Bio Exam 2 Part 1

Question 1 of 200

1

Which of the following is a major trend in land plant evolution?

Select one of the following:

A) the trend toward smaller size
B) the trend toward a gametophyte-dominated life cycle
C) the trend toward a sporophyte-dominated life cycle
D) the trend toward larger gametophytes

Explanation

Question 2 of 200

1

Which of the following lines of evidence would best support your assertion that a particular plant is an angiosperm?

Select one of the following:

A) It produces seeds.
B) It retains its fertilized egg within its archegonium.
C) It lacks gametangia.
D) It undergoes alternation of generations.

Explanation

Question 3 of 200

1

Which of the following characteristics is functionally important in cells of the gametophytes of both angiosperms and gymnosperms?

Select one of the following:

A) diploid nuclei
B) mitochondria
C) endosperm
D) chloroplasts

Explanation

Question 4 of 200

1

In addition to seeds, which of the following characteristics is unique to the seed-producing plants?

Select one of the following:

A) sporopollenin
B) lignin present in cell walls
C) pollen
D) megaphylls

Explanation

Question 5 of 200

1

Suppose that the cells of seed plants, like the cells of human skin, produce a pigment upon increased exposure to ultraviolet radiation. Rank the following cells, from greatest to least, in terms of the likelihood of producing this pigment.

Select one of the following:

A) epidermal cells of sporophyte megaphylls, cells of a gametophyte, cells of a megasporangium, cells in the interior of a subterranean root
B) epidermal cells of sporophyte megaphylls, cells of a gametophyte, cells in the interior of a subterranean root, cells of a megasporangium
C) epidermal cells of sporophyte megaphylls, cells of a megasporangium, cells of a gametophyte, cells in the interior of a subterranean root
D) epidermal cells of sporophyte megaphylls, cells in the interior of a subterranean root, cells of a megasporangium, cells of a gametophyte

Explanation

Question 6 of 200

1

Arrange the following in the correct sequence, from earliest to most recent, in which these plant traits originated.

Select one of the following:

A) sporophyte dominance, gametophyte independence; sporophyte dominance, gametophyte dependence; gametophyte dominance, sporophyte dependence
B) sporophyte dominance, gametophyte dependence; sporophyte dominance, gametophyte independence; gametophyte dominance, sporophyte dependence
C) gametophyte dominance, sporophyte dependence; sporophyte dominance, gametophyte dependence; sporophyte dominance, gametophyte independence
D) gametophyte dominance, sporophyte dependence; sporophyte dominance, gametophyte independence; sporophyte dominance, gametophyte dependence

Explanation

Question 7 of 200

1

In seed plants, which of the following is part of a pollen grain and has a function most like that of the seed coat?

Select one of the following:

A) sporophyll
B) sporopollenin
C) stigma
D) sporangium

Explanation

Question 8 of 200

1

In terms of alternation of generations, the internal parts of the pollen grains of seed-producing plants are most similar to a ________.

Select one of the following:

A) moss sporophyte
B) moss gametophyte bearing both male and female gametangia
C) fern sporophyte
D) fern gametophyte bearing only antheridia

Explanation

Question 9 of 200

1

A researcher has developed two stains for use with seed plants. One stains sporophyte tissue blue; the other stains gametophyte tissue red. If the researcher exposes pollen grains to both stains, and then rinses away the excess stain, what should occur?

Select one of the following:

A) The pollen grains will be pure red.
B) The pollen grains will be pure blue.
C) The pollen grains will have red interiors and blue exteriors.
D) The pollen grains will have blue interiors and red exteriors.

Explanation

Question 10 of 200

1

Which of the following sex and generation combinations directly produces the pollen tube of angiosperms?

Select one of the following:

A) male gametophyte
B) female gametophyte
C) male sporophyte
D) female sporophyte

Explanation

Question 11 of 200

1

The advantages of the reduced gametophytes in seed plants include ________.

Select one of the following:

A) protection from ultraviolet radiation, gain of nutrients from its own photosynthesis, and protection from drying out
B) protection from ultraviolet radiation, gain of nutrients from the sporophyte, and protection from drying out
C) protection of the spores from ultraviolet radiation and drying out, and gain of nutrients from the sporophyte
D) development of the seed

Explanation

Question 12 of 200

1

The advantages of seeds, compared to spores, include ________.

Select one of the following:

A) using wind as a dispersal agent
B) containing a nutrient store for a developing sporophyte
C) relying on animals for pollination
D) providing nutrition for animals

Explanation

Question 13 of 200

1

Unlike almost all ferns, seed plants ________.

Select one of the following:

A) produce two kinds of spores
B) have large gametophytes
C) have vascular tissue
D) can photosynthesize

Explanation

Question 14 of 200

1

One day, you go outside and see that the cars on the street are covered in a yellow "dust." Which of the following statements can be correctly applied to this "dust"?

Select one of the following:

A) The dust is pine pollen and is so abundant because the pines are wind-pollinated.
B) The dust is the spore production of ferns and is so abundant because the spores are wind-dispersed.
C) The dust is the seed production of ferns and is so abundant because the seeds are tiny and take very little energy to produce.
D) The dust is the seed production of pines and is so abundant because the seeds are tiny and take very little energy to produce.

Explanation

Question 15 of 200

1

Use the following information to answer the question.

In the United States and Canada, bats use one of two strategies to survive winter. They either migrate south, or they hibernate. Recently, those that hibernate seem to have come under attack by a fungus, Geomyces destructans (Gd), an attack that is occurring from Missouri to New England, Canada, and even the state of Washington. Many infected bats have a delicate, white filamentous mat on their muzzles, which is referred to as white-nose syndrome (WNS). The fungus invades the bat tissues, causes discomfort, and awakens the bat from its hibernation. The bat fidgets and wastes calories, using up its stored fat. The bat then behaves abnormally, leaving its cave during daytime in winter to search for food. Their food, primarily insects, is scarce during the winter, and the bats ultimately starve to death. Since 2006, it is estimated that over six million bats have perished from WNS.

The Gd mat on the fur of the bats should be expected to consist of ________.

Select one of the following:

A) hyphae
B) haustoria
C) yeasts
D) basidia

Explanation

Question 16 of 200

1

What do fungi and arthropods have in common?

Select one of the following:

A) The haploid state is dominant in both groups.
B) Both groups are predominantly autotrophs that produce their own food.
C) Both groups use chitin for support.
D) Both groups have cell walls.

Explanation

Question 17 of 200

1

Fungi have an extremely high surface-to-volume ratio. What is the advantage of this characteristic to an organism that gets most of its nutrition through absorption?

Select one of the following:

A) The high ratio allows for more material to be acquired from the surroundings and transported through the cell membrane.
B) The lower volume prevents the cells from drying out too quickly, which can interfere with absorption.
C) This high ratio creates more room inside the cells for additional organelles involved in absorption.
D) This high ratio means that fungi have a thick, fleshy structure that allows the fungi to store more of the food it absorbs.

Explanation

Question 18 of 200

1

If all fungi in an environment that perform decomposition were to suddenly die, then which group of organisms should benefit most, due to the fact that their fungal competitors have been removed?

Select one of the following:

A) flowering plants
B) protists
C) prokaryotes
D) grasses

Explanation

Question 19 of 200

1

When a mycelium infiltrates an unexploited source of dead organic matter, what are most likely to appear within the food source soon thereafter?

Select one of the following:

A) fungal haustoria
B) fungal enzymes
C) increased oxygen levels
D) larger bacterial populations

Explanation

Question 20 of 200

1

A fungal spore germinates, giving rise to a mycelium that grows outward into the soil surrounding the site where the spore originally landed. Which of the following accounts for the fungal movement, as described here?

Select one of the following:

A) karyogamy
B) mycelial flagella
C) breezes distributing spores
D) cytoplasmic streaming in hyphae

Explanation

Question 21 of 200

1

When pathogenic fungi are found growing on the roots of grape vines, grape farmers sometimes respond by covering the ground around their vines with plastic sheeting and pumping a gaseous fungicide into the soil. The most important concern of grape farmers who engage in this practice should be that the ________.

Select one of the following:

A) fungicide might also kill the native yeasts residing on the surfaces of the grapes
B) lichens growing on the vines' branches are not harmed
C) fungicide might also kill mycorrhizae
D) sheeting is transparent so that photosynthesis can continue

Explanation

Question 22 of 200

1

The adaptive advantage associated with the filamentous nature of fungal mycelia is primarily related to ________.

Select one of the following:

A) the ability to form haustoria and parasitize other organisms
B) the potential to inhabit almost all terrestrial habitats
C) the increased probability of contact between different mating types
D) an extensive surface area well suited for invasive growth and absorptive nutrition

Explanation

Question 23 of 200

1

Some fungal species live in plants and can kill herbivores that feed on the plant. What type of relationship does this fungus have with its host?

