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Gen....... Quiz on Chapter 9, created by erivera1151 on 16/07/2014.

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Chapter 9

Chapter 9

Question 1 of 44

1

3637-1. Which is true concerning the blue and magenta colors used to depict airports on Sectional Aeronautical Charts?

Select one of the following:

  • Airport with control towers underlying Class A, B, and C airspace are shown in blue, Class D and E airspace are magenta.

  • Airports with control towers underlying Class C, D, and E airspace are shown in magenta.

  • Airport with control towers underlying Class B, C, D, and E airspace are shown in blue.

Explanation

Question 2 of 44

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3637. (Refer to Figure 24, area 3.) What is the height of the lighted obstacle approximately 6 nautical miles southwest of Savannah International?

Select one of the following:

  • 1,500 feet MSL

  • 1,531 AGL.

  • 1,549 feet MSL

Explanation

Question 3 of 44

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3599. (Refer to Figure 26, area 4.) The floor of Class B airspace overlying Hicks Airport (T67) north-northwest of Fort Worth Meacham Field is

Select one of the following:

  • at the surface.

  • 3,200 feet MSL.

  • 4,000 feet MSL.

Explanation

Question 4 of 44

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3600. (Refer to Figure 26, area 2.) The floor of Class B airspace at Addison Airport is

Select one of the following:

  • at the surface.

  • 3,000 feet MSL.

  • 3,100 feet MSL.

Explanation

Question 5 of 44

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3126. What minimum pilot certification is required for operation with Class B airspace?

Select one of the following:

  • Commercial Pilot Certificate,

  • Private Pilot Certificate or Student Pilot Certificate with appropriate logbook endorsements.

  • Private Pilot Certificate with an instrument rating.

Explanation

Question 6 of 44

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3127. What minimum pilot certification is required for operation within Class B airspace.

Select one of the following:

  • Private Pilot Certificate or Student Pilot Certificate with appropriate logbook endorsements.

  • Recreational Pilot Certificate.

  • Private Pilot Certificate with an instrument rating.

Explanation

Question 7 of 44

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3128. What minimum radio equipment is required for VFR operation Class B airspace?

Select one of the following:

  • Two-Way radio communications equipment and a 4096-code transponder.

  • Two-Way radio communications equipment and a 4096-code transponder, and encoding altimeter.

  • Two-Way radio communications equipment and a 4096-code transponder, and encoding altimeter, and a VOR or TACAN receiver.

Explanation

Question 8 of 44

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3628. (Refer to Figure 26.) At which airports is fixed-wing Special VFR not authorized?

Select one of the following:

  • Fort Worth Meacham and Forth Worth Spinks.

  • Dallas-Forth Worth International and Dallas Love Field.

  • Addison and Redbird.

Explanation

Question 9 of 44

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3117. A blue segmented circle on a Sectional Chart depicts which class airspace?

Select one of the following:

  • Class B.

  • Class C.

  • Class D.

Explanation

Question 10 of 44

1

3118. Airspace at an airport with a part-time control tower is classified as Class D airspace only

Select one of the following:

  • when the weather minimums are below basic VFR.

  • when the associated control tower is in operation.

  • when the associated Flight Service Station is in operation.

Explanation

Question 11 of 44

1

3787. The lateral dimensions of Class D airspace are based on

Select one of the following:

  • the number of airports that lie within the Class D airspace.

  • 5 statute miles from the geographical center of the primary airport.

  • the instrument procedures for which the controlled airspace.

Explanation

Question 12 of 44

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3787-1. When a control tower, located on an airport within Class D airspace, ceases operation for the day, what happens to the airspace designation?

Select one of the following:

  • The airspace designation normally will not change.

  • The airspace remains Class D airspace as long as weather observer or automated weather system is available.

  • The airspace reverts to Class E or a combination of Class E and G airspace during the hours the tower is not in operation.

Explanation

Question 13 of 44

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3788. A non-tower satellite airport, within the same Class D airspace as that designated for the primary airport, requires radio communications be established and maintained with the

Select one of the following:

  • satellite airport's UNICOM.

  • associated Flight Service Station.

  • primary airport's control tower.

Explanation

Question 14 of 44

1

3124. The two-way radio communication must be established with the Air Traffic Controlled facility having jurisdiction over the area prior to entering which class airspace?

Select one of the following:

  • Class C.

  • Class E.

  • Class G.

Explanation

Question 15 of 44

1

3799. Which initial action should a pilot take prior to entering Class C airspace?

Select one of the following:

  • Contact approach control on the appropriate frequency.

