Sarah Wainer
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Quiz on Microbiology ALL EXAM QUESTIONS, created by Sarah Wainer on 05/05/2014.

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Microbiology ALL EXAM QUESTIONS

Microbiology ALL EXAM QUESTIONS

Question 1 of 100

1

The microorganisms that do not have a nucleus in their cells are called

Select one of the following:

  • decomposers

  • prokaryotes

  • pathogens

  • eukaryotes

  • fermenters

Explanation

Question 2 of 100

1

Koch's postulates are criteria used to establish that

Select one of the following:

  • microbes are found on dust particles

  • a specific microbe is the cause of a specific disease

Explanation

Question 3 of 100

1

A fat is called____ if all carbons of the fatty acid chain are single bounded to 2 other carbons and 2 hydrogens

Select one of the following:

  • unsaturated

  • polyunsaturated

  • monounsaturated

  • saturated

  • None of the choices are correct

Explanation

Question 4 of 100

1

The building blocks of an enzyme are

Select one of the following:

  • nucleotides

  • glycerol and fatty acids

  • monosaccharides

  • phosphate, glycerol and fatty acids

  • amino acids

Explanation

Question 5 of 100

1

ATP is best described as

Select one of the following:

  • an enzyme

  • a double helix

  • an electron carrier

  • the energy molecule of cells

  • all of the choices are correct

Explanation

Question 6 of 100

1

Which of the following is not a characteristic of a prokaryote?

Select one of the following:

  • Its DNA is not encased in a membrane

  • It has a cell wall made of peptidoglycans or other distinct chemicals

  • it does not have membrane-bound organelles

  • Its DNA is wrapped around histones

  • All of these are characteristics of prokaryotes

Explanation

Question 7 of 100

1

Peptiodoglycan is a unique macromolecule found in bacterial

Select one of the following:

  • cell walls

  • cell membranes

  • capsules

  • smile layers

  • inclusions

Explanation

Question 8 of 100

1

The bacterial chormosome

Select one of the following:

  • is located in the cell membrane

  • contains all the cell's plasmids

  • is part of the nucleoid

  • forms a single linear strand of DNA

  • all of the choices are correct

Explanation

Question 9 of 100

1

The function of bacterial endospores is

Select one of the following:

  • to convert gaseous nitrogen to a usable form for plants

  • reproduction and growth

  • protection of genetic material during harsh conditions

  • storage of excess cell materials

  • to act as sites for photosynthesis

Explanation

Question 10 of 100

1

Two major structures that allow bacteria to adhere to surfaces are ___ and ___

Select one of the following:

  • pili, ribosome

  • fimbrae, capsules

  • lipoplysaccharides, techoic acids

  • actin filaments, phospholipid membranes

  • actin filaments, ribosomes

Explanation

Question 11 of 100

1

As a triage nurse in the ER, you begin the assessment of an elderly patient complaining of blood diarrhea and severe stomach cramps. You find the patient has a fever of 104 as well, and is show signs of dehydration. IV fluids are administered while further analysis of the patient continues
Gram staining reveals the presence of gram-negative bacilli in the patient's stool. Thinking about the patient's spike in temperature, you understand now how this bacterium could cause a fever. WHich of the following is the correct explanation?

Select one of the following:

  • Gram-negative bacteria have a thick peptidoglycan layer which confers their ability to cause fever

  • Gram-negative bacteria have 2 periplasmic spaces which enhances their ability to cause fever

  • Gram-negative bacteria have teichoic acid in their outer membrane which confer their ability to cause fever

  • Gram-negative bacteria have lipoplysaccharide in their outer membrane, and the lipid portion confers their ability to cause fever

Explanation

Question 12 of 100

1

The endosymbiotic theory has been developed to explain the mergence of eukaryotes. The eukaryotic mitochondrion most resembles a bacterial cell due to

Select one of the following:

  • an other membrane which is similar to the Gram-negative outer membrane

  • 70S ribosomes rather than 80S ribosomes

  • the presence of its own DNA molecule

  • all of the above

  • none of the above

Explanation

Question 13 of 100

1

Which of the following is found in eukaryotic cells but not in prokaryotic cells

Select one of the following:

  • nucleus

  • mitochondria

  • endoplasmic reticulum

  • lysosomes

  • all of the choices are correct

Explanation

Question 14 of 100

1

Which of the following is not a function of the eukaryotes glycocalyx

Select one of the following:

  • protection

  • adherence

  • movement

  • reception of chemical signals

  • all of the choices are functions

Explanation

Question 15 of 100

1

The site of ribosomal RNA synthesis is the

Select one of the following:

  • ribosome

  • nucleolus

  • nucleus

  • Golgi apparatus

  • Lysosome

Explanation

Question 16 of 100

1

You begin your 10 hour shit at the infusion center at the local cancer center. Mrs. Overrocker has be coming in every Wednesday at 10:00 am for the past 3 weeks for her infusion of chemotherapy. She complains that her mouth hurts. A visual examination reveals a white film covering the inside of her cheeks and her tongue. You swab the inside of her mouth for microscopic analysis.

You look closely and see that some of the cells are producing filamentous structures called hyphae. A term referring to a yeast able to exist in a yeast or hyphal form is

Select one of the following:

  • dioecious

  • dimorphic

  • dichotomous

  • diurnal

Explanation

Question 17 of 100

1

The term chemoheterotroph refers to an organisms that

Select one of the following:

  • uses CO2 for its carbon source

  • must obtain inorganic compounds for its energy source

  • gets energy from sunlight

  • gets energy by oxidizing chemical compounds

  • does not need a carbon source

Explanation

Question 18 of 100

1

The movement of substances from lower to higher concentration across a semi-permeable membrane that must have a specific protein carries and cell expenditure of energy is called

Select one of the following:

  • facilitated diffusion

  • diffusion

  • active transport

  • osmosis

  • endocytosis

Explanation

Question 19 of 100

1

When whole cells or large molecules in solution are engulfed by a cell, this endocytosis is specifically termed

Select one of the following:

  • pinocytosis

  • phagocytosis

  • facilitated transport

  • facilitated diffusion

  • exocytosis

Explanation

Question 20 of 100

1

Cultures of a bacterial species were incubated on the shelf of a refrigerator, out on a lab bench top, on the shelf of a 37 degree incubator, and on the shelf of a 50 degrees incubator. After incubation. there was no growth at 37 degrees and 50 degrees, slight growth out on the bench top, and abundant growth at refrigeration. What term could be used for this species?

Select one of the following:

  • halophile

  • mesophile

  • anaerobe

  • psychorophile

  • capnophile

Explanation

Question 21 of 100

1

The E. coli that normally live in human large intestine and produce vitamin K for the body to use would best be termed a ____ relationship

Select one of the following:

  • parasitic

  • saprobic

  • commensal

  • mutualistic

  • None of the choice is correct

Explanation

Question 22 of 100

1

The time interval from parent cell to two new daughter cells is called

Select one of the following:

  • binary fission

  • growth curve

  • generation time

  • death phase

  • culture time

Explanation

Question 23 of 100

1

The process that destroys or removes all microorganisms and microbial forms including bacterial endospores on inanimate objects is

Select one of the following:

  • disinfection

  • sterilization

  • antisepsis

  • sanitization

  • degermation

Explanation

Question 24 of 100

1

Microbial death occurs when there is

Select one of the following:

  • no movement

  • no reproduction

  • a change in appearance

  • a decrease in size

  • all of these occur

Explanation

Question 25 of 100

1

Ethylene oxide is

Select one of the following:

  • sporicidal

  • only effective with high heat

  • the active agent in household bleach

  • used as an antiseptic against anaerobes

  • a halogen

Explanation

Question 26 of 100

1

Enzymes are

Select one of the following:

  • broken down in reactions that require energy input

  • proteins that function as catalysts

  • Used up in chemical reactions

  • not need for catabolic reactions

  • all of the choices are correct

Explanation

Question 27 of 100

1

Each of the following is true of enzymes except

Select one of the following:

  • they can be used over and over

  • they may or may not require cofactors

  • their active site is specific to the substrate

  • they increases the activation energy of a reaction

  • all of the choices are true of enzymes

Explanation

Question 28 of 100

1

Denaturing an apoenzyme will destroy the three-dimensional shape of the protein, making it nonfunctional