Select one of the following:

A) parasitic
B) mutualistic
C) commensal
D) predatory

Explanation

Question 24 of 200

1

Some companies advertise and sell mycorrhizae to home gardeners and commercial farms, claiming that the presence of mycorrhizae improves plant growth and survival. If the company conducted experiments on plants with and without mycorrhizae, which of the following measurements would support their claim?

Select one of the following:

A) smaller apple size in plants with mycorrhizae than in plants without mycorrhizae
B) increased production of corn ears in plants with mycorrhizae than in plants without mycorrhizae
C) increased need for fertilizer in plants with mycorrhizae than in plants without mycorrhizae
D) increased mortality in plants with mycorrhizae than in plants without mycorrhizae

Explanation

Question 25 of 200

1

Some nematode worms suck plant juices from the roots of plants and are economically important agricultural pests. Some fungi are usually decomposers of plant material, but some trap and kill nematodes at times. Arthrobotrys traps and kills nematodes, especially when they lack nitrogen sources. These two facts suggest that farmers could find Arthrobotrys an important tool in combating nematode infestations. Which of the following research questions would make a good starting point for developing such a defense against plant-sucking nematodes?

Select one of the following:

A) Does nitrogen fertilization of crops affect the likelihood that Arthrobotrys will trap and kill nematodes?
B) Do nitrogen-fixing bacteria provide nitrogen to the fungi?
C) What is the evolutionarily oldest method of trapping nematodes?
D) What mechanisms do nematodes have that could allow them to escape from Arthrobotrys?

Explanation

Question 26 of 200

1

A researcher is trying to construct a molecular-based phylogeny of the entire animal kingdom. Assuming that none of the following genes are absolutely conserved, which of the following would be the best choice on which to base the phylogeny?

Select one of the following:

A) genes involved in chitin synthesis
B) collagen genes
C) genes involved in directing segmentation development
D) genes involved in eye-lens synthesis

Explanation

Question 27 of 200

1

Which of the following is (are) unique to animals?

Select one of the following:

A) the structural carbohydrate, chitin
B) nervous system signal conduction and muscular movement
C) heterotrophy
D) flagellated gametes

Explanation

Question 28 of 200

1

The larvae of some insects are merely small versions of the adult, whereas the larvae of other insects look completely different from adults, eat different foods, and may live in different habitats. Which of the following is most directly involved in the evolution of these variations in metamorphosis?

Select one of the following:

A) artificial selection of sexually immature forms of insects
B) changes in the homeobox genes controlling early development
C) the evolution of meiosis
D) the origin of a brain

Explanation

Question 29 of 200

1

Both animals and fungi are heterotrophic. What distinguishes animal heterotrophy from fungal heterotrophy is that most animals derive their nutrition by ________.

Select one of the following:

A) preying on animals
B) ingesting materials
C) consuming living, rather than dead, prey
D) using enzymes to digest their food

Explanation

Question 30 of 200

1

Use the information to answer the question.

Trichoplax adhaerens is the only living species in the phylum Placozoa. Individuals are about 1 mm wide and only 27 µm high, are irregularly shaped, and consist of a total of about 2,000 cells, which are diploid (2n = 12). There are four types of cells, none of which are nerve or muscle cells, and none of which have cell walls. Individual animals move using cilia, and any "edge" can lead. T. adhaerens feeds on marine microbes, mostly unicellular green algae, by crawling atop the algae and trapping it between its ventral surface and the substrate. Enzymes are then secreted onto the algae, and the resulting nutrients are absorbed. T. adhaerens sperm cells have never been observed, nor have embryos past the 64-cell (blastula) stage.

Which of the following T. adhaerens traits is different from all other known animals?

Select one of the following:

A) T. adhaerens is multicellular.
B) T. adhaerens lacks muscle and nerve cells.
C) T. adhaerens has cilia.
D) T. adhaerens lacks cell walls.

Explanation

Question 31 of 200

1

What do animals ranging from corals to monkeys have in common?

Select one of the following:

A) a mouth and an anus
B) number of embryonic tissue layers
C) some type of body symmetry
D) presence of Hox genes

Explanation

Question 32 of 200

1

In individual insects of some species, whole chromosomes that carry larval genes are eliminated from the genomes of somatic cells at the time of metamorphosis. A consequence of this occurrence is that ________.

Select one of the following:

A) we could not clone a larva from the somatic cells of such an adult insect
B) such species must reproduce only asexually
C) the descendants of these adults do not include a larval stage
D) metamorphosis can no longer occur among the descendants of such adults

Explanation

Question 33 of 200

1

The fact that choanoflagellates and collar cells of sponges resemble each other supports the inference that ________.

Select one of the following:

A) choanoflagellates are animals
B) choanoflagellates are more closely related to sponges than they are to protists
C) choanoflagellates and sponges are sister groups
D) choanoflagellates and sponges evolved similar cell structures through convergent evolution

Explanation

Question 34 of 200

1

Which of the following would you classify as something other than an animal?

Select one of the following:

A) sponge
B) coral
C) jellyfish
D) choanoflagellate

Explanation

Question 35 of 200

1

The evolution of animal species has been prolific (current estimates of species numbers reach into the tens of millions). Much of this diversity is a result of the evolution of novel ways to ________.

Select one of the following:

A) reproduce
B) arrange cells into tissues
C) sense, feed, and move
D) form an embryo and establish a basic body plan

Explanation

Question 36 of 200

1

The last common ancestor of all animals was probably a ________.

Select one of the following:

A) unicellular chytrid
B) multicellular algae
C) multicellular fungus
D) flagellated protist

Explanation

Question 37 of 200

1

Evidence of which structure or characteristic would be most surprising to find among fossils of the Ediacaran fauna?

Select one of the following:

A) true tissues
B) hard parts
C) bilateral symmetry
D) embryos

Explanation

Question 38 of 200

1

One hypothesis suggests that the Cambrian explosion was caused by the rise of predator-prey relationships. This hypothesis is best supported by an increased incidence of which of the following fossil traces?

Select one of the following:

A) worm burrows
B) larger animals
C) organic material
D) hard parts

Explanation

Question 39 of 200

1

Which of the following genetic processes may be most helpful in accounting for the Cambrian explosion?

Select one of the following:

A) binary fission
B) random segregation
C) gene duplication
D) chromosomal condensation

Explanation

Question 40 of 200

1

Whatever its ultimate cause(s), the Cambrian explosion is a prime example of ________.

Select one of the following:

A) mass extinction
B) evolutionary stasis
C) adaptive radiation
D) a large meteor impact

Explanation

Question 41 of 200

1

Arthropods invaded land about 100 million years before vertebrates. This fact most clearly implies that ________.

Select one of the following:

A) arthropods evolved before vertebrates did
B) extant terrestrial arthropods are better adapted to terrestrial life than are extant terrestrial vertebrates
C) vertebrates evolved from arthropods
D) arthropods have had more time to coevolve with land plants than have vertebrates

Explanation

Question 42 of 200

1

Cadherin proteins help animal cells stick (adhere) to each other. Choose which statement about cadherin in cancer cells that are metastasizing (spreading) throughout a patient's body is most likely correct.

Select one of the following:

A) Cadherin proteins in metastasizing cancer cells are likely to have mutations that make them less "sticky."
B) Cadherin proteins in metastasizing cancer cells are likely to have mutations that make them more "sticky."
C) Mutations in cadherin proteins are unlikely to affect the metastasizing of cancer cells.
D) Mutations in cadherin proteins accumulate at a constant rate that can be measured by a molecular clock.

Explanation

Question 43 of 200

1

Which of the following factors most likely contributed to the extinction of many Ediacaran life forms?

Select one of the following:

A) predation by new species, poisoning from high carbon dioxide levels, and loss of developmental flexibility
B) predation by new species, poisoning from high oxygen levels, and loss of habitat due to increased temperatures
C) predation by new species, faster movement by new species, and increased developmental flexibility by new species
D) loss of habitat due to increased temperatures, poisoning from high oxygen levels, and loss of developmental flexibility

Explanation

Question 44 of 200

1

Which tissue type or organ is not correctly matched with its germ layer tissue?

Select one of the following:

A) nervous—mesoderm
B) muscular—mesoderm
C) stomach—endoderm
D) skin—ectoderm

Explanation

Question 45 of 200

1

While looking at some seawater through your microscope, you spot the egg of an unknown animal. Which of the following tests could you use to determine whether the developing organism is a protostome or a deuterostome? See whether the embryo ________.

Select one of the following:

A) develops germ layers
B) exhibits spiral cleavage or radial cleavage
C) develops a blastopore
D) develops an archenteron

Explanation

Question 46 of 200

1

In examining an unknown animal species during its embryonic development, how can you be sure what you are looking at is a protostome and not a deuterostome?

Select one of the following:

A) There is evidence of cephalization.
B) The animal is triploblastic.
C) The animal is clearly bilaterally symmetrical.
D) You see a mouth, but not an anus.

