Sarah Wainer
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Quiz on Final Exam for Bio 208, created by Sarah Wainer on 05/02/2014.

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Final Exam for Bio 208

Question 1 of 99

1

How do lipid-soluble molecules (like steriods) generally move thru cell membranes?

Select one of the following:

  • Active transport

  • Co-transport with other lipids

  • Facilitated transport

  • Diffusion

  • None of the above (cannot do that)

Explanation

Question 2 of 99

1

Placing a cell in _____ is most likely to cause a decrease in cell volume?

Select one of the following:

  • a hypotonic bathing solution

  • a hypertonic bathing solution

  • acidic rain water

  • distilled water

  • alkaline (or basic) rain water

Explanation

Question 3 of 99

1

The dominant fiber type in dene connective tissue

Select one of the following:

  • epithelin

  • fibrin

  • collagen

  • fribrillin

  • elastin

Explanation

Question 4 of 99

1

The alveoli of the lungs are made of

Select one of the following:

  • stratified squamous ephithelia

  • columnar epithelia

  • transitional epithelia

  • simple squamous epithelia

  • transitional epithelia

Explanation

Question 5 of 99

1

Epithelium is connected to underlying connective tissue by

Select one of the following:

  • a basement membrane

  • junctional complexes

  • intercellular glue

  • a fibrous netting

  • reticular fibers

Explanation

Question 6 of 99

1

All of the following are functions of epithelial tissues EXCEPT

Select one of the following:

  • Providing sensation

  • Controlling permeability

  • Producing specialized secretions

  • Providing physical protection

  • Providing connectivity between organs

Explanation

Question 7 of 99

1

The inter-cellular connection involving interlocking membrane proteins are

Select one of the following:

  • Tight junctions

  • Gap junctions

  • Desmosomes

  • Synaptisomes

  • Basement proteins

Explanation

Question 8 of 99

1

Mammary glands are most closely associated with ____ secretion

Select one of the following:

  • Holocrine

  • Apocrine

  • Merocrine

  • Endocrine

  • Acini Tubules

Explanation

Question 9 of 99

1

Adipocytes is most closely associated with

Select one of the following:

  • Endocrine cells

  • Exocrine cells

  • Fat cells

  • Cells of the immune system

  • Stem cells

Explanation

Question 10 of 99

1

When a fair-skinned person blushes, why does his or her skin turn red?

Select one of the following:

  • The blood supply to the skin decreases

  • The blood supply to the skin increases

  • The number of red melanocytes in the skin increases

  • Melanocytes increase the production of red pigments

  • Increased heat causes the skin to turn red

Explanation

Question 11 of 99

1

The reproducing cells of the skin are located in the

Select one of the following:

  • Surface

  • Stratum corneum

  • Stratum lucidum

  • Stratum spinosum

  • Stratum germinativum

Explanation

Question 12 of 99

1

An epidermal layer found only on the skin of the palms of the hands and the soles of the feet is the

Select one of the following:

  • Stratum spinosum

  • Stratum granulosum

  • Stratum germinativum

  • Stratum corneum

  • Stratum lucidum

Explanation

Question 13 of 99

1

According to your instructor, deadly melanoma is associated with _____

Select one of the following:

  • Artificial sweeteners

  • Artificial food coloring

  • Chronic stress

  • Tanning booths

  • Improper diet

Explanation

Question 14 of 99

1

What are the layers associated with the Dermis?

Select one of the following:

  • Papillary and subcutaneous

  • Subcutaneous and reticular

  • Papillary and reticular

  • Reticular and accessory

  • Accessory and subcutaneous

Explanation

Question 15 of 99

1

Which Epithelial Tissue (E.T.) type is most closely associated with the epidermis?

Select one of the following:

  • Stratified squamous

  • Simple squamous

  • Simple cubical

  • Simple columnar

  • It is connective tissue, not E.T.

Explanation

Question 16 of 99

1

Which three functional components underlie how responses to stimuli work?

Select one of the following:

  • Receptor, effector, motor

  • Motor, control center, feedback

  • Effector, control center, receptor

  • Feedback, effector, receptor

  • Control center, motor, feedback

Explanation

Question 17 of 99

1

From the choices below, identify the smallest functional unit considered "alive"

Select one of the following:

  • An animal

  • A cell

  • A membrane

  • An ion channel

  • an enzyme

Explanation

Question 18 of 99

1

Each of the following are cell types in connective tissue EXCEPT:

Select one of the following:

  • Muscle Cells

  • Mast Cells

  • Mesenchymal Cells

  • Microphages

  • Melanocytes

Explanation

Question 19 of 99

1

Two equal volumes (L and R) of water are separated by a screen with 1mm sized pores. A little sugar is added only to Side L. What would you see the next day?