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 29 of 100

1

Enzymes that catalyze moving a phosphate from one substrate to another are called

Select one of the following:

  • phosphotransferases

  • oxidoreductases

  • decarbosylases

  • aminotransferases

  • ligases

Explanation

Question 30 of 100

1

Each of the following are denaturing agents except

Select one of the following:

  • high temperature

  • low temperature

  • high pH

  • low pH

  • all of the choices are correct

Explanation

Question 31 of 100

1

The breakdown of petiodglycan to N-acetylmuramic acid, N-acetlyglucoasmine, and peptides is an example

Select one of the following:

  • anabolism

  • catabolism

  • phosphorylation

  • fermentation

  • synthesis

Explanation

Question 32 of 100

1

During aerobic cellular respiration, the final electron acceptor is

Select one of the following:

  • pryruvic acid

  • oxygen

  • nitrate

  • cytochorome c

  • FAD

Explanation

Question 33 of 100

1

In the cell, energy released by electrons is often used to phosphorylate

Select one of the following:

  • ATP

  • ADP

  • pyruvic acid

  • oxygen

  • NAD

Explanation

Question 34 of 100

1

In addition to electrons, which of the following is also involved in electron transfer

Select one of the following:

  • ADP

  • Glucose

  • carbon

  • hydrogen

  • carbon dioxide

Explanation

Question 35 of 100

1

Glycolysis

Select one of the following:

  • uses 2 ATPs, produces 2 ATPs, and requires oxygen

  • uses 2 ATPs, produces 4 ATPs, and requires oxygen

  • uses 2 ATPs, produces 4 ATPs, and without using oxygen

  • uses 2 ATPs, produces 2 ATPs, and without using oxygen

  • None of the choices are correct

Explanation

Question 36 of 100

1

The formation of citric acid from oxaloacetic acid and an acetyl group begins

Select one of the following:

  • glycolysis

  • the electron transport system

  • the Krebs cycle

  • fermentation

  • oxidative phosphorylation

Explanation

Question 37 of 100

1

The majority of reduced NAD is produced in

Select one of the following:

  • Glycolysis

  • Krebs Cycle

  • Electron tranport chain

  • photosynthesis

  • none of these are correct

Explanation

Question 38 of 100

1

Each NADH that Enter the electrons transport system gives rise to ____ ATP

Select one of the following:

  • 2

  • 3

  • 24

  • 36

  • 38

Explanation

Question 39 of 100

1

Each FADH2 from the Krebs cycle enter the electron transport system and gives rise to ____ ATPs

Select one of the following:

  • 1

  • 2

  • 3

  • 4

  • 5

Explanation

Question 40 of 100

1

During which of the phases of cellular respiration is the majority of ATP formed?

Select one of the following:

  • electron transport

  • Krebs cycle

  • Glycolysis

  • processing of pyruvic acid for the Krebs cycle

  • All the phases produce the same number of ATP molecules

Explanation

Question 41 of 100

1

ATP syntase is a complex enzyme needed for oxidative phosphoylation

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 42 of 100

1

Fermentation

Select one of the following:

  • requires an organic electron acceptor

  • requires oxygen

  • only occurs in aerobic organisms

  • is equivalent to aerobic respiration in ATP production

  • none of the choices are correct

Explanation

Question 43 of 100

1

Formation of peptide bounds between amino aids to build a polypeptide would be called

Select one of the following:

  • anabolism

  • phosphorylation

  • fermentation

  • exergonic

  • glycolysis

Explanation

Question 44 of 100

1

Building block molecules for biosythtic pathways come from the cell's catabolic pathways and from the environment

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 45 of 100

1

A 67-year-old patent with sever sepsis undergoes a full infectious work-up upon admittance to the intensive care unit. Culture of urine, blood, sputum, and cerebral spinal fluid are obtained. The cultures do not yield a specific organisms, so further analysis of the sample is done to determine the characteristics of the microorganism. The metabolic processes are analyzed in the lab.

The organisms is found to grow throughout the entire tube of broth media. Which of the following terms dest describes the oxygen requirement of this organism?