Explanation

Question 47 of 200

1

Which of the following is a feature of the "tube-within-a-tube" body plan in most animal phyla?

Select one of the following:

A) The outer tube consists of a hard exoskeleton.
B) The outer tube consists of digestive organs.
C) The mouth and anus form the ends of the inner tube.
D) The two "tubes" are separated by tissue that comes from embryonic endoderm.

Explanation

Question 48 of 200

1

If you think of the earthworm body plan as a drinking straw within a pipe, where would you expect to find most of the tissues that developed from endoderm?

Select one of the following:

A) lining the straw
B) lining the space between the pipe and the straw
C) forming the outside of the pipe
D) forming the outside of the straw

Explanation

Question 49 of 200

1

Among protostomes, which morphological trait has shown the most variation?

Select one of the following:

A) type of symmetry (bilateral versus radial versus none)
B) type of body cavity (coelom versus pseudocoelom versus no coelom)
C) number of embryonic tissue types (diploblasty versus triploblasty)
D) type of development (protostome versus deuterostome)

Explanation

Question 50 of 200

1

What do all deuterostomes have in common?

Select one of the following:

A) Adults are bilaterally symmetrical.
B) Embryos have pharyngeal pouches that may or may not form gill slits.
C) All have a spinal column.
D) The pore (blastopore) formed during gastrulation becomes the anus.

Explanation

Question 51 of 200

1

Soon after the coelom begins to form, a researcher injects a dye into the coelom of a deuterostome embryo. Initially, the dye should be able to flow directly into the ________.

Select one of the following:

A) blastopore
B) blastocoel
C) archenteron
D) pseudocoelom

Explanation

Question 52 of 200

1

You have before you a living organism, which you examine carefully. Which of the following should convince you that the organism is acoelomate?

Select one of the following:

A) It is triploblastic.
B) It has bilateral symmetry.
C) It possesses sensory structures at its anterior end.
D) Muscular activity of its digestive system distorts the body wall.

Explanation

Question 53 of 200

1

Use the information to answer the question.

One small animal phylum (Placozoa) contains only two species, Trichoplax adhaerens (T. adhaerens) and T. reptans. T. adhaerens is the only species seen in over a century. Individuals are about 1 mm wide and only 27 μm high, are irregularly shaped, and consist of a total of about 2,000 cells, which are diploid (2n = 12). There are four types of cells, none of which are nerve or muscle cells, and none of which have cell walls. Individual animals move using cilia, and any "edge" can lead. T. adhaerens feeds on marine microbes, mostly unicellular green algae, by crawling atop the algae and trapping it between its ventral surface and the substrate. Enzymes are then secreted onto the algae, and the resulting nutrients are absorbed. T. adhaerens sperm cells have never been observed. Embryos up to, but not past, the 64-cell (blastula) stage have been observed.

On the basis of information in the paragraph, which of these should be able to be observed in T. adhaerens?

Select one of the following:

A) a coelom
B) the process of gastrulation
C) eggs
D) a radially symmetric larval form

Explanation

Question 54 of 200

1

A student encounters an animal embryo at the eight-cell stage. The four smaller cells that comprise 1 hemisphere of the embryo seem to be rotated 45° and to lie in the grooves between larger, underlying cells. This embryo may potentially develop into a(n) ________.

Select one of the following:

A) turtle
B) earthworm
C) sea star
D) sea urchin

Explanation

Question 55 of 200

1

A student encounters an animal embryo at the eight-cell stage. The four smaller cells that comprise 1 hemisphere of the embryo seem to be rotated 45° and to lie in the grooves between larger, underlying cells. If we were to separate these eight cells and attempt to culture them individually, then what is most likely to happen?

Select one of the following:

A) All eight cells will die immediately.
B) Each cell may continue development, but only into a nonviable embryo that lacks many parts.
C) Each cell may develop into a full-sized, normal embryo.
D) Each cell may develop into a smaller-than-average, but otherwise normal, embryo.

Explanation

Question 56 of 200

1

What was an early selective advantage of a coelom in animals? A coelom ________.

Select one of the following:

A) contributed to a hydrostatic skeleton, allowing greater range of motion
B) was a more efficient digestive system
C) allowed cephalization and the formation of a cerebral ganglion
D) allowed asexual and sexual reproduction

Explanation

Question 57 of 200

1

The protostome developmental sequence arose just once in evolutionary history, resulting in two main subgroups—Lophotrochozoa and Ecdysozoa. What does this finding suggest?

Select one of the following:

A) These two subgroups have a common ancestor that was a deuterostome.
B) The protostomes are a polyphyletic group.
C) Division of these two groups occurred after the protostome developmental sequence appeared.
D) The lophotrochozoans are monophyletic.

Explanation

Question 58 of 200

1

Which of these statements, if accurate, would support the claim that the ancestral cnidarians had bilateral symmetry?

Select one of the following:

A) Cnidarian larvae possess anterior-posterior, left-right, and dorsal-ventral aspects.
B) Cnidarians have fewer Hox genes than bilaterians.
C) All cnidarians are acoelomate.
D) The presence of collar cells.

Explanation

Question 59 of 200

1

An organism that exhibits a head with sensory equipment and a brain probably also ________.

Select one of the following:

A) is bilaterally symmetrical
B) has a coelom
C) is segmented
D) is diploblastic

Explanation

Question 60 of 200

1

Suppose a researcher for a pest-control company developed a chemical that inhibited the development of an embryonic mosquito's endodermal cells. Which of the following would be a likely mechanism by which this pesticide works?

Select one of the following:

A) The mosquito would develop a weakened exoskeleton that would make it vulnerable to trauma.
B) The mosquito would have trouble digesting food, due to impaired gut function.
C) The mosquito would have trouble with respiration and circulation, due to impaired muscle function.
D) The mosquito wouldn't be affected at all.

Explanation

Question 61 of 200

1

Use the information to answer the question.

Trichoplax adhaerens is the only living species in the phylum Placozoa. Individuals are about 1 mm wide and only 27 μm high, are irregularly shaped, and consist of a total of about 2,000 cells, which are diploid (2n = 12). There are four types of cells, none of which are nerve or muscle cells, and none of which have cell walls. Individual animals move using cilia, and any "edge" can lead. T. adhaerens feeds on marine microbes, mostly unicellular green algae, by crawling atop the algae and trapping it between its ventral surface and the substrate. Enzymes are then secreted onto the algae, and the resulting nutrients are absorbed. T. adhaerens sperm cells have never been observed, nor have embryos past the 64-cell (blastula) stage.

T. adhaerens' body symmetry seems to be most like that of ________.

Select one of the following:

A) most sponges
B) cnidarians
C) worms
D) tetrapods

Explanation

Question 62 of 200

1

Use the information to answer the question.

Nudibranchs, a type of predatory sea slug, can have various protuberances (that is, extensions) on their dorsal surfaces. Rhinophores are paired structures, located close to the head, which bear many chemoreceptors. Dorsal plumules, usually located posteriorly, perform respiratory gas exchange. Cerata usually cover much of the dorsal surface and contain nematocysts at their tips.

If nudibranch rhinophores are located at the anterior ends of these sea slugs, then they contribute to the sea slugs' ________.

Select one of the following:

A) segmentation
B) lack of torsion
C) development of a head
D) identity as lophotrochozoans

Explanation

Question 63 of 200

1

What is the probable sequence in which the following animal clades originated, from earliest to most recent?

Select one of the following:

A) bilaterians, deuterostomes, vertebrates, tetrapods, amniotes
B) bilaterians, deuterostomes, amniotes, vertebrates, tetrapods
C) deuterostomes, bilaterians, amniotes, vertebrates, tetrapods
D) deuterostomes, bilaterians, vertebrates, tetrapods, amniotes

Explanation

Question 64 of 200

1

The most ancient branch point in animal phylogeny is the characteristic of having ________.

Select one of the following:

A) radial or bilateral symmetry
B) diploblastic or triploblastic embryos
C) true tissues or no tissues
D) a body cavity or no body cavity

Explanation

Question 65 of 200

1

When a scientist describes the "body plan" of a phylum, he or she is implying that ________.

Select one of the following:

A) organisms direct their own evolution in order to maximize their success
B) animals evolve according to a pre-ordained plan
C) the body shapes we see now have been more successful than others in the past
D) mutations have arisen that allow only some shapes to be produced

Explanation

Question 66 of 200

1

Which of the following statements comparing symmetry in sessile and swimming animals is most probable?

Select one of the following:

A) Radial symmetry is more advantageous for active swimming than is bilateral symmetry.
B) Radial symmetry occurs most frequently in animals that catch their prey by rapid swimming.
C) Bilateral symmetry allowed animals to evolve nerves.
D) Bilaterally symmetric animals can be streamlined for swimming, but radially symmetric animals cannot.