Select one of the following:

  • Side L would have more sugar AND less water than side R

  • Side R would have more sugar AND less water than side L

  • Side L would have less sugar AND less water than side R

  • Both sides would have the same amount of sugar AND water

  • Both side would have the same amount of water, but Side L more sugar

Explanation

Question 20 of 99

1

If a substance has a pH that is less than 7, it is

Select one of the following:

  • Acidic

  • Basic

  • Alkaline

  • Buffered

  • Both B and C are correct

Explanation

Question 21 of 99

1

Which description below best describes all homeostatic processes?

Select one of the following:

  • Baseline values do not deviate over time

  • Negative feedback is essential

  • Positive feedback is essential

  • Baseline values are uncontrolled

  • Homeostasis is not auto regulated

Explanation

Question 22 of 99

1

Support, protection of soft tissues, mineral storage, and blood formation are functions of which system?

Select one of the following:

  • Skeletal

  • Connective tissue

  • Integumentary

  • Epithelial tissue

  • None of the above

Explanation

Question 23 of 99

1

The increasingly forceful labor contractions that lead to childbirth exemplify

Select one of the following:

  • Receptor activation

  • Effector shutdown

  • Positive feedback

  • Negative feedback

  • None of these

Explanation

Question 24 of 99

1

When body temperature falls, a center in the brain initiates physiological changes to increase body temperature. This regulation mechanism is an example of

Select one of the following:

  • Positive feedback

  • Negative feedback

  • Non-homeostatic regulation

  • Diagnostic regulation

  • Disease

Explanation

Question 25 of 99

1

Your instructor presented the idea that all physiology is finally (ultimately, at its most basic and rock bottom level) reducible to:

Select one of the following:

  • Histology

  • Cytology

  • Microbiology

  • Biochemistry

  • Physics

Explanation

Question 26 of 99

1

An unstable isotope that emits subatomic particles spontaneously is called

Select one of the following:

  • A cation or anion

  • An X-ray

  • A gamma ray

  • A radioisotope

  • A death ray

Explanation

Question 27 of 99

1

The most common fat found in the body is in the form of

Select one of the following:

  • Steroids

  • Adenosine monophosphate

  • Adenosine triphosphate

  • Monoglycerides

  • Trigylcerides

Explanation

Question 28 of 99

1

A polysaccharide that is formed in the liver and muscle to store glucose is

Select one of the following:

  • Glycose

  • Glucagon

  • Glycogen

  • Glycocalyx

  • Starch

Explanation

Question 29 of 99

1

Glycolysis and Glucogenolysis are prime and classic examples of

Select one of the following:

  • Anabolism

  • Buffering process

  • Catabolism

  • Dynamic equilibria

  • Exchange reactions

Explanation

Question 30 of 99

1

What pathology is caused by a failure to convert phenylalanine to tyrosine

Select one of the following:

  • Albinism

  • PKU

  • Marfan's syndrome

  • Galactosemia

  • Psoriasis

Explanation

Question 31 of 99

1

If the amount of sodium ion in blood plasma decreases

Select one of the following:

  • The blood colloidal pressure will increase

  • The blood colloidal pressure will decrease

  • The blood osmotic pressure will stay the same

  • The blood osmotic pressure will decrease

  • The blood osmotic pressure will increase

Explanation

Question 32 of 99

1

Facilitated diffusion differs from ordinary diffusion in that facilitated diffusion

Select one of the following:

  • Limits the rate of molecular movement by limiting the number of available carrier molecules

  • Moves molecules from area of higher concentration to lower concentration

  • never eliminates the concentration gradient

  • Does not limit the rate of molecular movement by the number of available carrier molecules

  • Expends no ATP

Explanation

Question 33 of 99

1

Which suborganelle is most associated with protein synthesis in a cell?

Select one of the following:

  • Ribosomes

  • SER (A type of endoplasmic reticulum)

  • Lysosomes

  • Golgi Apparatus

Explanation

Question 34 of 99

1

During relaxation, muscles return to their original length NOT because of

Select one of the following:

  • Renshaw inhibition

  • Elastic forces

  • The pull of gravity

  • The contraction of opposing muscles

  • The elastic nature of the sarcolemma

Explanation

Question 35 of 99

1

At rest, active sites on the actin are blocked by

Select one of the following:

  • Myosin molecules

  • Calcium ions

  • ATP molecules

  • Troponin molecules

  • Tropomyosin molecules

Explanation

Question 36 of 99

1

Tropomyosin wraps (entwines) itself around which other muscle element?

