Yemi O
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Yemi O
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Clinical Pathoanatomy mcqs (351-450)

Question 1 of 99

3

indicate the correct statements

Select one or more of the following:

  • gangrene of the appendix and gangrenous appendicitis are synonyms of one same disease

  • severe inflammation in gangrenous appendicitis leads to necrosis, while in gangrene of the appendix the necrosis is ischemic

  • gangrene of the appendix means necrosis of the appendix while gangrenous appendicitis means severe purulent inflammation of the appendix without necrosis

  • inflammation in gangrenous appendicitis is a primary process, while in gangrene the inflammation is secondary after necrosis

Explanation

Question 2 of 99

3

the gross appearance "Ribbon-like fibrin deposits on the pericardium" describes:

Select one or more of the following:

  • Chronic pericarditis

  • fibrinous myocarditis

  • fibrinous pericarditis

  • acute pericarditis

Explanation

Question 3 of 99

3

which are the cells that inflitrate the whole thickness of the appendix in phlegmonous appendicitis?

Select one or more of the following:

  • lymphocytes and plasma cells

  • basophiles

  • neutrophils

  • giant multinucleated cells

Explanation

Question 4 of 99

3

what is typical for purulent lepto-meningitis

Select one or more of the following:

  • hyperemic vessels, infiltration of the soft brain membranes by lymphocytes

  • hyperemic vessels, infiltration of the soft brain membranes by neutrophils

  • yellow-green exudate seen usually on the convex side of the brain

  • clear cerebro-spinal fluid

Explanation

Question 5 of 99

3

hydatid cysts affect most commonly:

Select one or more of the following:

  • the brain

  • the heart

  • the spleen

  • the liver

Explanation

Question 6 of 99

3

which is the second most commonly affected organ by hydatid cysts?

Select one or more of the following:

  • brain

  • liver

  • lung

  • kidney

Explanation

Question 7 of 99

3

the following description indicates: focal aggregates in the form of the nodules of the cells with phagocytic ability. the diameter of these nodules is no more than 1-2mm, in many cases they are seen only microscopically.

Select one or more of the following:

  • granulomas

  • metastases

  • polyps

  • granulation tissue

Explanation

Question 8 of 99

3

what type of necrosis develops in the tuberculous granuloma?

Select one or more of the following:

  • caseous necrosis

  • liquefactive necrosis

  • coagulative necrosis

  • fibrinoid necrosis

Explanation

Question 9 of 99

3

what of the following cells are seen in tuberculomas?

Select one or more of the following:

  • giant cells type Langhans

  • epitheloid cells

  • tuton giant cells

  • lymphocytes

Explanation

Question 10 of 99

3

The giant cells type Langhans are derived from:

Select one or more of the following:

  • macrophages

  • epitheloid cells

  • lymphocytes

  • Monocytes

Explanation

Question 11 of 99

3

which giant cells have specific peripheral arrangement of the nuclei like horse-shoe?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Tuton giant cells

  • foreign body giant cells

  • Langhans giant cells

  • none of the above

Explanation

Question 12 of 99

3

in which stage of syphilis do the specific luetic granulomas develop?

Select one or more of the following:

  • first

  • second

  • third

  • they develop in all stages

Explanation

Question 13 of 99

3

what type of necrosis develops in luetic granulomas

Select one or more of the following:

  • clay-like

  • caseus

  • liquefactive

  • coagulative

Explanation

Question 14 of 99

3

what type of necrosis develops in the cat-scratch disease?

Select one or more of the following:

  • caseous

  • coagulative

  • liquefactive

  • gummous

Explanation

Question 15 of 99

3

mark the correct answer(s) about actinomycosis.

Select one or more of the following:

  • has three stages of development

  • has cervical, abdominal and thoracic froms

  • grossly, granular substance might be seen in the pus

  • grossly, rubbery lesions with central necrosis are seen in the affected organs

Explanation

Question 16 of 99

3

Mark the correct diagnosis according to the following microscopic description of a granuloma. Lack of necrosis, abundance of epitheloid cell, Langhans cells, collagen fibers, shaumann bodies

Select one or more of the following:

  • tuberculosis

  • sarcoidosis

  • Rheumatism

  • syphilis

Explanation

Question 17 of 99

3

Mark the correct diagnosis according to the following microscopic description of a granuloma: gummous necrosis, surrounded by epitheloid cells, single Langhans cells, abundance of plasma cells, less lymphocytes, firbroblasts.

Select one or more of the following:

  • tuberculosis

  • sarcoidosis

  • rheumatism

  • syphilis

Explanation

Question 18 of 99

3

the Sulfur granule is characteristic for:

Select one or more of the following:

  • tuberculosis

  • felinosis

  • actinomycosis

  • leprosy

Explanation

Question 19 of 99

3

Mark the correct diagnosis according to the following microscopic description of a granuloma. fibrinoid necrosis, surrounded by abundant lymphocytes, plasma cells, many cells of Anichkov and pathognomonic cells of Aschoff.

Select one or more of the following:

  • tuberculosis

  • rheumatoid arthritis

  • syphilis

  • rheumatism

Explanation

Question 20 of 99

3

what histological changes could be seen in thyroid in Hashimoto thyroiditis

Select one or more of the following:

  • unchanged

  • infiltration of lymphocytes and plasma cells

  • fibrosis

  • formation of lymph follicles

Explanation

Question 21 of 99

3

the histological changes in hashimoto thyroiditis affect:

Select one or more of the following:

  • entire thyroid gland

  • markedly focal

Explanation

Question 22 of 99

3

The thyroid follicles Hashimoto thyroiditis are:

Select one or more of the following:

  • unchanged

  • dilated

  • polymorphous

  • smaller

Explanation

Question 23 of 99

3

what is hyper-granulation?

Select one or more of the following:

  • mature connective tissue

  • hypertrophic tumor-like cicatrix/scar

  • greater amount of granulation tissue

  • none of the above

Explanation

Question 24 of 99

3

what is a scar?

Select one or more of the following:

  • hypertrophic granulation tissue

  • mature connective tissue

  • hypertrophic tumor-like cicatrix

  • none of the above

Explanation

Question 25 of 99

3

what is a keloid?

Select one or more of the following:

  • hypertrophic tumor-like cicatrix

  • mature connective tissue

  • greater amount of granulation tissue

  • none of the above

Explanation

Question 26 of 99

3

which stain can be used to prove of scarring (cicatrix) of the heart?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Van Gieson

  • Perls

  • Congo Red

  • PAS

Explanation

Question 27 of 99

3

which of the following could not be seen in rheumatoid nodules?

Select one or more of the following:

  • firbrinoid necrosis

  • epitheloid cells

  • Langhans cells

  • lymphocytes

Explanation

Question 28 of 99

3

Indicate the correct statement(s) for the polyarteriitis nodosa

Select one or more of the following:

  • it is an automimmune disease

  • it affects mostly the elastic arteries

  • there is accumulation of glucosaminoglycans in the vessel walls which can be demonstrated with metachromasia with toluidin Bleu

  • the branches of the pulmonary arteries are affected

Explanation

Question 29 of 99

3

Anaphylactic hypersensitivity reactions are related to:

Select one or more of the following:

  • hemolytic anemia

  • Hashimoto thyroiditis

  • allergic rhinitis

  • bronchial asthma

Explanation

Question 30 of 99

3

cytotoxic hypersensitivity reactions are related to

Select one or more of the following:

  • Hashimoto thyroiditis

  • hemolytic anemia

  • allergic rhinitis

  • nodasal polyarteriitis

Explanation

Question 31 of 99

3

Immune complexes mediated hypersensitivity reactions are related to:

Select one or more of the following:

  • polyartheriitis nodosa

  • Rheumatoid arthritis

  • hemolytic anemia

  • tuberculosis

Explanation

Question 32 of 99

3

Cell mediated hypersensitivity reactions are related to:

Select one or more of the following:

  • tuberculosis

  • polyarteriitis nodosa

  • bronchial asthma

  • Hashimoto thyroiditis

Explanation

Question 33 of 99

3

Which is the most common way of metastasizing of epithelial tumors?

