Nadia Persaud
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HEML240 Quiz on FINAL REVIEW , created by Nadia Persaud on 05/12/2017.

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Nadia Persaud
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FINAL REVIEW

Question 1 of 111

1

Which of the following is NOT indicative of accelerated red cell destruction?

Select one of the following:

  • decreased RBC, Hgb, Hct

  • increased unconjugated bilirubin, increased LDH

  • increase hemopexin

  • erythoid hyperplasia

  • URINE: increased urobilinogen, free hemoglobin, methemoglobin, hemosiderin

Explanation

Question 2 of 111

1

Which feature is present in BOTH intra- and extravascular hemolysis?

Select one of the following:

  • increased retics

  • spherocytes/schistocytes

  • increased unconjugated bilirubin

  • decreased poikilocytosis

  • A, B, and C

  • All of the above.

Explanation

Question 3 of 111

1

Select all that apply for INTRAVASCULAR hemolysis:

Select one or more of the following:

  • significant increase in LDH

  • hemoglobinemia

  • hemosiderinuria

  • IgG antibodies

  • decreased hemopexin

  • spherocytes

Explanation

Question 4 of 111

1

Select all that apply for EXTRAVASCULAR hemolysis:

Select one or more of the following:

  • IgG antibodies

  • presence of gall stones

  • splenomegaly

  • spherocytes

  • fragments

Explanation

Question 5 of 111

1

Normal adult hemoglobin consists of:
95% - 100% HbA
0% - 2% HbF
0% - 3.5% HbA2

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 6 of 111

1

Sickle Solubility screening test is a qualitative screening test that dectects the presence of sickling hemoglobins mainly HbA.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 7 of 111

1

What are the components of an alkaline hemoglobin electrophoresis?

Select one of the following:

  • EDTA-borate buffer and cellulose acetate gel

  • pH 10.1

  • enzymatic reactions that move from cathode to anode

  • able to separate HbC from HbE

Explanation

Question 8 of 111

1

Alkaline electrophoresis runs SDG and CEOA2 together.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 9 of 111

1

What techniques can be used to separate hemoglobin?

Select one of the following:

  • HbA2 ion exchange chromatography

  • HPLC: High Performance Liquid Chromatography

  • IEF: Isoelectric Focusing

  • Capillary Electrophoresis

  • Globin Chain Electrophoresis

  • All of the above

Explanation

Question 10 of 111

1

A positively charges cellulose attracts a negatively charged hemoglobin molecule. Which separation technique does this describe?

Select one of the following:

  • HPLC

  • Ion Exchange Chromatography

  • IEF

  • Globin Chain Electrophoresis

Explanation

Question 11 of 111

1

During HbA2 Column Chromatography, A2 is eluted as the 3mL glycine reagent and the absorbance of the A2 fraction and total hemoglobin are measured to determine the %HbA2.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 12 of 111

1

Which hemoglobin fractions is HPLC able to detect and distinguish?

Select one or more of the following:

  • HbS

  • HbA2

  • HbF

  • HbA

  • HbC

Explanation

Question 13 of 111

1

Which hemoglobin separation technique separates fractions based on the difference in charge to size ratio through an electric field?

Select one of the following:

  • Isoelectric Focusing

  • Gas Chromatogrpahy

  • Ion Exchange Chromatography

  • Capillary Electrophoresis

  • Gel Electrophoresis

Explanation

Question 14 of 111

1

An increase in HbA2 is associated with which condition?

Select one of the following:

  • IDA

  • Beta-Thal Major

  • Alpha-Thal Minor

  • Beta-Thal Minor

  • Megaloblastic Anemia

Explanation

Question 15 of 111

1

The principle behind the Kleihauer-Betke Acid Elution test is eluting HbF out of the solution, making the cells colourless, while HbA are resistant to elution and will stain pink.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 16 of 111

1

Which clinical condition is screened for using the sucrose hemolysis test?