  • Contact the tower and request permission to enter.

  • Contact the FSS for traffic advisories.

Explanation

Question 16 of 44

1

3779. The vertical limit of Class C airspace above the primary airport is normally

Select one of the following:

  • 1,200 feet AGL.

  • 3,000 feet AGL.

  • 4,000 feet AGL.

Explanation

Question 17 of 44

1

3780. The radius of the procedural Outer Area of Class C airspace is normally

Select one of the following:

  • 10 NM.

  • 20 NM.

  • 30 NM.

Explanation

Question 18 of 44

1

3781. All operations within Class C airspace must be in

Select one of the following:

  • accordance with instrument flight rules.

  • compliance with ATC clearances and instructions.

  • an aircraft equipped with a 4096-code transponder with Mode C encoding capability.

Explanation

Question 19 of 44

1

3782. Under what condition may an aircraft operate from a satellite airport within Class C airspace ?

Select one of the following:

  • The pilot must file a flight plan prior departure.

  • The pilot must monitor ATC until clear of the Class C airspace.

  • The pilot must contact ATC as soon as practicable after takeoff.

Explanation

Question 20 of 44

1

3626. (Refer to Figure 24, area 3.) What is the floor of the Savannah Class C airspace at the shelf area (outer circle)?

Select one of the following:

  • 1,300 feet AGL.

  • 1,300 feet MSL.

  • 1,700 feet MSL.

Explanation

Question 21 of 44

1

3627. (Refer to Figure 21, area 1.) What minimum radio equipment is required to land and take off at Norfolk International?

Select one of the following:

  • Mode C transponder and omnireceiver.

  • Mode C transponder and two-way radio.

  • Mode C transponder, omnireceiver, and DME.w2

Explanation

Question 22 of 44

1

3125. What minimum radio equipment is required for operation within Class C airspace?

Select one of the following:

  • Two-way radio communications equipment and a 4096-code transponder.

  • Two-way radio communications equipment, and a 4096-code transponder, and DME.

  • Two-way radio communications equipment, a 4096-code transponder, and an encoding altimeter.

Explanation

Question 23 of 44

1

3069. normal VFR operations in Class D airspace with an operating control tower require the ceiling and visibility to be at least

Select one of the following:

  • 1,000 feet and 1 mile.

  • 1,000 feet and 3 miles.

  • 2,500 feet and 3 mile.

Explanation

Question 24 of 44

1

3119. Unless otherwise authorized, two-way radio communications with Air Traffic Control are required for landings or takeoffs

Select one of the following:

  • at all tower controlled airports regardless of weather conditions.

  • at all tower controlled airports only when weather conditions are less than VFR.

  • at all tower controlled airports within Class D airspace only when weather conditions are less than VFR.

Explanation

Question 25 of 44

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3625.(Refer to Figure 26, area 4.) The airspace directly overflying Forth Worth Meacham is

Select one of the following:

  • Claas B airspace to 10,000 feet MSL.

  • Claas C airspace to 5,000 feet MSL.

  • Claas D airspace to 3,200 feet MSL.

Explanation

Question 26 of 44

1

3067. The width of a Federal Airway from either side of the centerline is

Select one of the following:

  • 4 nautical miles.

  • 6 nautical miles.

  • 8 nautical miles.

Explanation

Question 27 of 44

1

3068. Unless otherwise specified, Federal Airways include that Class E airspace extending upward from

Select one of the following:

  • 700 feet above the surface up to and including 17,999 feet MSL.

  • 1,200 feet above the surface up to and including 17,999 feet MSL.

  • the surface up to an including 18,000 feet MSL.

Explanation

Question 28 of 44

1

3068-1. With certain exceptions, Class E airspace extends upward from either 700 feet or 1,200 feet AGL to, but does not including,

Select one of the following:

  • 10,000 MSL.

  • 14,500 MSL.

  • 18,000 MSL.

Explanation

Question 29 of 44

1

3068-2. (Refer to Figure 21, area 1.) The NALF Fentress (NFE) Airport is in what type of airspace?

Select one of the following:

  • Class C.

  • Class E.

  • Class G.

Explanation

Question 30 of 44

1

3629. (Refer to Figure 23, area 3.) The vertical limits of that portion of Class E airspace designated as a Federal Airway over Magee Airport are

Select one of the following:

  • 700 feet MSL to 12,500 feet MSL.

  • 7,500 feet MSL to 17,999 feet MSL.