Select one or more of the following:

  • by lymphatics (lymphogenic metastases)

  • with blood (hematogenic metastases)

  • by cerebrospinal fluid

  • none of the above

Explanation

Question 34 of 99

3

what is papilloma?

Select one or more of the following:

  • malignant tumor of the covering epithelium

  • benign tumor of glandular epithelium

  • benign tumor of cover type epithelium

  • benign soft tissue tumor

Explanation

Question 35 of 99

3

Indicate the correct characteristic(s) for Papilloma

Select one or more of the following:

  • it has tree-like stroma covered by differentiated stratified squamous epithelium

  • it has tree-like stroma covered by undifferentiated squamous epithelium with signs of cell atypia

  • stroma and parenchyma are difficult to distinguinsh

  • it doesnt have a capsule

Explanation

Question 36 of 99

3

what is the term used for malignant tumors of cover type epithelium?

Select one or more of the following:

  • adenocarcinoma

  • Papilloma

  • Carcinoma

  • Sarcoma

Explanation

Question 37 of 99

3

what is the term used for malignant tumors of glandular type epithelial origin

Select one or more of the following:

  • adenocarcinoma

  • adenoma

  • Carcinoma

  • Carcino-adenoma

Explanation

Question 38 of 99

3

what is the term used for benign tumors of glandular type epithelial origin?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Papilloma

  • Adenoma

  • teratoma

  • adenocarcinoma

Explanation

Question 39 of 99

3

point the correct statements(s) about basal cell carcinoma

Select one or more of the following:

  • it develops only on the skin

  • it can develop at any place with squamous epithelium

  • it characterizes with early lymphogenic and hematogenic metastases

  • very often it reoccurs at the same place after surgery

Explanation

Question 40 of 99

3

Keratinized squamous cell carcinoma:

Select one or more of the following:

  • develops only on the skin

  • can develop at any place with squamous epithelium

  • is highly undifferentiated malignant tumor

  • is a tumor composed of more differentiated cells with keratin production

Explanation

Question 41 of 99

3

what kind of structures are the cancer pearls?

Select one or more of the following:

  • accumulation of keratin produced by more differentiated malignant cells originating from squamous epithelium

  • pink- coloured homogenous substance located in the centre of the tumor nests

  • accumulation of mucus produced by highly undifferentiated malignant cells located in the centre of the tumor nests

  • pink homogenous substance that accumulates in the stroma of the tumor

Explanation

Question 42 of 99

3

the gross appearance of which tumor is called "ulcus rodens"

Select one or more of the following:

  • squamous cell carcinoma

  • melanoma

  • basal cell carcinoma

  • adenocarcinoma

Explanation

Question 43 of 99

3

squamous cell carcinoma develops in the lung after

Select one or more of the following:

  • acute bronchitis

  • chronic bronchitis accompanied by metaplasia

  • bronchial asthma

  • inhalation of a foreign body

Explanation

Question 44 of 99

3

papillary carcinoma of the urinary bladder arises from:

Select one or more of the following:

  • squamous epithelium

  • transitional epithelium

  • glandular epithelium

  • smooth musculature

Explanation

Question 45 of 99

3

what is carcinoma in situ?

Select one or more of the following:

  • malignant tumor limited to the epithelium above the basal membrane

  • malignant tumor destroying the basal membrane but spreading no more than 5mm below it

  • benign tumor limited to the basal membrane

  • benign tumor of a great size compressing the surrounding tissues

Explanation

Question 46 of 99

3

which staining is used for proving mucus production from gelatinous adenocarcinoma?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Congo red

  • Toluidin bleu, metachromasia is demonstrated

  • PAS reaction with amylase control

  • Van Gieson

Explanation

Question 47 of 99

3

Pericanalicular and intracanalicular types of:

Select one or more of the following:

  • ductal carcinoma of the breast

  • Paget's disease

  • renal cell carcinoma

  • fibroadenoma

Explanation

Question 48 of 99

3

Kruckenberg tumors are:

Select one or more of the following:

  • metastases from colon adenocarcinoma in the ovaries

  • metastases from pancreatic adenocarcinoma in the ovaries

  • metastases from gastric carcinoma in the ovaries

  • metastases from hepatocellular carcinoma in the ovaries

Explanation

Question 49 of 99

3

Pleomorphic adenoma could be seen mainly:

Select one or more of the following:

  • in the parotid gland

  • in the minor salivary glands

  • in the stomach

  • in thyroid gland

Explanation

Question 50 of 99

3

indicate the correct statements about fibroadenoma of the breast

Select one or more of the following:

  • Capsulated and lobulated tumor

  • non-capsulated malignant tumor with invasive growth

  • microscopically it has two types- intracanalicular and pericanalicular

  • seen in older women

Explanation

Question 51 of 99

3

Mark the correct statements about papillary cystadenoma of the ovary:

Select one or more of the following:

  • malignant tumor

  • has cyst-like and papillary structures

  • histological characteristics include serous and mucinous types

  • its is a physiological change related to menstrual cycle

Explanation

Question 52 of 99

3

'Linitis plastica' is a gross subtype of:

Select one or more of the following:

  • gastric cancer

  • pancreatic cancer

  • breast cancer

  • Uterine Cancer

Explanation

Question 53 of 99

3

Grossly adenocarcinoma of colon can be:

Select one or more of the following:

  • polypoid

  • Ulcerous

  • nodular

  • all of the listed above

Explanation

Question 54 of 99

3

the terms "early cancer" and "advanced cancer" are used for:

Select one or more of the following:

  • gastric adenocarcinoma

  • adenocarcinoma of the endometrium

  • adenocarcinoma of the colon

  • breast cancer

Explanation

Question 55 of 99

3

what Kind of Sarcoma could be seen an immune deficiency?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Kaposi Sarcoma

  • Ewing sarcoma

  • Rhabdomysarcoma

  • chondrosarcoma

Explanation

Question 56 of 99

3

which of the following sarcomas have the worst prognosis?

Select one or more of the following:

  • liposarcoma

  • osteosarcoma

  • fibrosarcoma

  • leiomyosarcoma

Explanation

Question 57 of 99

3

what staining can be used to distinguish leiomyoma uteri from fibroma?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Congo red

  • perls

  • PAS reaction with PAS control

  • Van Gieson

Explanation

Question 58 of 99

3

Point the characteristics of the leeiomyosarcoma

Select one or more of the following:

  • polymorphism of cells and nuclei

  • hyper- and polychromasia of nuclei

  • typical mytoses

  • monster cells

Explanation

Question 59 of 99

3

what is hybernoma?

Select one or more of the following:

  • benign tumor of vascular origin

  • benign tumor originating from brown fat tissue

  • benign tumor originating from striated muscle

  • malignant tumor originating from pigment tissue

Explanation

Question 60 of 99

3

what are the signs of the atypia in a nevus?

Select one or more of the following:

  • asymmetry of the lesion, irregular borders

  • dark color, irregular color of the lesion

  • diameter less than 5mm

  • regular borders

Explanation

Question 61 of 99

3

how should a biopsy be done if there is a suspicion for the melanoma?

Select one or more of the following:

  • incision biopsy

  • Punch biopsy

  • excision biopsy

  • brush biopsy

Explanation

Question 62 of 99

3

point the most common localizations of the teratomas

Select one or more of the following:

  • ovaries, testis

  • extremities

  • retroperitoneum

  • mediastinum

Explanation

Question 63 of 99

3

which of the following are organoid teratomas:

Select one or more of the following:

  • nephroblastoma

  • cholesteatoma

  • dermoid cyst

  • branchiogenic cyst

Explanation

Question 64 of 99

3

which of the following is organismoid teratoma?

Select one or more of the following:

  • epidermoid cyst

  • teratocarcinoma

  • dermoid cyst

  • nephroblastoma

Explanation

Question 65 of 99

3

what is nevus pigmentosus?

Select one or more of the following:

  • tumor-like process

  • tumor process

  • microscopically it contains mature melanocytes

  • microscopically it contains cells with signs of severe atypia and some of them contain melanin

Explanation

Question 66 of 99

3

what is melanoma?