Select one of the following:

  • Hereditary Persistence of Fetal Hemoglobin (HPFH)

  • Paroxymal Nocturnal Hemoglobinuria (PNH)

  • Autoimmune Hemolytic Anemia (AIHA)

  • Filariasis

Explanation

Question 17 of 111

1

Less than 5% hemolysis indicates that RBCs of PNH are more sensitive to complement on their cell surface.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 18 of 111

1

HAM test for PNH is based on:

Select one of the following:

  • acidified serum

  • neutral serum

  • alkaline serum

Explanation

Question 19 of 111

1

Which of the following interpretations matches G6PD deficiency screening test?

Select one or more of the following:

  • persistant fluorescence

  • weak or no fluorescence

  • NADPH not produced

  • NAD produced

Explanation

Question 20 of 111

1

The amount of NAD produced is proportional to the amount of PK in patient cells

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 21 of 111

1

What stain is required to see Heinz bodies?

Select one of the following:

  • Gram stain

  • Wright stain

  • Supravital stain

  • Eosin stain

Explanation

Question 22 of 111

1

Cells that are osmotically fragile will start to lyse at:

Select one or more of the following:

  • 0.85

  • 0.55

  • 0.45

  • 0.95

Explanation

Question 23 of 111

1

Which of the following is not included in the major hemostatic system?

Select one of the following:

  • Vascular System

  • Platelet Activity

  • Coagulation System

  • Fibrinolytic System

  • Thrombin System

  • Regulatory System

Explanation

Question 24 of 111

1

Which of the following is an example of an anticoagulant?

Select one of the following:

  • VonWillebrande's Factor

  • Thromboplastin

  • Protein S

  • Tissue Plasmimnogen Factor Inhibitor

Explanation

Question 25 of 111

1

What is needed for platelets to adhere to the sub-endothelium?

Select one of the following:

  • Thrombin

  • vWF

  • Ca2+

  • Phospholipid

  • Negatively Charged Surface

Explanation

Question 26 of 111

1

Which of the following is true about thromboxane A2?

Select one of the following:

  • produced by platelets

  • causes vasoconstriction

  • induces aggregation

  • inhibited by aspirin

  • all of the above are true

Explanation

Question 27 of 111

1

Which platelet membrane binding site is associated with aggregation?

Select one of the following:

  • GPIb/IX

  • GPIIb/IIIa

  • vWF Ag

  • Collagen binding site

  • FVIII Ag

Explanation

Question 28 of 111

1

Which of the following is not a primary hemostasis disorder?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Bernard-Soulier Syndrome

  • von Willebrande Disease

  • Gray Platelet Syndrome

  • Glanzmann's Thrombasthenia

  • Hemophilia A

Explanation

Question 29 of 111

1

Reduced aggregation with Ristocetin is associated with vWD and BSS.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 30 of 111

1

Which condition is present if a patient has vWF, but lacks the receptor site on the platelet for it?

Select one of the following:

  • BSS

  • Glanzmann's Thrombasthenia

  • Grey Platelet Syndrome

  • vWD

  • Storage Pool Disease

Explanation

Question 31 of 111

1

What is the condition called if the platelets lack the receptor fibrinogen?

Select one of the following:

  • BSS

  • Glanzmann's Thrombasthenia

  • Gray Platelet Syndrome

  • vWD

  • Storage Pool Disease

Explanation

Question 32 of 111

1

Which of the following does not contribute to clot formation?

Select one of the following:

  • Tissue factor

  • Calcium

  • Heparin

  • Phospholipid

  • Thrombin

Explanation

Question 33 of 111

1

Which of the following does thrombin not have an effect on?

Select one of the following:

  • FXI activation

  • FVIII activation

  • FXIII activation

  • Fibrinogen --> Fibrin

  • FVII activation

Explanation

Question 34 of 111

1

Which of the following factors is not Vitamin K dependent?

Select one of the following:

  • FII

  • FV

  • FVII

  • FIX

  • FX

Explanation

Question 35 of 111

1

Select all that are TRUE:

Select one or more of the following:

  • both VIII:C and VIII:Ag are deficient in hemophilia

  • FVIII is released from vWF by prothrombin

  • FVIII is labile and degrades rapidly when unbound from vWF

  • FVIII is synthesized in the liver

Explanation

Question 36 of 111

1

vWF is synthesized by:

Select one of the following:

  • the liver

  • endothelial cells

  • plasma cells

  • Vitamin K

  • bone marrow

Explanation

Question 37 of 111

1

vWD is associated with a deficiency in:

Select one of the following:

  • vWF:Rco

  • vWF:Ag

  • vWF:VIII

  • A and B

  • B and C

Explanation

Question 38 of 111

1

A decreased concentration of fibrinogen leads to bleeding disorders.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 39 of 111

1

A congenital deficiency in fibrinogen will result in:

Select one or more of the following:

  • Prolonged PT

  • Normal aPTT

  • Normal TT

  • Prolonged aPTT

  • Prolonged TT

Explanation

Question 40 of 111

1

Which of the Hemophilia conditions is most rare?