Explanation

Question 67 of 200

1

The primary difference between a coelom and a pseudocoelom is ________.

Select one of the following:

A) their developmental origin
B) the manner in which they cushion the internal organs
C) a coelom arises in the ectoderm, and a pseudocoelom arises in the endoderm
D) a coelom occurs in triploblastic animals, and a pseudocoelom occurs in diploblastic animals

Explanation

Question 68 of 200

1

Nine-banded armadillos give birth to four offspring at a time. An amazing fact about these offspring is that they are genetically identical to each other. This fact suggests ________.

Select one of the following:

A) the young undergo metamorphosis
B) the embryo undergoes radial and indeterminate cleavage
C) the first cell division of the fertilized egg is perpendicular to the vertical axis of the egg
D) the species is pseudocoelomate

Explanation

Question 69 of 200

1

You find a new species of worm and want to classify it. Which of the following lines of evidence would allow you to classify the worm as a nematode and not an annelid?

Select one of the following:

A) It is segmented.
B) It is triploblastic.
C) It has a coelom.
D) It sheds its external skeleton to grow.

Explanation

Question 70 of 200

1

The common ancestor of the protostomes had a coelom. What does this suggest?

Select one of the following:

A) All lophotrochozoans have a coelom.
B) There are no pseudocoelomates within the protostomes.
C) There are no acoelomates within the protostomes.
D) The body cavity evolved before the lophophore.

Explanation

Question 71 of 200

1

The last common ancestor of all bilaterians is thought to have had four Hox genes. Most extant cnidarians have two Hox genes, though some have three Hox genes. On the basis of these observations, some have proposed that the ancestral cnidarian's were originally bilateral and, in stages, lost Hox genes from their genomes. If true, this would mean that ________.

Select one of the following:

A) all radially symmetric animals should be grouped together in one clade
B) the radial symmetry of extant cnidarians is secondarily derived, rather than being an ancestral trait
C) Hox genes play little actual role in coding for an animal's "body plan"
D) cnidaria may someday replace porifera as the basal bilaterians

Explanation

Question 72 of 200

1

Some researchers claim that sponge genomes have homeotic genes, but no Hox genes. If true, this finding would ________.

Select one of the following:

A) mean that sponges must no longer be classified as animals
B) confirm the identity of sponges as "basal animals"
C) mean that extinct sponges must have been the last common ancestor of animals and fungi
D) require sponges to be reclassified as choanoflagellates

Explanation

Question 73 of 200

1

Why might researchers choose to use molecular data (such as ribosomal RNA sequences) rather than morphological data to study the evolutionary history of animals?

Select one of the following:

A) Molecular data can be gathered in the lab, while morphological data must be gathered in the field.
B) Molecular data can be used to give an estimate of the time since two groups split.
C) Morphological changes usually do not result from molecular changes.
D) Some phyla vary too widely in morphological characteristics to be classified accurately.

Explanation

Question 74 of 200

1

If in the future the current molecular evidence regarding animal origins is further substantiated, which of the following statements would be correct with reference to fossil evidence that contradicts molecular evidence?

Select one of the following:

A) The contrary fossil evidence will be seen as a hoax.
B) The fossil evidence will be understood to have been interpreted incorrectly because it is incomplete.
C) The fossil record will, henceforth, be ignored.
D) Phylogenies involving even the smallest bit of fossil evidence will need to be discarded.

Explanation

Question 75 of 200

1

Which of the following statements concerning animal taxonomy is accurate?

Select one of the following:

A) Animals are thought to have evolved from flagellated protists similar to modern choanoflagellates.
B) Kingdom Animalia is polyphyletic.
C) Animals are more closely related to plants than to fungi.
D) In the kingdom Animalia, most clades based on body plan or fossils have been found to be incorrect.

Explanation

Question 76 of 200

1

In the future, phylogenetic studies should be conducted to ________.

Select one of the following:

A) resolve the branching patterns (evolutionary history) of the Lophotrochozoa
B) discover the Hox genes in sponges
C) discover the relationships between nematodes and platyhelminthes
D) discover the larval stages of echinoderms

Explanation

Question 77 of 200

1

At one time, sponges were lumped into one phylum. Then, they were separated into several different phyla. Now, they are considered one phylum again. These changes indicate which of the following?

Select one of the following:

A) Every phylogeny should be considered a hypothesis that must be revised in the light of new data.
B) We need more fossil evidence of sponges.
C) Molecular and morphological data often conflict when we try to reconstruct evolutionary history.
D) The goal of making all taxonomic groups monophyletic is unrealistic.

Explanation

Question 78 of 200

1

Sponges and ctenophores have both been proposed as basal metazoans. Which of the following types of data support the idea that sponges are the basal group?

Select one of the following:

A) sequences of cadherin genes, cleavage type, structure of collar cells, and bilateral symmetry of adults
B) sequences of collagen genes, bilateral symmetry of adults, cleavage type, and fossil steroids
C) fossil steroids, molecular clock, lack of tissues in sponges, and structure of collar cells
D) structure of collar cells, bilateral symmetry of larvae, sequences of cadherin genes, and molecular clock

Explanation

Question 79 of 200

1

Sponges and ctenophores have both been proposed as basal metazoans. Imagine that you wanted to provide additional evidence to help resolve this question. Which of the following projects would be the best next step?

Select one of the following:

A) more extensive study of DNA sequences in the bilateria
B) ultrastructural (that is, electron microscope) comparisons of choanoflagellates and sperm cells from arthropods
C) measurements of molecular clocks from the Lophotrochozoa
D) more extensive studies of DNA sequences in both groups

Explanation

Question 80 of 200

1

Placing sponges as the basal metazoans on the basis of lack of tissues implies which of the following?

Select one of the following:

A) Sponge ancestors never had tissues.
B) Modern-day sponges have lost the ability to form tissues.
C) Multicellular, modern-day choanoflagellates can form tissues.
D) Sponges do not have nerve cells.

Explanation

Question 81 of 200

1

One of the characteristics unique to animals is

Select one of the following:

A) gastrulation.
B) multicellularity.
C) sexual reproduction.
D) flagellated sperm.

Explanation

Question 82 of 200

1

The distinction between sponges and other animal phyla is based mainly on the absence versus the presence of

Select one of the following:

A) a body cavity.
B) a complete digestive tract.
C) mesoderm.
D) tissues.

Explanation

Question 83 of 200

1

Which of the following was probably the least important factor in bringing about the Cambrian explosion?

Select one of the following:

A) the emergence of predator-prey relationships
B) an increase in the concentration of atmospheric oxygen
C) the movement of animals onto land
D) the origin of Hox genes

Explanation

Question 84 of 200

1

Which part of a plant absorbs most of the water and minerals taken up from the soil?

Select one of the following:

A) root cap
B) root hairs
C) the thick parts of the roots near the base of the stem
D) storage roots

Explanation

Question 85 of 200

1

Prop roots are the modified aerial adventitious roots of corn that ________.

Select one of the following:

A) enable the root system to obtain oxygen
B) support tall, top-heavy plants
C) enable the root system to anchor
D) wrap around other plants to support tall, top-heavy plants

Explanation

Question 86 of 200

1

Strawberries have modified horizontal shoots growing along the surface, which are referred to as ________.

Select one of the following:

A) rhizomes
B) tubers
C) stolons
D) rhizoids

Explanation

Question 87 of 200

1

An axillary bud in the stem can potentially form a ________ in a variety of plants based on evolutionary adaptations.

Select one of the following:

A) lateral branch
B) thorn
C) flower
D) lateral branch, thorn, and flower

Explanation

Question 88 of 200

1

Onion leaves have been modified for the purpose of ________.

Select one of the following:

A) defense (protect from predators)
B) storage
C) support
D) reproduction

Explanation

Question 89 of 200

1

________ is a relatively indigestible strengthening polymer that accounts for more than a quarter of the dry mass of wood.

Select one of the following:

A) Cellulose
B) Starch
C) Lignin
D) None of these choices

Explanation

Question 90 of 200

1

When you eat Brussels sprouts, you are eating ________.

Select one of the following:

A) immature flowers
B) large axillary buds
C) petioles
D) storage leaves

Explanation

Question 91 of 200

1

Some of the largest leaves in the world can be found on plants near the floor of dense tropical rain forests. Which of the following precursors for photosynthesis is most likely limited in these large leaves?

Select one of the following:

A) oxygen
B) carbon dioxide
C) glucose
D) light

Explanation

Question 92 of 200

1

Leaf thickness represents a trade-off between ________.

Select one of the following:

A) light collection and carbon dioxide absorption
B) water retention and carbon dioxide absorption
C) water retention and oxygen absorption
D) light collection and oxygen absorption

Explanation

Question 93 of 200

1

One important difference between the anatomy of roots and the anatomy of leaves is that ________.