Select one or more of the following:

  • malignant congenital tumor

  • benign tumor composed of melanocytes

  • malignant tumor of pigment origin

  • none of the above

Explanation

Question 67 of 99

3

what is an achromatic melanoma

Select one or more of the following:

  • benign form of melanoma

  • melanoma without melanin in the tumor cells

  • type of melanoma which can be proved with immunohistochemical tests

  • melanoma which is more differentiated

Explanation

Question 68 of 99

3

point possible localisations of the nevus pigmentosus and melanoma

Select one or more of the following:

  • skin

  • Uvea

  • meninges

  • all of the above

Explanation

Question 69 of 99

3

lentigo maligna, nodular, superficial, acral lentigenous are gross forms of:

Select one or more of the following:

  • melanoma

  • squamous cell carcinoma of the skin

  • basal cell carcinoma of the skin

  • nevus pigmentosus

Explanation

Question 70 of 99

3

indicate immunohistochemical stains to prove melanoma

Select one or more of the following:

  • HMB-45

  • ca-125

  • S-100

  • cytokeratin

Explanation

Question 71 of 99

3

which of the following tumors do not have a stroma

Select one or more of the following:

  • choriocarcinoma

  • seminoma

  • nephroblastoma

  • neuroblastoma

Explanation

Question 72 of 99

3

indicate types of nevus pigmentosus

Select one or more of the following:

  • acquired and congenital

  • junctional, compound, intradermal

  • benign and malignant nevus

  • ectodermal and endodermal nevus

Explanation

Question 73 of 99

3

squamous cell carcinoma occurs most frequently in:

Select one or more of the following:

  • stomach

  • skin

  • bladder

  • larynx

Explanation

Question 74 of 99

3

the term 'pathognomonic change' means:

Select one or more of the following:

  • unexplained change

  • paradoxical change

  • sufficient to identify the diagnosis/lesion

  • diffuse inflammatory change

Explanation

Question 75 of 99

3

which type of bleeding occur in the digestive system?

Select one or more of the following:

  • hemothorax

  • hemoptysis

  • melena

  • hematemesis

Explanation

Question 76 of 99

3

left ventricular hypertrophy can develop in:

Select one or more of the following:

  • cor pulmonale

  • systemic hypertension

  • mitral stenosis

  • aortic stenosis

Explanation

Question 77 of 99

3

cancer cells which show no resemblance to the tissue from which the tumor originates are called:

Select one or more of the following:

  • undifferentiated carcinoma

  • well-differentiated carcinoma

  • scirrhous type carcinoma

  • histioid cancer

Explanation

Question 78 of 99

3

which of the following is correct for the mechanical jaundice?

Select one or more of the following:

  • indirect bilirubin prevails in blood

  • elevated urine urobilinogen

  • elevated urine bilirubin

  • stools are hyperpigmented

Explanation

Question 79 of 99

3

Basal cell carcinoma is localised most frequently on:

Select one or more of the following:

  • the skin of the forearm

  • the skin of the lower limbs

  • the skin on the palms

  • skin of the face

Explanation

Question 80 of 99

3

Bilaterally, on the skin of the eyelids of a young woman are seen yellow nodules with the size of a grain of rice. what is it?

Select one or more of the following:

  • xanthelasma

  • nevus

  • ephelides

  • hemosiderin deposition

Explanation

Question 81 of 99

3

how do we call the local depigmentation of the skin

Select one or more of the following:

  • vitiligo

  • hemosiderosis

  • albinism

  • ohronosis

Explanation

Question 82 of 99

3

which of the following is correct for mechanical jaundice:

Select one or more of the following:

  • it is parenchyma jaundice

  • there is posthepatic occlusion

  • direct bilirubin is increased

  • it is also called hemolytic jaundice

Explanation

Question 83 of 99

3

"Mutilation" means:

Select one or more of the following:

  • form of biological mutation

  • pendulum movement of the blood

  • zonal hair loss

  • self amputation of the phalanges

Explanation

Question 84 of 99

3

in the bronchi and nasal cavity may develop squamous cell carcinoma based on:

Select one or more of the following:

  • hypoplasia

  • histological accomodation

  • anaplasia

  • metaplasia

Explanation

Question 85 of 99

3

state which of the following is a macroscopic characteristic of adenocarcinoma:

Select one or more of the following:

  • like a "bowl"

  • like a "cauliflower"