Select one of the following:

  • Hemophilia A (FVIII Deficiency)

  • Hemophilia B (FIX Deficiency)

  • Hemophilia C (FXI Deficiency)

Explanation

Question 41 of 111

1

Which of the following is not a coagulation regulator?

Select one of the following:

  • Protein C

  • Thrombin

  • TFPI

  • Plasmin

Explanation

Question 42 of 111

1

Which of the following regarding Protein C and Protein S is incorrect?

Select one of the following:

  • activated by thrombin generation by binging to thrombomodulin on endothelial cells

  • inactivates activated V and VIII

  • main regulatory system

  • plasminogen converted Protein C to APC

Explanation

Question 43 of 111

1

Tissue factor pathway inhibitor only affects the extrinsic pathway.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 44 of 111

1

What cofactor does Antithrombin III (AT) need to effectively inhibit IXa, Xa, IIa, and XIa?

Select one of the following:

  • Warfarin

  • Ca2+

  • Heparin

  • Plasmin

  • vWF

Explanation

Question 45 of 111

1

Why is fibrinogen important?

Select one of the following:

  • Prevent thrombi from getting too large

  • Aids in wound healing

  • Prevents thrombosis in undesirable places

  • All of the above

  • None of the above

Explanation

Question 46 of 111

1

Which of the following are components of the fibrinolytic system?

Select one or more of the following:

  • alpha-2 antiplasmin

  • Plasminogen activator inhibitor-1 (PAI-1)

  • Tissue Plasminogen Activator

  • Thrombomodulin

  • Plasmin

Explanation

Question 47 of 111

1

Thrombocytopenia can be a result of:

Select one of the following:

  • Hypersplenism

  • Post-splenectomy

  • Acute Blood Loss

  • Proliferation of stem cells

Explanation

Question 48 of 111

1

Thrombosis refers to:

Select one of the following:

  • Formation of a blood clot following an injury to a blood vessel

  • Formation of a blood clot inside an intact blood vessel, obstructing the flow of blood

  • Formation of a blood clot that is easily solubilized

  • A portion of a larger clot that breaks free

Explanation

Question 49 of 111

1

Which of the following would cause a clotting disorder?

Select one of the following:

  • Protein C deficiency

  • vWD

  • Factor Deficiency

  • Hemophilia A or B

Explanation

Question 50 of 111

1

Where do the majority of pulmonary emboli originate from?

Select one of the following:

  • thrombi in arm

  • thrombi in abdomen

  • thrombi in deep leg

  • thrombi in kidney

Explanation

Question 51 of 111

1

Strokes results from the acute blockage of arterial blood flow in which artery?

Select one of the following:

  • Pulmonary artery

  • Coronary artery

  • Corotid artery

  • Hepatic artery

Explanation

Question 52 of 111

1

Which of the following will affect platelet adhesion?

Select one of the following:

  • Gp IIb receptor on platelet

  • Thromboxane A2

  • Fibrinogen

  • Gp Ib receptor on platelet

Explanation

Question 53 of 111

1

Which of the following regarding Lupus Anticoagulant is true?

Select one or more of the following:

  • causes neutralization of phospholipid reagent in vitro

  • miscarriages are common in SLE

  • LA acts as an antibody to platelet

  • women are more commonly affected

  • followup tests include DRVVT

Explanation

Question 54 of 111

1

Which of the following regarding DIC is false?