Select one of the following:

A) only leaves have phloem and only roots have xylem
B) root cells have cell walls and leaf cells do not
C) a waxy cuticle covers leaves but is absent from roots
D) vascular tissue is found in roots but is absent from leaves
E) leaves have epidermal tissue but roots do not

Explanation

Question 94 of 200

1

Which structure is correctly paired with its tissue system?

Select one of the following:

A) root hair—vascular tissue
B) guard cell—vascular tissue
C) companion cell—ground tissue
D) tracheid—vascular tissue

Explanation

Question 95 of 200

1

The vascular bundle in the shape of a single central cylinder in a root is called the ________.

Select one of the following:

A) cortex
B) stele
C) periderm
D) pith

Explanation

Question 96 of 200

1

Which of the following cell types retains the ability to undergo cell division?

Select one of the following:

A) a parenchyma cell near the root tip
B) a functional sieve tube element
C) a tracheid
D) a stem fiber

Explanation

Question 97 of 200

1

Which of the following have unevenly thickened primary walls that support young, growing parts of the plant?

Select one of the following:

A) parenchyma cells
B) collenchyma cells
C) sclerenchyma cells
D) tracheids and vessel elements

Explanation

Question 98 of 200

1

Which of the following is correctly paired with its structure and function?

Select one of the following:

A) sclerenchyma—supporting cells with thick secondary walls
B) ground meristem—protective coat of woody stems and roots
C) guard cells—waterproof ring of cells surrounding the central stele in roots
D) periderm—parenchyma cells functioning in photosynthesis in leaves

Explanation

Question 99 of 200

1

Which of the following are water-conducting cells that are dead at functional maturity?

Select one of the following:

A) parenchyma cells
B) collenchyma cells
C) tracheids and vessel elements
D) sieve-tube elements

Explanation

Question 100 of 200

1

Which of the following cells transport sugars over long distances?

Select one of the following:

A) parenchyma cells
B) sclerenchyma cells
C) tracheids and vessel elements
D) sieve-tube elements

Explanation

Question 101 of 200

1

Which of the following plants are annuals?

Select one of the following:

A) azaleas
B) roses
C) blueberries
D) wheat

Explanation

Question 102 of 200

1

Plant meristematic cells ________.

Select one of the following:

A) are distributed evenly in all tissues throughout the plant
B) are undifferentiated cells that produce new cells
C) increase the surface area of dermal tissue by developing root hairs
D) subdivide into three distinct cell types named parenchyma, ground meristem, and procambium

Explanation

Question 103 of 200

1

Which of the following arise, directly or indirectly, from meristematic activity?

Select one of the following:

A) secondary xylem
B) leaves
C) dermal tissue
D) secondary xylem, leaves, dermal tissue, and tubers

Explanation

Question 104 of 200

1

Compared to most animals, the growth of most plant structure is best described as ________.

Select one of the following:

A) perennial
B) weedy
C) indeterminate
D) primary

Explanation

Question 105 of 200

1

What is present in a shoot apical meristem region?

I) the region of cell division
II) immature buds and leaves
III) cells that will give rise to the protoderm, ground meristem, and procambium

Select one of the following:

A) only I
B) only II
C) only III
D) I, II, and III

Explanation

Question 106 of 200

1

Shoot elongation in a growing bud is due primarily to ________.

Select one of the following:

A) cell division at the shoot apical meristem
B) cell elongation directly below the shoot apical meristem
C) cell elongation localized in each internode
D) cell division at the shoot apical meristem and cell elongation directly below the shoot apical meristem

Explanation

Question 107 of 200

1

Apical meristems of dicots are at the tips of stems. Apical meristems of grasses are at ground level or slightly below, concealed by the leaves. What does this mean when considering care of a lawn or soccer field?

Select one of the following:

A) If you mow right at ground level, the leaves can keep growing with no problem.
B) Grass mowed two inches above ground level grows at a slower rate compared to grass mowed three inches above the ground level.
C) If you mow two inches above ground level, most apical meristems will be cut down.
D) If you mow two inches above ground level, the apical meristem can keep producing new cells.

Explanation

Question 108 of 200

1

In a meristematic region, the cell plate during mitosis is perpendicular to the side of the stem. In what direction will the stem grow?

Select one of the following:

A) laterally in width
B) vertically in height
C) at a 45-degree angle from the ground
D) away from the sun

Explanation

Question 109 of 200

1

Which of the following cells or tissues arise from lateral meristem activity?

Select one of the following:

A) secondary xylem
B) leaves
C) trichomes
D) tubers

Explanation

Question 110 of 200

1

Cells produced by lateral meristems are known as ________.

Select one of the following:

A) dermal and ground tissue
B) lateral tissues
C) pith
D) secondary tissues

Explanation

Question 111 of 200

1

Which of the following can be used to determine a twig's age?

Select one of the following:

A) number of apical bud scar rings
B) number of leaf scars
C) number and arrangement of axillary buds
D) length of internodes

Explanation

Question 112 of 200

1

A plant that grows one year, dies back, and then grows again the following year, produces flowers, and then dies would be considered ________.

Select one of the following:

A) annual
B) biennial
C) perennial
D) not very fit

Explanation

Question 113 of 200

1

Which of the following is the correct sequence of the zones in the primary growth of a root, moving from the root cap inward?

Select one of the following:

A) zone of cell division, zone of elongation, zone of differentiation
B) zone of differentiation, zone of elongation, zone of cell division
C) zone of elongation, zone of cell division, zone of differentiation
D) zone of cell division, zone of differentiation, zone of elongation

Explanation

Question 114 of 200

1

The driving force that pushes the root tip through the soil is primarily ________.

Select one of the following:

A) continuous cell division in the root cap at the tip of the root
B) continuous cell division just behind the root cap in the center of the apical meristem
C) elongation of cells behind the root apical meristem
D) continuous cell division of root cap cells

Explanation

Question 115 of 200

1

Mitotic activity by the apical meristem of a root makes which of the following more possible?

Select one of the following:

A) increased delivery of water to the aboveground stem
B) decreased absorption of mineral nutrients
C) increased absorption of carbon dioxide.
D) effective lateral growth of the stem

Explanation

Question 116 of 200

1

Which of the following root tissues gives rise to lateral roots?

Select one of the following:

A) endodermis
B) phloem
C) epidermis
D) pericycle

Explanation

Question 117 of 200

1

As a youngster, you drive a nail in the trunk of a young tree that is 3 meters tall. The nail is about 1.5 meters from the ground. Fifteen years later, you return and discover that the tree has grown to a height of 30 meters. About how many meters above the ground is the nail?

Select one of the following:

A) 0.5
B) 1.5
C) 3.0
D) 15.0

Explanation

Question 118 of 200

1

You find a plant unfamiliar to you and observe that it has vascular bundles scattered throughout the stem cross section. What do you conclude about the plant?

Select one of the following:

A) It is probably an herbaceous eudicot.
B) It will probably get annual rings of wood.
C) It is probably a monocot.
D) It could be either a young eudicot or a monocot.

Explanation

Question 119 of 200

1

Monocot vascular bundles do not have a vascular cambium between the xylem and phloem. This means that monocots ________.

Select one of the following:

A) are much less efficient at conducting water and sugars
B) have very thin stems
C) do not produce wood in annual rings
D) cannot produce lateral shoots

Explanation

Question 120 of 200

1

A student examining leaf cross sections under a microscope finds many loosely packed cells with relatively thin cell walls. The cells have numerous chloroplasts. What type of cells are they?

Select one of the following:

A) parenchyma
B) endodermis
C) collenchyma
D) sclerenchyma

Explanation

Question 121 of 200

1

The veins of leaves are ________.

I) composed of xylem and phloem
II) continuous, with vascular bundles in the stem and roots
III) finely branched to be in close contact with photosynthesizing cells

Select one of the following:

A) only I
B) only II
C) only III
D) I, II, and III

Explanation

Question 122 of 200

1

Increasing the number of stomata per unit surface area of a leaf when atmospheric carbon dioxide levels decline is most analogous to a human ________.

Select one of the following:

A) breathing faster as atmospheric carbon dioxide levels increase
B) putting more red blood cells into circulation when atmospheric oxygen levels decline
C) removing red blood cells from circulation when atmospheric oxygen levels increase
D) increasing the volume of its lungs when atmospheric carbon dioxide levels increase

Explanation

Question 123 of 200

1

A lateral root originates in the ________.

Select one of the following:

A) pericycle
B) cortex
C) endodermis
D) epidermis

Explanation

Question 124 of 200

1

Of the following plants, which stem has scattered vascular bundles?

Select one of the following:

A) corn
B) magnolia
C) chrysanthemum
D) hibiscus

Explanation

Question 125 of 200

1

The secondary mesophyll of leaves is made up of ________.