  • round non healing ulcers on the face

  • very dense knot int he face

Explanation

Question 86 of 99

3

the most common localisation of lymphangioma is:

Select one or more of the following:

  • the face

  • in sella turcica

  • on the phalanges of the toes

  • lips, tongue

Explanation

Question 87 of 99

3

presence of the lymphocytes and plasma cells in the stroma of tumors is called:

Select one or more of the following:

  • reactive inflammation

  • morphological anaplasia

  • stromal reaction

  • sinus histiocytosis

Explanation

Question 88 of 99

3

Carcinoids are:

Select one or more of the following:

  • tumor-like process

  • benign tumors

  • malignant tumors

  • hyperplastic process

Explanation

Question 89 of 99

3

how does carcinoma in situ metastasize?

Select one or more of the following:

  • by the lymph flow

  • perineural

  • by the blood flow

  • does not metastasize

Explanation

Question 90 of 99

3

the most frequent localisation of neurinoma in the skull is:

Select one or more of the following:

  • ponto-cerebellar angle

  • falx cerebri

  • tentorium cerebelli

  • cerebellum

Explanation

Question 91 of 99

3

Signet-ring cells are seen in:

Select one or more of the following:

  • in obesity

  • vacuolar degeneration of tubular epithelium in kidney

  • liver steatosis

  • adenocarcinoma accumulating mucus in tumor cells

Explanation

Question 92 of 99

3

squamous cell carcinoma may develop from:

Select one or more of the following:

  • mouth mucosa

  • lining in the bronchi

  • lining of the vaginal part of the cervix

  • epithelium of gastric mucosa

Explanation

Question 93 of 99

3

Dermoid cyst is:

Select one or more of the following:

  • mature teratoma, which occurs most frequently in the ovary

  • benign tumor of cells of the soft meninges

  • pigmental tumor

  • benign tumor associated with pregnancy

Explanation

Question 94 of 99

3

ULCUS RODENS (rodent ulcer) is a metaphor for macroscopical finding in:

Select one or more of the following:

  • adenocarcinoma of the stomach

  • leutic ulcer

  • Rodent bites

  • basal cell carcinoma

Explanation

Question 95 of 99

3

the following microscopic description indicates: H-E staining: the lesion consists of nests of normal melanocytes that accumulate different quantity of brown-black pigment. These cells can be found in papillary or reticular derma of the skin.

Select one or more of the following:

  • naevus pigementosus

  • melanoma maligum

  • skin oedema

  • basal cell Carcinoma

Explanation

Question 96 of 99

3

the following clinical features: left-sided heart failure, dyspnoe (shortness of breath), frequent cough with rusty colour expectoration, can be seen in:

Select one or more of the following:

  • brown induration of the lungs/hemosiderosis of lungs

  • heart tamponade

  • 1st degree AV-block

  • all of the above

Explanation

Question 97 of 99

3

which heart disease can be described with the following microscopic picture: the cuspid valve when stained with H-E shows loose area - clear and unstained spaces between fibrous structures representing interstitional mucoid oedema swelling. Fibroblasts are seen around this clear zone and in periphery of the cuspid valve (sign of fibrosis). the valve contains many newly formed capillaries (the process is called vascularisation).

Select one or more of the following:

  • acute endocarditis

  • subacute endocarditis

  • age-related degeneration of the valve

  • Rheumatism

Explanation

Question 98 of 99

3

which answer is correct for the following microscopic description: H-E staining: The liver columns are atropic, the sinusoids look dilated. The hepatocytes are smaller in size and contain brown-golden pigment granules with perinuclear localization

Select one or more of the following:

  • nutmeg liver

  • cyanosis hepatis

  • acute hepatitis

  • atrophy of the liver

Explanation

Question 99 of 99

3

the following microscopic description in indicative for: H-E staining: alveolar spaces are filled with precipitated homogenous pink fluid. Alveolar Septi and capillaries are dilated and filled with erythrocytes. Airy bubbles can be found in the alveolar cavities and in the lumens of bronchi

Select one or more of the following:

  • hemorrhagic infarction of the lung

  • hemosiderosis pulmonis

  • pulmofibrosis

  • lung edema

Explanation

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