Select one of the following:

  • begins with excessive clotting stimulated by a substance that enters the blood

  • results in both excessive clotting and excessive bleeding

  • fibrin degradation products are generated

  • DIC is not a systemic problem, localized to specific area

  • plasminogen is consumed as it is converted into plasmin

Explanation

Question 55 of 111

1

Identify the correct lab results for DIC:

Select one or more of the following:

  • increased platelets

  • schistocytes

  • PT and aPTT prolonged

  • D-dimer increased

  • Bleeding Time prolonged

  • Fibrinogen increased

Explanation

Question 56 of 111

1

D-dimer has a negative predicative value for DIC because:

Select one of the following:

  • D-dimer measures split products formed after formation of fibrin clot, but is not specific for DIC

  • Usually present in chronic conditions

  • high levels of FDPs are specific for DIC

  • none of the above

Explanation

Question 57 of 111

1

Which of the following tests is normal in a patient with vWD?

Select one of the following:

  • Bleeding Time

  • aPTT

  • Platelet count

  • PT

Explanation

Question 58 of 111

1

Congenital deficiencies of which proteins will cause thrombosis?

Select one of the following:

  • Deficiency of Thrombin

  • Deficiency of factors

  • Deficiency of Coagulation and Fibrinolytic Regulators

  • Deficiency of Vitamin K

Explanation

Question 59 of 111

1

How is antithrombin deficiency acquired?

Select one of the following:

  • Liver disease

  • Nephrotic Syndrome

  • DIC

  • Prolonged heparin therapy

  • all of the above

Explanation

Question 60 of 111

1

Protein C and Protein S are Vitamin K independent.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 61 of 111

1

If APC is added, aPTT is prolonged due to inhibition of coagulation.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 62 of 111

1

Which is the most common inherited cause of thrombosis?

Select one of the following:

  • Protein C or Protein S deficiency

  • Factor V Leiden

  • Plasminogen deficiency

  • Antithrombin deficiency

Explanation

Question 63 of 111

1

Prothrombin nucleotide 20210 is:

Select one of the following:

  • A deletion in the gene sequence

  • A single adenine to guanine mutation at position 20210

  • A single guanine to adenine mutation at position 20210

  • A nonsense codon in the sequence

Explanation

Question 64 of 111

1

FXII deficiency can lead to a bleeding disorder.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 65 of 111

1

An increase in plasminogen activator inhibitor 1 will result in

Select one of the following:

  • a bleeding disorder

  • an increase in fibrinolysis

  • a clotting tendency

  • decrease inhibition of tPA

Explanation

Question 66 of 111

1

In a mixing study, a prolonged aPTT is corrected with FVIII deficient plasma, but not with FIX deficient plasma. What is the deficiency due to?

Select one of the following:

  • FVIII

  • FIX

  • Heparin therapy

  • Coumadin therapy

Explanation

Question 67 of 111

1

A short-filled sodium citrate tube will have what effect on coagulation results?

Select one of the following:

  • Normal

  • Prolonged for both

  • Only affects PT

  • Only affects aPTT

Explanation

Question 68 of 111

1

Platelet poor plasma is required for which studies?

Select one of the following:

  • Coagulation studies

  • Aggregation studies

  • Adhesion studies

  • Fibrinogen studies

Explanation

Question 69 of 111

1

Which factors would be used up in a clotted specimen?

Select one or more of the following:

  • FI

  • FII

  • FV

  • FVII

  • FVIII

  • FXI

  • FXIII

Explanation

Question 70 of 111

1

Plasma adsorbed with barium sulphate will remove which group of factors?

Select one of the following:

  • Fibrinogen group factors (I, V, VIII, XIII)

  • Vitamin K dependent factors (II, VII, IX, X)

  • Contact Group Factor (XII, Pre-K, HMWK)

  • TF complex (VII, TF)

Explanation

Question 71 of 111

1

What is needed to initiate the intrinsic pathway in vitro?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Kaolin

  • Tissue factor

  • Phospholipid

  • Calcium

  • Thromboplastin

Explanation

Question 72 of 111

1

INR is used to monitor heparin therapy.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 73 of 111

1

Select all that are true for aPTT:

Select one or more of the following:

  • monitors Coumadin therapy

  • screens for defects in the intrinsic and common pathways

  • requires a source of phospholipid

  • required to calculate INR

  • Kaolin is an example of a negatively charged surface needed to activate cascade

Explanation

Question 74 of 111

1

A mixing studies was performed on a sample and was corrected. To determine if the correction was a result of a factor deficiency or factor antibody, another mixing studies was performed and incubated. The mixing studies results were corrected. This suggests the presence of a factor antibody. Is this interpretation correct?