Select one of the following:

A) parenchyma tissue
B) collenchyma tissue
C) sclerenchyma tissue
D) parenchyma and collenchyma tissues

Explanation

Question 126 of 200

1

Where is primary growth occurring in an old tree?

Select one of the following:

A) closest to ground level at the base of the tree
B) in young branches where leaves are forming
C) where the vascular cambium and cork cambium are located
D) Nowhere; trees more than a year old have only secondary growth.

Explanation

Question 127 of 200

1

What tissue makes up most of the wood of a tree?

Select one of the following:

A) primary xylem
B) secondary xylem
C) secondary phloem
D) vascular cambium

Explanation

Question 128 of 200

1

A plant has the following characteristics: a taproot system, several growth rings evident in a cross section of the stem, and a layer of bark around the outside. Which of the following best describes the plant?

Select one of the following:

A) herbaceous eudicot
B) woody eudicot
C) woody monocot
D) herbaceous monocot

Explanation

Question 129 of 200

1

If you were able to walk into an opening cut into the center of a large redwood tree, when you exited from the middle of the trunk (stem) outward, you would cross, in order, ________.

Select one of the following:

A) the annual rings, new xylem, vascular cambium, phloem, and bark
B) the secondary xylem, cork cambium, phloem, and periderm
C) the vascular cambium, oldest xylem, and newest xylem
D) the secondary xylem, secondary phloem, and vascular cambium

Explanation

Question 130 of 200

1

Heartwood and sapwood consist of ________.

Select one of the following:

A) periderm
B) secondary xylem
C) secondary phloem
D) cork

Explanation

Question 131 of 200

1

Additional vascular tissue produced as secondary growth in a root originates from which cells?

Select one of the following:

A) vascular cambium
B) apical meristem
C) endodermis
D) xylem

Explanation

Question 132 of 200

1

The bark of a tree trunk is made up of ________.

Select one of the following:

A) heart wood and sap wood
B) heart wood
C) secondary phloem
D) secondary phloem and layers of periderm

Explanation

Question 133 of 200

1

The polarity of a plant is established when ________.

Select one of the following:

A) cotyledons form at the shoot end of the embryo
B) the shoot-root axis is established in the embryo
C) the primary root breaks through the seed coat
D) the shoot first breaks through the soil into the light as the seed germinates

Explanation

Question 134 of 200

1

Growth and development of plant parts involves ________.

I) cell division to produce new cells
II) enlargement and elongation of cells
III) specialization of cells into tissues

Select one of the following:

A) only I
B) only II
C) only III
D) I, II, and III

Explanation

Question 135 of 200

1

Totipotency is a term used to describe a cell's ability to give rise to a complete new organism. In plants, this means that ________.

Select one of the following:

A) plant development is not under genetic control
B) the cells of shoots and the cells of roots have different genes
C) cell differentiation depends largely on the control of gene expression
D) a cell's environment has no effect on its differentiation

Explanation

Question 136 of 200

1

The phase change of an apical meristem from the juvenile to the mature vegetative phase is often revealed by ________.

Select one of the following:

A) a change in the morphology of the leaves produced
B) the initiation of secondary growth
C) a change in the orientation of preprophase bands and cytoplasmic microtubules in lateral meristems
D) the activation of floral meristem identity genes

Explanation

Question 137 of 200

1

Most of the growth of a plant body is the result of

Select one of the following:

A) cell differentiation.
B) morphogenesis.
C) cell division.
D) cell elongation.

Explanation

Question 138 of 200

1

The innermost layer of the root cortex is the

Select one of the following:

A) core.
B) pericycle.
C) endodermis.
D) pith.

Explanation

Question 139 of 200

1

Heartwood and sapwood consist of

Select one of the following:

A) bark.
B) periderm.
C) secondary xylem.
D) secondary phloem.

Explanation

Question 140 of 200

1

The phase change of an apical meristem from the juvenile to the mature vegetative phase is often revealed by

Select one of the following:

A) a change in the morphology of the leaves produced.
B) the initiation of secondary growth.
C) the formation of lateral roots.
D) the activation of floral meristem identity genes.

Explanation

Question 141 of 200

1

Suppose a flower had normal expression of genes A and C and expression of gene B in all four whorls. Based on the ABC hypothesis, what would be the structure of that flower, starting at the outermost whorl?

Select one of the following:

A) carpel-petal-petal-carpel
B) petal-petal-stamen-stamen
C) sepal-carpel-carpel-sepal
D) sepal-sepal-carpel-carpel

Explanation

Question 142 of 200

1

Which of the following arise(s), directly or indirectly, from meristematic activity?

Select one of the following:

A) secondary xylem
B) leaves
C) dermal tissue
D) all of the above

Explanation

Question 143 of 200

1

Which of the following would not be seen in a cross section through the woody part of a root?

Select one of the following:

A) sclerenchyma cells
B) parenchyma cells
C) sieve-tube elements
D) root hairs

Explanation

Question 144 of 200

1

Penguins, seals, and tuna have body forms that permit rapid swimming, because ________.

Select one of the following:

A) all share a recent common ancestor
B) all of their bodies have been compressed since birth by intensive underwater pressures
C) the shape is a convergent evolutionary solution, which reduces drag while swimming
D) this is the only shape that will allow them to maintain a constant body temperature in water

Explanation

Question 145 of 200

1

As animals have evolved large body size, they have also evolved adaptations to improve exchange of energy and materials with the environment. For example, in many larger organisms, evolution has favored lungs and a digestive tract with ________.

Select one of the following:

A) more branching or folds
B) increased thickness
C) larger cells
D) decreased blood supply

Explanation

Question 146 of 200

1

Much of the coordination of vertebrate body functions via chemical signals is accomplished by the ________.

Select one of the following:

A) respiratory system
B) endocrine system
C) integumentary system
D) excretory system

Explanation

Question 147 of 200

1

Compared with a smaller cell, a larger cell of the same shape has ________.

Select one of the following:

A) less surface area
B) less surface area per unit of volume
C) a smaller average distance between its mitochondria and the external source of oxygen
D) a smaller cytoplasm-to-nucleus ratio

Explanation

Question 148 of 200

1

Both the endocrine and nervous systems transmit information around an animal's body. Which of the following is a characteristic of nervous system signals?

Select one of the following:

A) allow gradual changes to take place in the body
B) travel quickly, allowing rapid transmission of signals
C) usually impact the entire body
D) a voltage change must occur

Explanation

Question 149 of 200

1

Some animals have no gills when young, but then develop gills that grow larger as the animal grows larger. What is the reason for this increase in gill size?

Select one of the following:

A) The young of these animals are much more active than the adult, which leads to a higher BMR (basal metabolic rate) and, therefore, a higher need for oxygen.
B) Relative to their volume, the young have more surface area across which they can transport all the oxygen they need.
C) The young have a higher BMR.
D) Relative to their surface area, the young have more body volume in which they can store oxygen for long periods of time.

Explanation

Question 150 of 200

1

Evolutionary adaptations that help some animals directly exchange matter between the cells of their body and the environment include ________.

Select one of the following:

A) a gastrovascular cavity, a two-layered body, and a torpedo-like body shape
B) an external respiratory surface, a small body size, and a two-cell-layered body
C) a large body volume, a long, tubular body, and a set of wings
D) an unbranched internal surface, a small body size, and thick covering

Explanation

Question 151 of 200

1

All animals, whether large or small, have ________.

Select one of the following:

A) an external body surface that is dry
B) a basic body plan that resembles a two-layered sac
C) a body surface covered with hair to keep them warm
D) most of their cells in contact with an aqueous medium

Explanation

Question 152 of 200

1

Interstitial fluid is ________.

Select one of the following:

A) the internal environment inside animal cells
B) identical to blood in composition.
C) a site of exchange between blood and body cells
D) found only in the lumen of the small intestine

Explanation

Question 153 of 200

1

Generally, epithelial cell layers are responsible for separating two fluids. For example, the epithelium of blood vessels in animals separates the blood from the interstitial fluid. What characteristic would you expect to see in an epithelium that was specialized for passive diffusion of materials from one fluid to another?

Select one of the following:

A) a single layer of flattened cells
B) many layers of cells stacked together
C) large, cube-shaped cells
D) loosely connected cells surrounded by an extracellular matrix

Explanation

Question 154 of 200

1

Most of the exchange surfaces of multicellular animals are lined with ________.

Select one of the following:

A) connective tissue
B) smooth muscle cells
C) neural tissue
D) epithelial tissue

Explanation

Question 155 of 200

1

Connective tissues typically have ________.

Select one of the following:

A) little space between the membranes of adjacent cells
B) the ability to transmit electrochemical impulses
C) the ability to shorten upon stimulation
D) relatively few cells and a large amount of extracellular matrix

Explanation

Question 156 of 200

1

In mammals, GH (growth hormone) is an endocrine signal that stimulates repair and growth of various tissues. Which of the following would be required for a tissue to respond to growth hormone?

