Max. Reverser, Speed Brake

  • Land as always

  • Gentle Touchdown, Max. Reverser, Speed Brake

  • You can't land on a contaminated runway.

Explanation

Question 77 of 90

1

The corrective action for dutch roll is?

Select one of the following:

  • Use firm but gentile aileron

  • Descent

  • More thrust

  • Ailerons neutral

Explanation

Question 78 of 90

1

Lightning is most likely to happen at temperatures?

Select one of the following:

  • Form +5 to -5°C OAT

  • Form +15 to +5°C OAT

  • Form -15 to -25°C OAT

  • Only below -50°C OAT

Explanation

Question 79 of 90

1

If the turbine bypass valve on an aircycle machine opens, it produces?

Select one of the following:

  • Warmer air.

  • Colder air.

  • Dry air.

  • Smoke.

Explanation

Question 80 of 90

1

The amount of light which strikes the retina is controlled by?

Select one of the following:

  • The Pupil

  • The Iris

  • The Retina

  • The Blind Spot

Explanation

Question 81 of 90

1

The fuel system boost pumps are used to:

Select one of the following:

  • avoid the bubbles accumulation and feed the lines with fuel for directing it to the engine at a positive pressure.

  • avoid the bubbles accumulation.

  • feed the lines with fuel for directing it to the engine at a positive pressure.

  • feed the fuel control units, which inject the pressurized fuel into the engine.

Explanation

Question 82 of 90

1

When assessing an individuals risk in developing coronary artery disease, the following factors may contribute:
1. obesity, 2. distress, 3. smoking, 4. family history, 5. sport

Select one of the following:

  • 1 & 2 are correct

  • 1, 2 & 4 are correct

  • 1,2,3 & 4 are correct

  • All are correct

Explanation

Question 83 of 90

1

At which wind speed does steam fog disappear?

Select one of the following:

  • Wind speeds of more than 15kt

  • Wind speeds of more than 30kt

  • Wind speeds of more than 5kt

  • It disappears always one hour after sunrise

Explanation

Question 84 of 90

1

The physiological rhythms of a pilot in a new time zone will resynchronise to this new time zone at a rate of about?

Select one of the following:

  • 1 – 1,5h / day

  • 1,5 – 2,5h / day

  • 3h / day

  • 0,5h / day

Explanation

Question 85 of 90

1

You depart at 0900L, flight time is 9:00hrs. You cross 9 time-zones. At what time are you going to land?

Select one of the following:

  • 0900L

  • 2100L

  • 1800L

  • 1200L

Explanation

Question 86 of 90

1

When flying an approach in a strong gusty headwind, Vref should be adjusted by?

Select one of the following:

  • ½ headwind and full gust factor

  • Full headwind and ½ gust factor

  • ½ headwind and ½ gust factor

  • Full headwind and full gust factor

Explanation

Question 87 of 90

1

At ISA -34°C, your pressure altimeter?

Select one of the following:

  • Over-reads

  • Under-reads

  • Reads correct

  • Is not usable

Explanation

Question 88 of 90

1

What is the CSD Unit (Constant Speed Drive Unit) for?

Select one of the following:

  • Drive the generator at a constant speed. That the electric generator produces a constant frequency.

  • That the starter-motor maintains a constant RPM not withstanding the acceleration of the engine.

  • Produce equal AC voltage from all generators.

  • It varies generator rpm in order to compensate for various AC loads.

Explanation

Question 89 of 90

1

How do the indications of instruments change, if your pitot tube becomes blocked in steady horizontal flight?

Select one of the following:

  • no change.

  • it over-reads.

  • it under-reads

  • It reads zero.

Explanation

Question 90 of 90

1

Holding Speeds:

Select one of the following:

  • FL000-FL140: 230kts, FL140-FL200: 240kts, FL200-FL340: 265kts, FL340+: Mach .83

  • FL000-FL140: 220kts, FL140-FL200: 230kts, FL200-FL340: 255kts, FL340+: Mach .73

  • FL000-FL140: 240kts, FL140-FL200: 240kts, FL200-FL340: 265kts, FL340+: Mach .83

  • FL000-FL140: 250kts, FL140-FL200: 260kts, FL200-FL340: 275kts, FL340+: Mach .73

Explanation

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