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 75 of 111

1

The euglobulin lysis time tests how long it takes for the sample to clot.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 76 of 111

1

Which of the following can prolong thrombin time, which looks at how long it takes a sample to clot.

Select one or more of the following:

  • Warfarin

  • Heparin

  • FDPs

  • Tissue factor

Explanation

Question 77 of 111

1

Clot formation time is proportional to the concentration of fibrinogen in the sample plasma.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 78 of 111

1

The Clauss method of fibrinogen assay involves

Select one of the following:

  • extended incubation time

  • using an undiluted plasma sample

  • excess thrombin

  • fibrinogen neutralized by protamine sulphate

Explanation

Question 79 of 111

1

5M Urea Test involves removing a clot and placing it in 5M urea and incubating it. Which of the following result interpretations are valid?

Select one of the following:

  • If FII levels are normal, the clot will not dissolve in 24 hours

  • If FXIII is deficient, the clot will not dissolves in 24 hours.

  • If FXIII is normal, the clot will dissolve in 24 hours.

  • If FXIII is deficient, the clot will dissolve in 24 hours.

Explanation

Question 80 of 111

1

Low Molecular Weight Heparin (LMWH) monitors

Select one of the following:

  • FVa

  • FVIIa

  • FXa

  • FXIa

Explanation

Question 81 of 111

1

In a plasma sample with APCr, we expect that

Select one of the following:

  • Protein C is able to inactive FVa and FVIIIa

  • AT is able to inactivate FVa and FVIIIa

  • Protein C is unable to inactive FVa and FVIIIa

  • AT is unable to inactive FVa and FVIIIa

Explanation

Question 82 of 111

1

Reptilase time

Select one of the following:

  • tests for FXIII deficiency

  • compares fibrinogen deficiency and heparin contamination

  • tests for factor antibody (eg. LA)

  • is inhibited by antithrombin

Explanation

Question 83 of 111

1

Select all that apply to the DRVVT for LA:

Select one or more of the following:

  • venom is a potent activator for FX

  • LA binds to phospholipid, inhibiting RVV

  • RVV is affected by deficiency in factors XII, XI, IX, or VIII

  • LA confirmed if DRVVT is corrected in excess phospholipid

Explanation

Question 84 of 111

1

PT 20s, aPTT 50s, TT 25s
What is the most probably diagnosis?

Select one of the following:

  • FVII Deficiency

  • FVIII Deficiency

  • FX Deficiency

  • Hypofibrinogenemia

Explanation

Question 85 of 111

1

Which coagulation test(s) would be abnormal in a vitamin K-dependent patient?

Select one of the following:

  • PT only

  • aPTT only

  • Both PT and aPTT

  • Fibrinogen level

  • Thrombin time

Explanation

Question 86 of 111

1

Which of the following is an anticoagulant therapy treatment options?

Select one of the following:

  • Dabigatran

  • Heparin

  • Anti-platelet (ASA)

  • Warfarin

  • All of the above

Explanation

Question 87 of 111

1

How does Warfarin (Coumadin) act as a Vitamin K antagonist?

Select one of the following:

  • Inactivates compound

  • Suppresses reductase activity

  • Competitively binds to Vitamin K

  • None of the above

Explanation

Question 88 of 111

1

Which factor monitored by Warfarin therapy has the shortest half-life?

Select one of the following:

  • II

  • VII

  • IX

  • X

  • Protein C

Explanation

Question 89 of 111

1

If INR low, patient is at risk of bleeding.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 90 of 111

1

Which of the following can reduce the effect of Warfarin therapy?

Select one of the following:

  • Drugs that interfere with Warfarin

  • Increased Vitamin K in diet

  • Taking Warfarin pill at different times every day (not at the same time each day)

  • All of the above

Explanation

Question 91 of 111

1

Which of the following anti-clotting substances acts on factors V and VIII?