Select one of the following:

  • Myosin

  • F-actin

  • Troponin

  • Titin

  • H-band

Explanation

Question 37 of 99

1

The 'power stroke' in skeletal muscle contraction is directly associated with:

Select one of the following:

  • Myosin head pivots at joint pulling action

  • AP movement down t-tubule

  • Calcium release from SR

  • AP movement along sarcolemma

  • Calcium binding to troponin

Explanation

Question 38 of 99

1

We can distinguish between sensations originating in different body areas because

Select one of the following:

  • Receptors from each body region synapse in specific brain regions

  • Sensory neurons carry only one type of information

  • Incoming sensory information is first assessed by the thalamus

  • Different types of sensory receptors produce different types of APs

  • Sensory neurons in different parts of the body are different from each other.

Explanation

Question 39 of 99

1

Diffusion across the Arachnoid Granulations return excess CSF to

Select one of the following:

  • The third ventricle

  • Arterial circulation

  • Venous circulation

  • The fourth ventricle

  • The central canal

Explanation

Question 40 of 99

1

Soon after a person dies (and loses all ATPs), Their skeletal muscles:

Select one of the following:

  • Flex with significant force

  • Stiffen from actin+myosin binding

  • Extend with significant force

  • Get smaller in volume

  • Get larger in volume

Explanation

Question 41 of 99

1

Each of the following are characteristics of smooth muscles EXCEPT:

Select one of the following:

  • Have small diameters and lengths compared with skeletal muscles

  • Have actin and myosin

  • Have autorhythmicity

  • Have striations

  • Little fatigue with prolong contraction

Explanation

Question 42 of 99

1

Which of the following is responsible for reciprocal inhibition?

Select one of the following:

  • Sensory neurons

  • Interneurons in the spinal cord

  • Extensor neurons

  • Motor neurons

  • None of these

Explanation

Question 43 of 99

1

Arrange the following steps involved in a reflex arc into proper sequence
a. activation of a sensory neuron
b. activation of a motor neuron
c. response by an effector
d. arrival of a stimulus and activation of a receptor
e. information processing

Select one of the following:

  • D,E,A,B,C

  • A,B,C,E,D

  • D,A,B,C,E

  • E,B,C,D,A

Explanation

Question 44 of 99

1

People perceive different intensities of light when their brains receive different ___

Select one of the following:

  • Action potentials sned to various regions of their brain

  • Shapes of action potentials

  • Sizes of action potentials

  • Wavelengths of light

  • Rate of action potentials

Explanation

Question 45 of 99

1

Part of the brain most closely associated with emotions (e.g. pleasure, hunger) is:

Select one of the following:

  • Cerebrum

  • Thalamus

  • Hypothalamus

  • Cerebellum

  • Medulla oblongata

Explanation

Question 46 of 99

1

The cell bodies of the sympathetic preganglionic neurons are in the:

Select one of the following:

  • Lateral gray horns of T1 through L2 region of the spinal cord

  • Brain stem and sacral areas of the spinal cord

  • Lateral gray horns of the cervical region of the spinal cord

  • Anterior gray horns of the entire spinal cord

  • Lateral gray horns of the entire spinal cord

Explanation

Question 47 of 99

1

Activity of the parasympathetic ANS mainly

Select one of the following:

  • Is directed towards different sets of organs than the sympathetic ANS

  • Is involved in "fight or flight" responses

  • Increases when someone turns into the "hulk"

  • Increase blood flow to the skeletal muscles

  • Increases while calmly digesting dinner

Explanation

Question 48 of 99

1

The cell bodies of the parasympathetic preganglionic neurons are found in the:

Select one of the following:

  • Lateral gray horns of T1 through L2 region of the spinal cord

  • Brain stem and lateral gray horns of the sacral areas of the spinal cord

  • Lateral gray horns of the cervical region of the spinal cord

  • Anterior gray horns of the entire spinal cord

  • Lateral gray horns of the entire spinal cord

Explanation

Question 49 of 99

1

Of the 31 pairs of spinal nerves, each one monitors a particular ____

Select one of the following:

  • Dermatome

  • Muscle

  • Organ

  • Brain region

  • Sensory modality (Like vision or hearing)

Explanation

Question 50 of 99

1

Large, multinucleated cells that can dissolve the bony matrix are termed

Select one of the following:

  • Osteocytes

  • Osteoclasts

  • Osteoblasts

  • Stem Cells

  • Chondrocytes

Explanation

Question 51 of 99

1

Appositional growth in bones is most closely related to growth in:

Select one of the following:

  • Bone length

  • Osteoclasts

  • Epiphyseal conversion

  • Bone diameter

  • Bone turnover

Explanation

Question 52 of 99

1

____ decreases the concentration of calcium in the blood

Select one of the following:

  • Calcitonin

  • Calcitrol

  • Parathyroid hormone

  • Vitamin D

  • Both B and D are correct

Explanation

Question 53 of 99

1

The "shaft" of a long bone is most closely associated with the

Select one of the following:

  • Epiphysis

  • Diaphysis

  • Periosteum

  • Endochondrial

  • Appositional

Explanation

Question 54 of 99

1

Arrange the steps in the generation of an action potential into proper sequence
a. sodium channels inactivated
b. potassium channels open and potassium moves out of the cell
c. sodium channels regain their normal properties
d. graded depolarization brings area of excitable membrane to threshold
e. a temporary hyperpolarization occurs
f. sodium channel activation occurs
g. sodium ions enter the cell and depolarization occurs

Select one of the following:

  • d,f,g,a,b,c,e

  • a,b,e,c,d,f,g

  • b,d,e,f,g,a,c

  • d,a,g,e,f,b,c

  • d,e,a,c,b,f,g

Explanation

Question 55 of 99

1

During saltatory conduction, (APs=Action potentials)

Select one of the following:

  • APs move in all directions along an axon

  • Local currents depolarize adjacent areas of membrane so that APs continue to form along the membrane

  • APs produce a local current that is strong enough to spread along the length of the axon

  • Local potentials produce a continuous outward flow of potassium ions

  • APs occur between successive nodes along the length of stimulated axon

Explanation

Question 56 of 99

1

Multiple Sclerosis (MS) is associated with a loss of myelin. MS may then involve:

Select one of the following:

  • Oligodendrocytes

  • Astrocytes

  • Microglia

  • Ependymal

  • Renshaw neurons

Explanation

Question 57 of 99

1

The later part of the rising (depolarizing) phase of the action potential is mediated by a(n) ____ ion membrane channel

Select one of the following:

  • Ligand-gated

  • Voltage-gated

  • Leak

  • Active pump

  • Facilitated diffusion

Explanation

Question 58 of 99

1

Which of the following is TRUE of a graded potential?

Select one of the following:

  • The potential is propagated with a constant magnitude

  • The potential is all-or-none

  • Stimulus causes ion channels to open changing membrane permeability

  • No summation of potentials occurs

  • The potential has a refractory period

Explanation

Question 59 of 99

1

Opening of Na+ channels in the membrane of a neuron normally results in

Select one of the following:

  • Hyperpolarization

  • Repolarization

  • Depolarization

  • Increased negative charge inside neuron

  • None of these

Explanation

Question 60 of 99

1

A resting (trans)membrane potential of a cell has a value of approximately

Select one of the following:

  • -9V

  • +9V

  • 0mV

  • +70mV

  • -70mV

Explanation

Question 61 of 99

1

What prevents the action potential from traveling in both directions down an axon?

Select one of the following:

  • The resting potential

  • Ligand-gated channels

  • Graded potentials

  • The refractory period

  • Leak channels

Explanation

Question 62 of 99

1

A person whose genetic makeup or training makes them a better SPRINTER than a marathon runner has ___ in their leg muscles

Select one of the following:

  • More red muscle fibers

  • More white muscles fibers

  • More noncontractile fibers

  • Equal amounts of red and white m. fibers

  • Less myoglobin than hemoglobin

Explanation

Question 63 of 99

1

The smooth but steady increase in muscle tension (sub maximally) produced by increasing the number of active motor units is called:

Select one of the following:

  • Recruitment

  • Tetany

  • A twitch

  • Relaxation

  • Recovery

Explanation

Question 64 of 99

1

____ is involved in BOTH synaptic transmission and excitation-contraction coupling?

Select one of the following:

  • Mysoin

  • Chloride

  • Calcium

  • Tropomyosin

  • T-tubules

Explanation

Question 65 of 99

1

Which striated muscle band is directly adjacent to the Z-line (or Z-disk)?

Select one of the following:

  • A-band

  • H-band

  • T-band

  • M-band

  • I-band

Explanation

Question 66 of 99

1

Overseeing the postural muscles of the body and making rapid adjustments to maintain balance and equilibrium are functions of the

Select one of the following:

  • Cerebrum

  • Midbrain

  • Pons

  • Cerebellum

  • Medulla

Explanation

Question 67 of 99

1

Cardiac output is equal to:

Select one of the following:

  • difference between diastolic volume and systolic volume

  • product of heart rate and stroke volume

  • difference between stroke volume and rest and during exercise

  • stroke volume minus systolic volume

  • product of heart rate and BP

Explanation

Question 68 of 99

1

According to Frank Starling's heart law, cardiac output is directly related to

Select one of the following:

  • the size of the ventricle

  • heart rate

  • venous return

  • thickness of myocardium

  • amount of blood in circulatory system

Explanation

Question 69 of 99

1

Red blood cell production is regulated primarily by the hormone

Select one of the following:

  • Thymosin

  • Angiotensin

  • Erythropoietin (EPO)

  • ACTH

  • LH

Explanation

Question 70 of 99

1

The part of the cardiac cycle associated with relaxation of the ventricles and filling of the atria is:

Select one of the following:

  • ventricular diastole

  • Ventricular systole

  • early ventricular diastole

  • late ventricular diastole

  • atrium systole

Explanation

Question 71 of 99

1

An example of a hormone that functions as a vasoconstritor is:

Select one of the following:

  • histamine

  • prostoglandin

  • bradykinin

  • serotonin

  • adrenaline

Explanation

Question 72 of 99

1

Which change will NOT result in increased blood flow to a tissue?

Select one of the following:

  • increased blood volume

  • decreased vessel diameter

  • increased blood pressure

  • decreased peripheral resistance

  • relaxation of precapillary sphincters

Explanation

Question 73 of 99

1

Which of the responses below is NOT true of Kwashiorkor Edema?

Select one of the following:

  • involves a blockage of lymphatic ducts

  • involves a lowering or plasma protein

  • involves an increase of interstitial volume

  • involves poor nutrition

  • involves alterations in osmotic pressure

Explanation

Question 74 of 99

1

Excess secretion of growth hormone AFTER puberty will cause

Select one of the following:

  • dwarfism

  • cancer

  • gigantism

  • acromegaly

  • diabetes

Explanation

Question 75 of 99

1

STEROIDS ARE KNOWN TO BE RELEASE INTO THE BLOODSTREAM FROM THE

Select one of the following:

  • hypothalamus

  • anterior pituitary

  • posterior pituitary

  • pancreas

  • adrenal cortex

Explanation

Question 76 of 99

1

The hormone that is antagonist of calcitonin is

Select one of the following:

  • insulin

  • glucagon

  • growth hormone

  • parathyroid hormone

  • Thyroxin (T4)

Explanation

Question 77 of 99

1

Excessive immune responses to antigens are

Select one of the following:

  • immunodeficiency disease

  • characteristic of AIDS

  • common in the elderly

  • characteristics of HIV infection

  • allergies

Explanation

Question 78 of 99

1

Histamine increases blood flow and vascular permeability. This would account for which of the following changes that occur during inflammation?

Select one of the following:

  • redness of the inflamed tissue

  • swelling of the inflamed tissue

  • heat of the inflamed tissue

  • the localization of proteins and cells necessary for body defense

  • all of the above

Explanation

Question 79 of 99

1

Blood osmotic pressure is most affected by changes in the

Select one of the following:

  • concentration of plasmas sodium ions

  • concentration of plasma waste glucose

  • concentration of plasma waste products

  • concentration of plasma proteins

  • number of white blood cells

Explanation

Question 80 of 99

1

In response to hemorrhage, there is a

Select one of the following:

  • mobilization of the venous reserve

  • increased parasympathetic stimulation of the heart

  • decreased sympathetic stimulation

  • decreased vasomotor tone and increased parasympathetic stimulation of heart

  • decreased vasomotor tone and decreased sympathetic stimulation of the heart

Explanation

Question 81 of 99

1

Edema would be likely to form

Select one of the following:

  • the concentration of protein in the blood increases

  • hemorrhage occurs

  • the heart insufficient pressure pumping

  • blood hydrostatic pressure in the capillary decreases outward flow of fluid

  • blood hydrostatic pressure in capillary is less than blood osmotic pressure

Explanation

Question 82 of 99

1

The cells responsible for the production of circulating antibodies are

Select one of the following:

  • Natural killer cells

  • plasma cells

  • helper T cells

  • cytotoxic T cells

  • supressor T cells

Explanation

Question 83 of 99

1

The body's largest lymphatic tissue is the:

Select one of the following:

  • thyroid

  • thymus

  • thalamus

  • pancreas

  • spleen

Explanation

Question 84 of 99

1

With a patient being thin, nervous, with protruding eye (balls), you are thinking that

Select one of the following:

  • they suffer from Graves disease

  • they suffer from myxedema

  • they suffer from cretinism

  • they suffer from acromegaly

  • they suffer from hyroencephaly

Explanation

Question 85 of 99

1

Depolarization in the cochlear hair cell will occur if the sterocilia moves (bends)

Select one of the following:

  • up towards the tectoral membrane

  • down towards the basilar membrane

  • sideways towards the taller sterocilia

  • sideways towards the shorter sterocilia

  • back and forth sideways (both C and D)

Explanation

Question 86 of 99

1

Different pitches (frequencies) of sounds are discriminated in cochlea through

Select one of the following:

  • stimulating/vibrating different types/classes of sterocilia

  • stimulating/vibrating different classes of hair cells

  • stimulating/vibrating different types/ classes of ion channels

  • stimulating/vibrating different auditory canals or membranes

  • stimulating/vibrating different patches of the basilar membrane

Explanation

Question 87 of 99

1

The round-ish lens shape in the most closely associated with focusing on a

Select one of the following:

  • bright object

  • dim object

  • close object

  • distant object

  • both B and D are correct

Explanation

Question 88 of 99

1

A drifting blood clot is called an

Select one of the following:

  • embolus

  • thrombus

  • plaque

  • coagulant

  • platelet plug

Explanation

Question 89 of 99

1

The left and right pulmonary veins carry blood to the

Select one of the following:

  • right atrium

  • right ventricle

  • left atrium

  • left ventricle

  • lungs

Explanation

Question 90 of 99

1

The heart sound is heard when

Select one of the following:

  • the semilunar valves open

  • the atria contract

  • valves open

  • valves close

  • blood enter the aorta

Explanation

Question 91 of 99

1

Aged and broken down erythrocytes are broken down by the ____

Select one of the following:

  • spleen

  • yellow bone marrow

  • kidneys

  • digestive tract

  • thymus gland

Explanation

Question 92 of 99

1

The heart valve occurring between the LA and LV is called the ____ valve

Select one of the following:

  • aortic (semilunar)

  • pulmonary semilunar

  • triscuspid

  • aortic tricuspid

  • mitral (bicuspid)

Explanation

Question 93 of 99

1

Insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus is also known as

Select one of the following:

  • non insulin dependent

  • type I

  • type II

  • type III

  • diabetes insipidus

Explanation

Question 94 of 99

1

The sclera is most closely associated with the

Select one of the following:

  • retina

  • pupil

  • iris

  • white-ish part of the eyeball

  • lens ligaments

Explanation

Question 95 of 99

1

Anemia is most closely associated with

Select one of the following:

  • high levels of oxygen in tissues

  • hematocrit value of less than 40

  • low levels of carbon dioxide in tissues

  • hematocrit value of more than 40

  • hematocrit value of more than 50

Explanation

Question 96 of 99

1

The Pitiarty hormeon that mots specifically promotes egg development in ovaries and sper developmetn in testes is

Select one of the following:

  • TSH

  • ACTH

  • FSH

  • prolactin

  • GH (or HGH) (or HGHRH)

Explanation

Question 97 of 99

1

In human photoreceptors, to what does "dark current" refer?

Select one of the following:

  • The movement of sodium ion INTO photoreceptors in complete darkness

  • The movement of sodium ions OUT OF photoreceptors in complete darkness

  • The movement of cGMP INTO photoreceptors in complete darkness

  • The movement of cGMP OUT OF photoreceptors in complete darkness

  • The movement of

Explanation

Question 98 of 99

1

The structure that separates the cholera duct from the tympanic duct is the

Select one of the following:

  • Tectorial membrane

  • basilar membrane

  • vestiblar duct

  • organ of Corti

  • tympanic membrane

Explanation

Question 99 of 99

1

An inability for the body to clot (prevent flow out of) blood is most closely associated with

Select one of the following:

  • thalassemia

  • hemophilia

  • diapedesis

  • hemostasemia

  • leukemia

Explanation