Select one of the following:

  • obligate aerobe

  • microaerophile

  • facultative anaerobe

  • obligate anaerobe

Explanation

Question 46 of 100

1

A 67-year-old patent with sever sepsis undergoes a full infectious work-up upon admittance to the intensive care unit. Culture of urine, blood, sputum, and cerebral spinal fluid are obtained. The cultures do not yield a specific organisms, so further analysis of the sample is done to determine the characteristics of the microorganism. The metabolic processes are analyzed in the lab.

The organisms is found to grow throughout the entire tube of broth media. Which of the following terms dest describes the oxygen requirement of this organism?

Select one of the following:

  • obligate aerobe

  • microaerophile

  • facultative anaerobe

  • obligate anaerobe

Explanation

Question 47 of 100

1

A 67-year-old patent with sever sepsis undergoes a full infectious work-up upon admittance to the intensive care unit. Culture of urine, blood, sputum, and cerebral spinal fluid are obtained. The cultures do not yield a specific organisms, so further analysis of the sample is done to determine the characteristics of the microorganism. The metabolic processes are analyzed in the lab.

Biochemical testing reveals that the organisms further reduces nitrate to produce nitrous oxide. Based upon this byproduct, which of the following is the most likely catabolic pathway utilized by this organism?

Select one of the following:

  • aerobic respiration

  • anaerobic respiration

  • fermentation

  • aerobic and anaerobic respiration, as well as fermentation, can all lead to the production of nitrous oxide

Explanation

Question 48 of 100

1

What is the maximum net yield of ATP from anaerobic respiration?

Select one of the following:

  • 2

  • 2-36

  • 36-38

  • 38-40

Explanation

Question 49 of 100

1

Which of the following macromolecules, when catabolized, COULD release carbon, sulfur and nitrogen

Select one of the following:

  • nucleic acids

  • proteins

  • carbohydrates

  • lipids

  • all of the above

Explanation

Question 50 of 100

1

Which of the following is not a characteristic of a prokaryote

Select one of the following:

  • Its DNA is not encased in membrane

  • it has a cell wall made of peptidoglycans or other distinct chemicals

  • its does not have membrane-bound organelles

  • its DNA is wrapped around histones

  • all of these are characteristics or prokaryotes

Explanation

Question 51 of 100

1

According to the current taxonomy or organisms, which of the following is not considered a domain

Select one of the following:

  • Eukarya

  • Bacteria

  • Archaea

  • Protista

  • All of these part of the three domain system

Explanation

Question 52 of 100

1

Each ____ is a specific segment of the DNA with the code fro production of one functional product

Select one of the following:

  • intron

  • exon

  • gene

  • operator

  • triplet

Explanation

Question 53 of 100

1

The DNA of microorganisms is made up of subunits called

Select one of the following:

  • histones

  • amino acids

  • nucleotides

  • mRNA

  • polymerases

Explanation

Question 54 of 100

1

Base pairs in DNA are held together by ____ bonds

Select one of the following:

  • peptide

  • nonpolar covalent

  • polar covalent

  • hydrogen

  • sulfhydryl

Explanation

Question 55 of 100

1

The duplication of a cell's DNA is called

Select one of the following:

  • mitosis

  • replication

  • transcription

  • translation

  • mutation

Explanation

Question 56 of 100

1

During replication, each parent DNA strand sever as a ____for synthesis of new DNA strands

Select one of the following:

  • Copy point

  • Template

  • Comparison molecule

  • scaffold

  • reservior

Explanation

Question 57 of 100

1

Semi- conservative replication refers to

Select one of the following:

  • each base bonding at the 1' position of the sugar

  • a purine always bonding to a pyrimindine

  • one helix strand that runs from the 5' to 3' direction and the other strand runs from the 3' to 5' direction

  • the original parent DNA strand and one newly synthesized DNA strand compromising a new DNA molecule

  • None of the choices are correct

Explanation

Question 58 of 100

1

The site where the old DNA strands separate and new DNA strands will be synthesized is called the

Select one of the following:

  • primer

  • Okazaki fragments

  • template

  • rolling circle

  • replication fork

Explanation

Question 59 of 100

1

Helicase

Select one of the following:

  • unzips DNA

  • supercoils DNA

  • unwinds RNA

  • winds RNA

  • None of the choices is correct

Explanation

Question 60 of 100

1

Replication of DNA begins at a/an

Select one of the following:

  • guanine-cytosine rich area

  • uracil-adenine rich area

  • adenine-thymine rich area

  • adenine-cytosine rich area

  • guanine-adenine rich area

Explanation

Question 61 of 100

1

RNA molecules differ from DNA molecules because only RNA

Select one of the following:

  • has ribose

  • has uracil

  • is typically one strand of nucleotides

  • does not have thymine

  • all of the choices are correct

Explanation

Question 62 of 100

1

All of the following pertain to transcription except

Select one of the following:

  • occurs on a ribosome in the cytoplasm

  • occurs before translation

  • requires RNA polymerase

  • requires a template DNA strand

  • proceeds in the 5' to 3' direction of the growing mRNA molecule

Explanation

Question 63 of 100

1

Which of the following is incorrect about transfer RNA

Select one of the following:

  • has a bottom hairpin loop with an anticodon

  • as anticodon is complementary to a codon

  • contains a binding site for an amino acid

  • the initiator tRNA that bind to the P site has the anticodon UAC

  • initiator tRNA is bacteria carries tryptonphan

Explanation

Question 64 of 100

1

The following pertains to ribosomes during protein synthesis exceot

Select one of the following:

  • participate in both transcription and translation

  • participate only in translation

  • bind to the 5' end of mRNA by their small subunit

  • use their large subunit to supply enzymes for peptide bonding

  • shift to the right along the mRNA strand from one codon to the next

Explanation

Question 65 of 100

1

Which of the following is not associated with a prokaryotic ribosome?

Select one of the following:

  • is a 70s

  • small unit provides the enzymes for making peptide bonds

  • has a peptide (P) site

  • has an exit site

  • has an amino acid (A) site

Explanation

Question 66 of 100

1

which is incorrect about inducible operons

Select one of the following:

  • have genes turned off by a build up of end product

  • are often for catabolic pathways

  • are normally turned off

  • are turned on by the substrate of the enzyme

  • include the lac operon

Explanation

Question 67 of 100

1

The operon segment composed of the gene that codes fro a protein capable of repression the operon is called the

Select one of the following:

  • operator

  • structural locus

  • regulator

  • promoter

  • none of choices is correct

Explanation

Question 68 of 100

1

Synthesis of an inducible enzyme requires

Select one of the following:

  • repressor alone bound to operator

  • substrate bound to repressor

  • substrate bound to promoter

  • corepressor and repressor binding to operator

  • none of the choices are correct

Explanation

Question 69 of 100

1

Gene regulation can involve a protein repressor that blocks ____ from initiating transcription

Select one of the following:

  • RNA polymerase

  • DNA polymerase I

  • DNA polymerase III

  • mRNA

  • rRNA

Explanation

Question 70 of 100

1

A mutation that changes a normal codon to a stop codon is called a

Select one of the following:

  • point mutation

  • silent mutation

  • back mutation

  • missense mutation

  • nonsense mutation

Explanation

Question 71 of 100

1

A frame shift is caused by ____ mutations

Select one of the following:

  • missense and insertion

  • missense and nonsense

  • nonsense and deletion

  • deletion and insertion

  • insertion and nonsense

Explanation

Question 72 of 100

1

A bacteriophage transfers DNA of the pervious host to the current host. This is an example of

Select one of the following:

  • conjugation

  • generalized transduction

  • specialized transduction

  • reation of an Hfr cell

  • none of the choices is correct

Explanation

Question 73 of 100

1

The jumping of a gene from one location to another is done by

Select one of the following:

  • conjugation

  • transposons

  • transformation

  • transduction

  • transmission

Explanation

Question 74 of 100

1

A 59-year-old female has been diagnosed with E. coli infection following the consumption of contaminated meat. THE patient is exhibiting a high fever, severe abdominal cramping, and diarrhea. As the RN, you provide supportive care and fluid resuscitation as ordered. You are familiar with the E. coli bacterium, and provide education to the patient and her family regarding the genetics of this bacterium.

As the RN, you instruct the family that the transfer of genetic material can involve contact between 2 bacterial cells, DNA can pass from one cell to the other through a pilus during this process, which is called

Select one of the following:

  • transformation

  • conjugation

  • specialized transduction

  • generalized transduction

Explanation

Question 75 of 100

1

In gram-negative bacteria, like E. coli, the fertility factor is a plasmid possessed by the bacterium that will donate its DNA to a recipient cell. Which of the following statements, by the patient, demonstrates understanding of this plasmid?

Select one of the following:

  • "it is a large, double-stranded linear piece of DNA"

  • "it is found in F- cells only"

  • "it controls the process of transduction in bacterial cells"

  • "It encodes the information to create a pilus"

Explanation

Question 76 of 100

1

You also indicate to the patient that genetic information can be acquired by bacterial cells in other ways. Which of the following is a correct statement regarding these processes?

Select one of the following:

  • "transformation requires that formation of a pilus for genetic exchange to occur"

  • "transposition involves the transfer of genetic information to bacterial cells directly from their environment"

  • "Transfection is a phenomenon of prokaryotic cells"

  • Transduction involves the transfer of genetic information from a bacteriophage to a bacterial cell"

Explanation

Question 77 of 100

1

Virus capsids are made from subunits called

Select one of the following:

  • envelopes

  • spikes

  • capsomeres

  • prophages

  • peplomers

Explanation

Question 78 of 100

1

The core of every virus particles always contains

Select one of the following:

  • DNA

  • capsomeres

  • enzymes

  • either DNA or RNA

  • DNA and RNA

Explanation

Question 79 of 100

1

Viruses with ___ sense RNA contain the correct message for translation, while viruses with ___ sense RNA must first be converted into a correct message

Select one of the following:

  • Positive-, negative-

  • negative-, positive-

  • primary,secondary

  • secondary, primary

  • none of the choices are correct

Explanation

Question 80 of 100

1

In general, most DNA viruses multiply in the host cell's ____, while most RNA viruses multiply in the host cell's ___

Select one of the following:

  • nucleus, cytoplasm

  • cytoplasm, cell membrane

  • cell membrane, cytoplasm

  • cytoplasm, nucleus

  • nucleus, endoplasmic reticulum

Explanation

Question 81 of 100

1

Host range of a virus is limited by

Select one of the following:

  • type of nucleic acid in the virus

  • age of the host cell

  • type of host cell receptors on the cell membrane

  • size of the host cell

  • all of the choices are correct

Explanation

Question 82 of 100

1

The human body typically begins to be colonized by its normal biota

Select one of the following:

  • before birth, in urtero

  • during and immediately after birth

  • when a child first goes to school

  • when an infant get its first infectious disease

  • during puberty

Explanation

Question 83 of 100

1

Pathogenic microbes that cause disease in healthy people are called

Select one of the following:

  • opportunistic pathogens

  • normal biota

  • indigenous biota

  • true pathogens

  • micropathogens

Explanation

Question 84 of 100

1

Virulence factors include all the following except

Select one of the following:

  • capsules

  • ribosomes

  • exoenzymes

  • endotoxins

  • exotoxins

Explanation

Question 85 of 100

1

The time from when pathogen first enters the body and begins to multiply, until symptoms first appear is the

Select one of the following:

  • prodromal stage

  • convalescent stage

  • incubation period

  • period of invasion

  • none of choices is correct

Explanation

Question 86 of 100

1

Which is mismatched

Select one of the following:

  • secondary infection- infection spread to several tissue sites

  • mixed infection- several agents established at infection site

  • acute infection- rapid onset of severe, short-lived symptoms

  • local infection-pathogen remains at or near entry site

  • toxemia- pathogen's toxins carried by the blood to target tissues

Explanation

Question 87 of 100

1

The chemical found in tears and saliva that hydrolyzes the petidoglycan in certain bacterial cell walls is

Select one of the following:

  • lactic acid

  • hydrochloric acid

  • lysozyme

  • histamine

  • bile

Explanation

Question 88 of 100

1

A properly functioning immune system is responsible for

Select one of the following:

  • surveillance of the body

  • recognition of foreign material

  • destruction of foreign material

  • all of the above choices are correct

  • only recognition of foreign material and destruction of foreign material are correct

Explanation

Question 89 of 100

1

The main function of the reticuloendothelial system is to provide

Select one of the following:

  • surveillance cells

  • a connection between tissues and organs

  • filtration of extracellular fluid

  • filtration of blood

  • all of the choices are correct

Explanation

Question 90 of 100

1

During what process are hyprochlorite and hydrogen peroxide produced to destroy bacteria and inhibit viral replication

Select one of the following:

  • inflammation

  • phagocytosis

  • interferon production

  • complement production

  • bradykinin

Explanation

Question 91 of 100

1

which protein can be produced by a virus-infected cell, in order to communicate with other cells the need to produce antiviral proteins

Select one of the following:

  • complement

  • albumin

  • interferon

  • histamine

Explanation

Question 92 of 100

1

The progeny cells of a B-cell clone are called

Select one of the following:

  • antibodies

  • sensitized T cells

  • activated macrophages

  • plasma cells

  • bursa cells

Explanation

Question 93 of 100

1

Lymphocytes

Select one of the following:

  • posses MHC antigens for recognizing self

  • have membrane receptors that recognize foreign antigens

  • gain tolerance to self by destruction of lymphocytes that could react against self

  • develop into clones of B and T cells with extreme variations of specificity

  • all of the choices are correct

Explanation

Question 94 of 100

1

Cytotoxic T cells

Select one of the following:

  • are activated by antigens

  • lack specificity for antigens

  • secrete granzymes and perforins that damage target cells

  • secrete interleukin-2 to stimulate B and T cells

  • all of the choices are correct

Explanation

Question 95 of 100

1

Edward Jenner's work involved

Select one of the following:

  • inoculation of dried pus from small pox pustules into a person to stimulate immunity

  • development of passive immunotherapy

  • development of an immunization to protect people again cowpox

  • immunization using a related, less pathogenic organisms to give protection agains a more pathogenic one

  • all of the choices are correct

Explanation

Question 96 of 100

1

Acellular vaccines and subunit vaccines

Select one of the following:

  • contain modified bacterial exotoxin molecules

  • are always genetically engineered

  • contain select antigenic components of a pathogen rather than whole cells or viruses

  • confer passive immunity

  • utilize DNA strands that will produce the antigen

Explanation

Question 97 of 100

1

Selctive toxicity refers to

Select one of the following:

  • damage to pathogenic organisms

  • damage to prokaryotic cell membranes

  • damage to the target organisms but not host cells

  • damage to nucleic acids

  • none of the choices are correct

Explanation

Question 98 of 100

1

Joseph is a 6-year-old male presenting to your pediatric office with chickenpox. He had had his infection for about 1 week, and his mom is concered about Joseph's 8- year-old sister, Judith, because she had a long painful infection of chickenpox 2 years before. Of note, Joseph was not vaccinated against chickenpox when he was younger, because his mom did not think it was that serious of a virus and she wanted to spare him the extra injection.

Which of the following explanations tells you why Joseph became infected with chickenpox in the first place?

Select one of the following:

  • he should not have been infected because he had passive natural immunity from breastfeeding as a baby.

  • His mother should have had gamma globulin administered so he would have had passive artificial immunity.

  • There is no way he could have been protected from the infection, since he did not recieve active artificial immunity through the form of a vaccine

  • he probably has a primary immunodeficiency disease, otherwise there is no reason humans should be infected with chickenpox

Explanation

Question 99 of 100

1

The cellular basis for bacterial resistance to antimicrobials include

Select one of the following:

  • bacterial chromosomal mutations

  • synthesis of enzymes that alter drug structure

  • prevention of drug entry into the cell

  • alteration of drug receptors on cell targets

  • All of the choices are correct

Explanation

Question 100 of 100

1

A superinfection results from

Select one of the following:

  • build up of a dug to toxic levels in patient

  • the wrong drug administered to patient

  • an immune system reaction to the drug

  • decrease in most normal flora with overgrowth of an unaffected species

  • all of the choices are correct

Explanation

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