Select one of the following:

  • Antithrombin III

  • Protein C

  • TFPI

  • Plasmin

  • tPA

Explanation

Question 92 of 111

1

Which of the following is a cofactor?

Select one of the following:

  • XII

  • X

  • VIII

  • VII

  • II

Explanation

Question 93 of 111

1

Heparin activates antithrombin to neutralize serine proteases activated by thrombin.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 94 of 111

1

How is Unfractionated Heparin administered?

Select one of the following:

  • Subcutaneously

  • Intravenously

  • Superficially

  • Orally

Explanation

Question 95 of 111

1

How is a heparin overdose treated?

Select one of the following:

  • Warfarin

  • Vitamin K

  • Dialysis

  • Protamine sulfate

Explanation

Question 96 of 111

1

What side affect may arise as a result of long-term Heparin use?

Select one of the following:

  • Dyspnea

  • Photophobia

  • Osteoporosis

  • Hypotension

Explanation

Question 97 of 111

1

Low Molecular Weight Heparin (LMWH) has minimal affect on FIIa activity because it is too short to properly bind IIa.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 98 of 111

1

Fondaparinux is a

Select one of the following:

  • natural drug - pentasaccharide

  • inactivates thrombin by combining with antithrombin

  • intravenous administration

  • requires lab monitoring

Explanation

Question 99 of 111

1

Which of the following are requires for coagulation in aPTT?

Select one of the following:

  • Plasma + phospholipid + calcium

  • Plasma + thromboplastin + calcium

  • Plasma + phospholipid + thromboplastin

  • Plasma + thrombin + calcium

Explanation

Question 100 of 111

1

What is the most common inherited bleeding disorder?

Select one of the following:

  • TTP

  • Hemophilia A

  • vWD

  • Factor V Leiden

Explanation

Question 101 of 111

1

Heparin Induced Thrombocytopenia:

Select one of the following:

  • IgG binds to heparin/PF4 complex

  • leads to coagulation of platelets

  • increases platelet count

  • associated with LMWH

Explanation

Question 102 of 111

1

Which of the following should be avoided when treating HIT?

Select one of the following:

  • Streptokinase

  • Urokinase

  • LMWH

  • Hirudin

Explanation

Question 103 of 111

1

Patients with which of the following diseases may have a normal PTT?

Select one of the following:

  • vWD

  • Hemophilia A

  • HIT

  • Factor V Leiden

Explanation

Question 104 of 111

1

Which of the following does not directly inhibit FXa?

Select one of the following:

  • Apixaban

  • Dabigatran

  • Riveroxaban

  • Edoxaban

Explanation

Question 105 of 111

1

Which direct thrombin inhibitor is not primarily used to treat HIT?

Select one of the following:

  • Dabigatran

  • Argatroban

  • Bivalirudin

  • Lepirudin

Explanation

Question 106 of 111

1

Which of the following are advantages of using Dabigatran?

Select one of the following:

  • no food interactions (eg. with Vitamin K)

  • no need for routine monitoring

  • reversal of bleeding with charcoal

  • none of the above

  • all of the above

Explanation

Question 107 of 111

1

Which of the following is false regarding direct FXa inhibitors?

Select one of the following:

  • requires routine monitoring

  • does not need antithrombin

  • used for the prevention of thrombosis and venous thromboembolism

  • all of the above are true

Explanation

Question 108 of 111

1

How does Aspirin inhibit platelets from aggregating?

Select one of the following:

  • Inhibits thrombin

  • Inhibits fibrinogen

  • Inhibits alpha granules

  • Inhibits Thromboxane A2

Explanation

Question 109 of 111

1

Which condition may thrombolytic therapy be used for?

Select one of the following:

  • venous thrombosis

  • myocardial infarction

  • Hemophilia A

  • can be administered to any inpatient

Explanation

Question 110 of 111

1

Which of the following is a "clot buster drug"?

Select one of the following:

  • Streptokinase

  • tPA

  • Urokinase

  • Thrombin Inhibitors

Explanation

Question 111 of 111

1

Which of the following is not a thrombolytic therapy?

Select one of the following:

  • tPA

  • Streptokinase

  • Urokinase

  • Hirudin

  • All of the above are used for thrombolytic therapy

Explanation

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