  • 1,200 feet AGL to 17,999 feet MSL.

Explanation

Question 31 of 44

1

3622. (Refer to Figure 27, area 1.) Identify the airspace over Lower Airport.

Select one of the following:

  • Class G airspace - surface up to but not including 18,000 feet MSL.

  • Class G airspace - surface up to but not including 1,200 feet AGL, Class E airspace - 1,200 feet AGL up to but not including 18,000 feet MSL.

  • Class G airspace - surface up to but not including 700 feet MSL, Class E airspace - 700 feet to 14,500 feet MSLot

Explanation

Question 32 of 44

1

3623. (Refer to Figure 27, area 6.) The airspace overlying and within 5 miles of Barnes Country Airport is

Select one of the following:

  • Class D airspace from the surface to the floor of the overlying Class E airspace.

  • Class E airspace from the surface to 1,200 feet MSL.

  • Class G airspace from the surface to 700 feet AGL.

Explanation

Question 33 of 44

1

3624. (Refer to Figure 26, area 7.) The airspace overlaying McKinney (TKI) is controlled from the surface to

Select one of the following:

  • 2,500 feet MSL

  • 2,900 feet MSL.

  • 700 feet AGL.

Explanation

Question 34 of 44

1

3601. (Refer to Figure 21, area 4.) What hazards to aircraft may exist in restricted areas such as R-5302B?

Select one of the following:

  • Military training activities that necessitate acrobatic or abrupt flight maneuvers.

  • Unusual, often invisible, hazards such as aerial gunnery or guided missiles.

  • High volume of pilot training or an unusual type of aerial activity.

Explanation

Question 35 of 44

1

3602. (Refer to Figure 27, area 2.) What hazards to aircraft may exist in areas such as Devils Lake East MOA?

Select one of the following:

  • Unusual, often invisible, hazards to aircraft such as artillery firing, aerial gunnery, or guided missiles.

  • High volume of pilot training or an unusual type of aerial activity.

  • Military training activities that necessitate acrobatic or abrupt flight maneuvers.

Explanation

Question 36 of 44

1

3783. Under what condition, if any, may pilot flight trough a restricted area?

Select one of the following:

  • When flying on airways with ATC clearance.

  • With the controlling agency's authorization.

  • Regulations do not allow this.

Explanation

Question 37 of 44

1

3783-1. Flight trough a restricted area should not be accomplished the pilot has

Select one of the following:

  • filed an IFR flight plan.

  • received prior authorization from the controlling agency.

  • received prior permission from the commanding officer of the nearest military base.

Explanation

Question 38 of 44

1

3785. What action should a pilot take when operating under VFR in military Operation Area (MOA)?

Select one of the following:

  • Obtain a clearance from the controlling agency prior to entering the MOA.

  • Operate only in the airways that transverse the MOA.

  • Exercise extreme caution when military activity is being conducted.

Explanation

Question 39 of 44

1

3786. Responsibility for collision avoidance in an alert areas rests with

Select one of the following:

  • the controlling agency.

  • all pilots.

  • Air Traffic Control.

Explanation

Question 40 of 44

1

3603. (Refer to Figure 22, area 3.) What type military flight operations should a pilot expect along IR 644?

Select one of the following:

  • IFR training flights above 1,500 feet AGL at speeds in excess of 250 knots.

  • VFR training flights above 1,500 feet AGL at speeds less of 250 knots.

  • Instrument training flights below 1,500 feet AGL at speeds in excess of 250 knots.

Explanation

Question 41 of 44

1

3618. (Refer to Figure 27, area 3.) When flying over Arrowwood National Wildlife Refuge, a pilot should fly no lower than

Select one of the following:

  • 2,000 feet AGL.

  • 2,500 feet AGL.

  • 3,000 feet AGL.

Explanation

Question 42 of 44

1

3789. Prior to entering an Airport Advisory Area, a pilot should

Select one of the following:

  • monitor ATIS for weather and traffic advisories.

  • Contact approach controls for vectors to the traffic patterns.

  • contact the local FSS for airport and traffic advisories.

Explanation

Question 43 of 44

1

3831. Pilots flying over a national wildlife refuge are requested to fly no lower than

Select one of the following:

  • 1,000 AGL.

  • 2,000 feet AGL.

  • 3,000 feet AGL.

Explanation

Question 44 of 44

1

3130. In which type of airspace are VFR flights prohibited?

Select one of the following:

  • Class A.

  • Class B.

  • Class C.

Explanation

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