Select one of the following:

A) the presence of a growth hormone receptor on the responding tissue
B) the responding tissue must be muscle
C) nerve cells must attach to the responding tissue for growth hormone to work
D) a voltage change must occur

Explanation

Question 157 of 200

1

Blood is best classified as connective tissue because ________.

Select one of the following:

A) its cells are separated from each other by an extracellular matrix
B) it contains more than one type of cell
C) its cells can move from place to place
D) it is found within all the organs of the body

Explanation

Question 158 of 200

1

Most types of communication between cells utilize ________.

Select one of the following:

A) the exchange of cytosol between the cells
B) the movement of the cells
C) chemical or electrical signals
D) the exchange of DNA between the cells

Explanation

Question 159 of 200

1

All types of muscle tissue have ________.

Select one of the following:

A) striated banding patterns seen under the microscope
B) cells that lengthen when appropriately stimulated
C) a response that can be consciously controlled
D) interactions between actin and myosin

Explanation

Question 160 of 200

1

Cardiac muscle cells are both ________.

Select one of the following:

A) striated and interconnected by intercalated disks
B) smooth and under voluntary control
C) striated and under voluntary control
D) smooth and under involuntary control

Explanation

Question 161 of 200

1

Muscle cells are organized to perform specific types of contractions within a tissue. Which of the following is a characteristic of smooth muscle?

Select one of the following:

A) many cells fused together
B) intercalated discs
C) spindle-shaped cells with a single nucleus
D) striations with sarcomeres

Explanation

Question 162 of 200

1

Food moves along the digestive tract as the result of contractions by ________.

Select one of the following:

A) cardiac muscle
B) smooth muscle
C) striated muscle
D) skeletal muscle

Explanation

Question 163 of 200

1

In many animals, fat is stored in specialized cells in the ________.

Select one of the following:

A) bone
B) muscle
C) adipose tissue
D) blood

Explanation

Question 164 of 200

1

Bone consists of ________.

Select one of the following:

A) a mixture of hardened collagen and minerals.
B) chondroitin sulfate secreted by chondrocytes.
C) many columnar epithelial cells packed together.
D) hardened fibrous connective tissue.

Explanation

Question 165 of 200

1

What is the name of the epithelial cell surface that faces the outside of an organ?

Select one of the following:

A) apical
B) basal
C) interstitial
D) lumen

Explanation

Question 166 of 200

1

Which organ system is responsible for protection against injury, infection, and dehydration?

Select one of the following:

A) Reproductive system
B) Excretory system
C) Skeletal system
D) Integumentary system

Explanation

Question 167 of 200

1

Which of the following is a true statement about body size and physiology?

Select one of the following:

A) The amount of food and oxygen an animal requires and the amount of heat and waste it produces are inversely proportional to its mass.
B) The rate at which an animal uses nutrients and produces waste products is independent of its volume.
C) Small and large animals face different physiological challenges because an animal's body mass increases cubically while its surface area increases as a squared function.
D) The wastes produced by an animal double as its volume doubles and triple as its surface area triples.

Explanation

Question 168 of 200

1

An elephant and a mouse are running in full sunlight, and both overheat by the same amount above their normal body temperatures. When they move into the shade and rest, which animal will cool down faster?

Select one of the following:

A) The elephant will because it has the higher surface-area-to-volume ratio.
B) The elephant will because it has the lower surface-area-to-volume ratio.
C) The mouse will because it has the higher surface-area-to-volume ratio.
D) They will cool at the same rate because they overheated by the same amount.

Explanation

Question 169 of 200

1

You have a cube of modeling clay in your hands. Which of the following changes to the shape of this cube of clay will decrease its surface area relative to its volume?

Select one of the following:

A) Pinch the edges of the cube into small folds.
B) Flatten the cube into a pancake shape.
C) Round the clay up into a sphere.
D) Stretch the cube into a long, shoebox shape.

Explanation

Question 170 of 200

1

The metabolic rate of an animal is most accurately determined by ________.

Select one of the following:

A) the amount of work done by an animal
B) the amount of food consumed during a meal
C) the amount of carbon dioxide produced by an animal in a given time.
D) the amount of energy used by an animal in a given time

Explanation

Question 171 of 200

1

The migratory eel, Anguilla rostrata, is born and lives the juvenile (immature) part of its life in a freshwater environment, but then migrates thousands of miles through the ocean as an adult in order to breed. These eels are known to regulate their internal water and salt balance. What adaptations would you expect this eel to have in order to transition from fresh water to salt water at these two life stages?

Select one of the following:

A) The juvenile eels would be better at removing salt from their bodies compared to adults.
B) The adult eels would be better at removing salt from their bodies compared to juveniles.
C) The juvenile eels would spend energy keeping water in their bodies.
D) The adult eels would spend energy keeping salt in their bodies.

Explanation

Question 172 of 200

1

The metamorphosis of a tadpole to an adult frog involves a thorough reconstruction of the animal's body. All of the structural and physiological changes must be complete or the frog will not survive this transformation. Which type of regulation would ensure that the animal completed its transformation?

Select one of the following:

A) positive feedback
B) negative feedback
C) feedback inhibition
D) enzymatic catalysis

Explanation

Question 173 of 200

1

When the body's blood glucose level rises, the pancreas secretes insulin and, as a result, the blood glucose level declines. When the blood glucose level is low, the pancreas secretes glucagon and, as a result, the blood glucose level rises. Such regulation of the blood glucose level is the result of ________.

Select one of the following:

A) catalytic feedback
B) positive feedback
C) negative feedback
D) protein-protein interactions

Explanation

Question 174 of 200

1

The body's automatic tendency to maintain a constant and optimal internal environment is termed as ________.

Select one of the following:

A) balanced equilibrium
B) physiological chance
C) homeostasis
D) static equilibrium

Explanation

Question 175 of 200

1

An example of a properly functioning homeostatic control system is seen when ________.

Select one of the following:

A) the core body temperature of a runner rises gradually from 37°C to 45°C
B) the kidneys excrete salt into the urine when dietary salt levels rise
C) a blood cell shrinks when placed in a solution of salt and water
D) the blood pressure increases in response to an increase in blood volume

Explanation

Question 176 of 200

1

If a person were to travel to a time zone that was several hours ahead of their own, they may experience tiredness known as jet lag. Jet lag is due to a disruption of ________.

Select one of the following:

A) homeostasis
B) circadian rhythm
C) body temperature
D) nerve impulses

Explanation

Question 177 of 200

1

What would be an advantage for an animal that conforms to a changing environmental condition, such as temperature?

Select one of the following:

A) The animal's internal temperature would remain constant, even though the external temperature had changed.
B) The animal's internal temperature would change opposite to the change in the external temperature.
C) The animal would spend more time looking for food.
D) The animal would spend less energy regulating its internal temperature.

Explanation

Question 178 of 200

1

You discover a new species of bacteria that grows in aquatic environments with high salt levels. While studying these bacteria, you note that their internal environment is similar to the salt concentrations in their surroundings. You also discover that the internal salt concentrations of the bacteria change as the salt concentration in their environment changes. The new species can tolerate small changes in this way, but dies from large changes because it has no mechanism for altering its own internal salt levels. What type of homeostatic mechanism is this species using to regulate its internal salt levels?

Select one of the following:

A) conformation
B) regulation
C) integration
D) assimilation

Explanation

Question 179 of 200

1

Chum salmon (Oncorhynchus keta) are born in freshwater environments and then migrate to the sea. Near the end of their lives, they return to the freshwater stream where they were born to spawn. In fresh water, water constantly diffuses into the body and ions are lost from the body. In salt water, body water diffuses out of the body and excess ions are gained from the water. A salmon's gills have special cells to pump salt in or out of the body to maintain homeostasis. In response to the salmon's moves between fresh water and salt water, some cells in the gills are produced and others are destroyed. These changes made in the cells of the gills during the lifetime of an individual salmon are an example of which of the following?

Select one of the following:

A) evolution
B) trade-off
C) acclimatization
D) adaptation

Explanation

Question 180 of 200

1

To prepare flight muscles for use on a cool morning, hawkmoths ________.

Select one of the following:

A) relax the muscles completely until after they launch themselves into the air
B) decrease their standard metabolic rate
C) rapidly contract and relax these muscles to generate metabolic warmth
D) reduce the metabolic rate of the muscles to rest them before flight

Explanation

Question 181 of 200

1

In a cool environment, an ectotherm is more likely to survive an extended period of food deprivation than would an equally sized endotherm because the ectotherm ________.

Select one of the following:

A) maintains a higher basal metabolic rate
B) expends more energy per kilogram of body mass than does the endotherm
C) invests little energy in temperature regulation
D) has greater insulation on its body surface

Explanation

Question 182 of 200

1

Elephants can often be observed cooling off by spraying water over their bodies with their trunks. What type of heat exchange is occurring?

Select one of the following:

A) conduction
B) convection
C) radiation
D) evaporation

Explanation

Question 183 of 200

1

An example of an ectothermic organism that has few or no behavioral options when it comes to its ability to adjust its body temperature is a ________.

Select one of the following:

A) sea star living deep in the ocean
B) bass living in a farm pond
C) hummingbird flying through a prairie
D) honeybee in a hive on a rural farm

Explanation

Question 184 of 200

1

The panting responses observed in overheated birds and mammals dissipate excess heat by ________.

Select one of the following:

A) countercurrent exchange
B) acclimation
C) vasoconstriction
D) evaporation

Explanation

Question 185 of 200

1

Most land-dwelling invertebrates and all of the amphibians ________.

Select one of the following:

A) are ectothermic organisms with variable body temperatures
B) alter their metabolic rates to maintain a constant body temperature of 37°C
C) are endotherms but become thermo-conformers when they are in water
D) become more active when environmental temperatures drop below 15°C

Explanation

Question 186 of 200

1

The temperature-regulating center of vertebrate animals is located in the ________.

Select one of the following:

A) thyroid gland
B) hypothalamus
C) subcutaneous layer of the skin
D) liver

Explanation

Question 187 of 200

1

The metabolic breakdown of specialized brown fat deposits in certain animals is substantially increased during ________.

Select one of the following:

A) acclimatization
B) torpor
C) nonshivering thermogenesis
D) shivering thermogenesis

Explanation

Question 188 of 200

1

The use of brown fat to generate metabolic heat is mostly limited to small mammals. What is the basis of this adaptation?

Select one of the following:

A) Small mammals cannot grow enough fur to insulate their bodies.
B) Because of their large surface area to volume ratio, heat loss across the body surface is higher in small animals.
C) Small mammals do not have enough muscle to generate heat by shivering.
D) Large mammals have lost their brown fat through the course of their evolution.

Explanation

Question 189 of 200

1

Which of the following would increase the rate of heat exchange between an animal and its environment?

Select one of the following:

A) feathers or fur
B) vasoconstriction
C) wind blowing across the body surface
D) blubber or fat layer

Explanation

Question 190 of 200

1

You are studying a large tropical reptile that has a high and relatively stable body temperature. How would you determine whether this animal is an endotherm or an ectotherm?

Select one of the following:

A) You know from its high and stable body temperature that it must be an endotherm.
B) You know that it is an ectotherm because it is not a bird or mammal.
C) You subject this reptile to various temperatures in the lab and find that its body temperature and metabolic rate change with the ambient temperature. You conclude that it is an ectotherm.
D) You note that its environment has a high and stable temperature. Because its body temperature matches the environmental temperature, you conclude that it is an ectotherm.

Explanation

Question 191 of 200

1

A woman standing and watching the stars on a cool, calm night will lose most of her body heat by ________.

Select one of the following:

A) radiation
B) convection
C) conduction
D) evaporation

Explanation

Question 192 of 200

1

There are advantages and disadvantages to adaptations. Animals that are endothermic are likely to be at the greatest disadvantage in ________.

Select one of the following:

A) very cold environments
B) very hot environments
C) environments with a constant food source
D) environments with variable and limited food sources

Explanation

Question 193 of 200

1

Which principle of heat exchange is the most important explanation for why birds look larger in colder weather because they fluff their feathers?

Select one of the following:

A) Fluffing feathers results in less cooling by radiation because feathers emit less infrared radiation than other tissues do.
B) Fluffing decreases the amount of heat lost by conduction when the bird makes contact with cold objects in its environment.
C) Fluffing creates a pocket of air near the bird that acts as insulation.
D) Fluffing decreases the surface-area-to-volume ratio, thus decreasing the amount of heat lost to the environment.

Explanation

Question 194 of 200

1

Snake behavior in Wisconsin changes throughout the year. For example, a snake is ________.

Select one of the following:

A) less active in winter because the food supply is decreased
B) less active in winter because it does not need to avoid predators
C) more active in summer because that is the period for mating
D) more active in summer because it can gain body heat by conduction

Explanation

Question 195 of 200

1

Standard metabolic rate (SMR) and basal metabolic rate (BMR) are ________.

Select one of the following:

A) used differently: SMR is measured during exercise, whereas BMR is measured at rest
B) used to compare metabolic rates during feeding and other active conditions
C) both measured across a wide range of temperatures for a given species
D) both measured in animals in a resting and fasting state

Explanation

Question 196 of 200

1

Independent of whether an organism is an endotherm or ectoderm, the least reliable indicator of an animal's metabolic rate is the amount of ________.

Select one of the following:

A) food eaten in one day
B) heat generated in one day
C) oxygen used in mitochondria in one day
D) water consumed in one day

Explanation

Question 197 of 200

1

Consider the energy budgets for a human, an elephant, a penguin, a mouse, and a snake. The would have the highest total annual energy expenditure, and the would have the highest energy expenditure per unit mass.

Select one of the following:

A) elephant; mouse
B) elephant; human
C) human; penguin
D) mouse; snake

Explanation

Question 198 of 200

1

Which of the following animals most likely uses the largest percentage of its energy budget for homeostatic regulation?

Select one of the following:

A) a marine jelly (an invertebrate) living deep in the ocean
B) a snake in a tropical forest
C) a shark swimming in the open ocean
D) a bird living year-round in a desert

Explanation

Question 199 of 200

1

A researcher is setting up an experiment to measure basal metabolic rate in prairie voles (Microtus ochrogaster—a small rodent). Which of the following would be the best set of conditions for the voles immediately before and during the measurement?

Select one of the following:

A) House the animals in a cage with plenty of food and water to avoid stress; conduct measurements in a warmer room than the room where housed.
B) House the animals in a cage with plenty of food and water to avoid stress; conduct measurements in a room the same temperature as the room where housed.
C) House the animals in a cage with no food for a few hours before measurement; conduct measurements in a colder room than the room where housed, and exercise the voles.
D) House the animals in a cage with no food for a few hours before measurement; conduct measurements in a room the same temperature as the room where housed.

Explanation

Question 200 of 200

1

Hummingbirds are small birds that require a regular food supply. When hummingbirds are faced with a situation that decreases their food supply, such as a storm, which of the following adaptations would be most useful for the bird to survive such an unpredictable and short-term absence of food resources?

Select one of the following:

A) shivering
B) torpor
C) hibernation
D) burrowing into soil

	Created by Hannah Moore about 6 years ago

Biology Quiz on Bio Exam 2 Part 1, created by Hannah Moore on 13/02/2018.

Bio Exam 2 Part 1

Question 1 of 200

Which of the following is a major trend in land plant evolution?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 2 of 200

Which of the following lines of evidence would best support your assertion that a particular plant is an angiosperm?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 3 of 200

Which of the following characteristics is functionally important in cells of the gametophytes of both angiosperms and gymnosperms?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 4 of 200

In addition to seeds, which of the following characteristics is unique to the seed-producing plants?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 5 of 200

Suppose that the cells of seed plants, like the cells of human skin, produce a pigment upon increased exposure to ultraviolet radiation. Rank the following cells, from greatest to least, in terms of the likelihood of producing this pigment.

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 6 of 200

Arrange the following in the correct sequence, from earliest to most recent, in which these plant traits originated.

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 7 of 200

In seed plants, which of the following is part of a pollen grain and has a function most like that of the seed coat?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 8 of 200

In terms of alternation of generations, the internal parts of the pollen grains of seed-producing plants are most similar to a ________.

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 9 of 200

A researcher has developed two stains for use with seed plants. One stains sporophyte tissue blue; the other stains gametophyte tissue red. If the researcher exposes pollen grains to both stains, and then rinses away the excess stain, what should occur?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 10 of 200

Which of the following sex and generation combinations directly produces the pollen tube of angiosperms?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 11 of 200

The advantages of the reduced gametophytes in seed plants include ________.

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 12 of 200

The advantages of seeds, compared to spores, include ________.

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 13 of 200

Unlike almost all ferns, seed plants ________.

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 14 of 200

One day, you go outside and see that the cars on the street are covered in a yellow "dust." Which of the following statements can be correctly applied to this "dust"?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 15 of 200

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 16 of 200

What do fungi and arthropods have in common?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 17 of 200

Fungi have an extremely high surface-to-volume ratio. What is the advantage of this characteristic to an organism that gets most of its nutrition through absorption?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 18 of 200

If all fungi in an environment that perform decomposition were to suddenly die, then which group of organisms should benefit most, due to the fact that their fungal competitors have been removed?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 19 of 200

When a mycelium infiltrates an unexploited source of dead organic matter, what are most likely to appear within the food source soon thereafter?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 20 of 200

A fungal spore germinates, giving rise to a mycelium that grows outward into the soil surrounding the site where the spore originally landed. Which of the following accounts for the fungal movement, as described here?

Select one of the following: