Melissa ALfaro
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AORN Periop101 Quiz on Post-test part 2, created by Melissa ALfaro on 28/02/2018.

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Melissa ALfaro
Created by Melissa ALfaro about 6 years ago
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Post-test part 2

Question 1 of 82

1

When working with electrical equipment, the perioperative nurse must:

Select one or more of the following:

  • ensure that the active electrocautery is switched on

  • ensure that warming therapy devices are used at appropriate settings

  • ensure that users are educated in the safe use of all electrical equipment

  • never place the hose of a patient warmer directly under the patient's blanket

  • ensure that the laser electrodes are discharged after each use

Explanation

Question 2 of 82

1

Chlorhexadine gluconate (CHG) is an antimicrobial skin agent used

Select one of the following:

  • above the neck.

  • for topical skin application only below the neck

  • for vaginal or mucous membrane preps

  • in the brain or meninges.

Explanation

Question 3 of 82

1

agents are effective in removing resident microorganisms.

Drag and drop to complete the text.

    mechanical
    chemical
    biochemical
    hydrostatic

Explanation

Question 4 of 82

1

Which of the following are desired characteristics of antimicrobial agents?

Select one or more of the following:

  • broad spectrum

  • high log reduction capability

  • effective for long periods of time

  • high toxicity

  • low toxicity

Explanation

Question 5 of 82

1

Which of the following statements is correct regarding hair removal from a surgical patient?

Select one of the following:

  • Hair should be removed from the surgical site before any procedure.

  • Hair should be removed from the surgical site by using clippers or razors

  • Hair should be removed from the surgical site only when the hair is so thick it will interfere with the procedure

  • All of the above

Explanation

Question 6 of 82

1

What does AORN's Guidelines for Preoperative Patient Skin Antisepsis recommend for prepping areas with high microbial counts ?

Select one of the following:

  • Prep them first

  • Prep them last

  • Prep them during the procedure

  • Prep them whenever necessary

Explanation

Question 7 of 82

1

Which of the following should be avoided during hair removal?

Select one of the following:

  • Use of clippers

  • Clipping of hair against the grain of hair growth

  • Nicking or cutting the skin

  • Removal of loose hair from prepped areas

Explanation

Question 8 of 82

1

Which of the following observations are critical when doing skin antisepsis on pediatric patients?

Select one of the following:

  • Take measures to prevent the loss of body heat

  • The relatively small bodies of pediatric patients require smaller amounts of antimicrobial agents

  • children are not sensitive to chemical agents

  • the whole body must be prepped irrespective of the operative site

Explanation

Question 9 of 82

1

Which actions should be perioperative nurse take in prepping an extremity when a tourniquet is used?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Drape the tourniquet with a cloth towel to keep solution from going under the tourniquet

  • Start prepping at the level of the tourniquet

  • Start the prep at the incision site and extend both distally and proximally to include the entire extremity

  • use an assistive device to support the extremity during the prep

  • use an impervious drape to protect the tourniquet

Explanation

Question 10 of 82

1

Which of the following statements are true about iodophor paints and iodophor scrubs?

Select one or more of the following:

  • A paint has a detergent additive, a scrub does not

  • a scrub has a detergent additive a paint does not

  • a scrub is followed by a paint in a two-step prep

  • a pain is following by a scrub in a two-step prep

Explanation

Question 11 of 82

1

Perioperative nursing documentation of the skin prep procedure should include which of the following components?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Antiseptic agent used

  • area prepped

  • hair removal if needed

  • name of person holding the limb if applicable

  • name of the person performing the prep

  • placement of blotting towels

  • preoperative assessment of the skin at operative site.

Explanation

Question 12 of 82

1

Components of the electrosurgical circuit include:

Select one of the following:

  • Active electrode, dispersive electrode, generator

  • dispersive electrode, fiber, generator

  • active electrode, dispersive electrode, generator, scratch pad

  • dispersive electrode, fiber, generator, key.

Explanation

Question 13 of 82

1

To reduce the possibility of an injury or burn, which of the following most accurately describes where the perioperative RN should place the dispersive electrode?

Select one of the following:

  • As far from the operative site as feasible

  • directly on the operative site

  • as close to the operative site as possible

  • anywhere it will be easy to access

Explanation

Question 14 of 82

1

Which statement best describes the path for bipolar surgical current?

Select one of the following:

  • Current leaves the generator, is applied to tissue using a pencil device, is collected in the dispersive pad, and returns to the generator

  • Current leaves the generator, is applied to tissue using a pencil device and returns to the generator

  • Current leaves the generator is applied to tissue using a two-poled instrument and returns to the generator

Explanation

Question 15 of 82

1

If the surgeon continuously asks for higher power settings, what is the first action that the perioperative RN should take?

Select one of the following:

  • Get another ESU unit immediately

  • Check the circuitry for possible disruption

  • Switch to a bipolar generator and electrode

  • Change the active electrode and dispersive electrode

Explanation

Question 16 of 82

1

Alternate pathway burns can occur because of improper placement of the dispersive electrode. The dispersive electrode should not be applied on which of the following

Select one or more of the following:

  • Hairy skin surfaces

  • Burn tissue

  • Tattoo sites

  • Well-perfused muscle

  • Areas proximal to tourniquet application

  • Bony prominences

Explanation

Question 17 of 82

1

When using argon-enhanced coagulation (AEC) there is a risk of

Select one of the following:

  • electrosurgical injuries

  • carbon dioxide purge

  • gas emboli

  • decreased insufflator pressure

Explanation

Question 18 of 82

1

The term local exhaust ventilation (LEV) is used to describe the process of evacuation smoke from the surgical site. Which of the following are considered LEV?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Central suction system with 0.1 micrometer in-line filter

  • Central suction system with HEPA in-line filter

  • High filtration surgical masks

  • N95 respirators

  • Smoke evacuator unit

Explanation

Question 19 of 82

1

Which precautions should be taken for a patient who has an implantable electronic device (IED)?

Select one or more of the following:

  • All team members should be informed about the IED

  • Insist that the surgeon use bipolar current instead of monopolar current

  • There should be continuous EKG monitoring

  • The active and dispersive electrode should be located as close together as possible.

Explanation

Question 20 of 82

1

According to the AORN Guideline for Safe Use of Energy-Generating Devices, which of the following are recommended components of documentation when using an ESU?

Select one or more of the following:

  • ESU brand name

  • Name of the person applying the dispersive pad

  • patient's skin condition after removing the dispersive pad

  • patient's skin condition before applying the dispersive pad

  • serial number or biomedical number of the ESU

  • use of a safety holster

Explanation

Question 21 of 82

1

During laparoscopic surgery, perioperative RNs can reduce the chances of capacitive-coupling injuries by:

Select one of the following:

  • using a combination of insulated and noninsulated instruments

  • using coagulation waveform and a high setting

  • using metal and plastic cannulas together

  • using the lowest power setting and the low-voltage cutting waveform

Explanation

Question 22 of 82

1

The purposes of performing a surgical hand scrub include

Select one or more of the following:

  • To accomplish personal hygiene

  • to kill the microorganisms

  • to reduce the resident microbial count to a minimum

  • to inhibit rapid rebound growth of microorganisms

  • to remove soil, debris and transient organisms

Explanation

Question 23 of 82

1

After the surgical hand scrub, the scrub person should keep the fingers pointed in which direction to allow water to drip off away from the attire?

Select one of the following:

  • downwards

  • upwards

  • straight

  • curled towards the palm

Explanation

Question 24 of 82

1

3. What actions can the RN circulator take to assist the scrub personnel during gowning?

Select one or more of the following:

  • touch only the ties, Velcro, or snaps to secure the back of the gown at the neck and the waist

  • Don the sterile gloves before fastening the gown to prevent contamination from the gown flaps

  • Grasp the tie 4 to 6 inches from the tag and pull

  • Adjust the gown by grasping the bottom edge and pulling down to eliminate any blousing

Explanation

Question 25 of 82

1

Because skin is a major source of contamination in the surgical environment, which of the following statements is true?

Select one of the following:

  • hand hygiene is only necessary before providing care to a patient

  • hand hygiene should be considered effective only if you are using an antimicrobial solution

  • hand lotions with petroleum as an ingredient are acceptable for use with gloves

  • health care personnel who have cuts on their hands should not provide direct patient care.

Explanation

Question 26 of 82

1

You have just finished a surgical procedure and are removing your gown and gloves. place steps in order:

1.
2. a glove-to-glove and skin-to-skin technique
3. pull the gown from the shoulders and off the arms
4. to the inside, roll it up, and discard it.

Drag and drop to complete the text.

    wash hands with soap and water
    remove and discard the gloves using
    downward
    fold the contaminated side of gown

Explanation

Question 27 of 82

1

Which of the following statements are correct?

Select one or more of the following:

  • the closed glove method is used for subsequent gloving

  • the open glove method is used for the initial donning of sterile gown and gloves

  • the open method is used for subsequent gloving

  • the open glove method is used while performing sterile procedures when a gown is not worn.

Explanation

Question 28 of 82

1

The surgical hand scrub controls resident microorganisms by:

Select one of the following:

  • the mechanical action of scrubbing

  • the chemical action of microbial agents used

  • the temperature of the water combined with chemical action

  • none of the above

Explanation

Question 29 of 82

1

Which of the following statements are true in relation to scrubbing for the first procedure of the day:

Select one or more of the following:

  • clean under your fingernails using a brush

  • consider your hands and arms as two dimensional to ensure covering all aspects

  • First, wash your hands under running water with soap

  • Use an approved antimicrobial scrub agent on wet hands and arms

Explanation

Question 30 of 82

1

Where should the scrub persons sterile gown be opened?

Select one of the following:

  • as far away from the instrument tray as possible

  • in the back corner of the instrument table

  • on a separate mayo stand

  • on top of the gloves for the scrub person

Explanation

Question 31 of 82

1

Correct surgical attire for the restricted areas include:

Select one or more of the following:

  • facility identification on a lanyard

  • head covering that covers all hair

  • long-sleeved jacket with the sleeves pushed up

  • scrub top tucked into scrub pants and a warm up jacket

  • a lab coat when leaving the department

Explanation

Question 32 of 82

1

To ensure proper handling of surgical specimens, which unique identifiers are most important for the perioperative nurse to use to verify the patient's identity before the patient enters the OR?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Lab test to be performed

  • Patient's MRN

  • Patient's medical diagnosis

  • Spelling of the patient's name

  • Surgeon's name

Explanation

Question 33 of 82

1

Which of following are recommended guidelines for preserving a bullet collected as forensic evidence

Select one or more of the following:

  • Do not drop bullet into metal basin or bowl

  • Rinse the bullet with saline or water if requested by local authorites

  • Handle as little as possible

  • Remove the specimen with hard steel forceps

  • Wrap the bullet in cotton or tissue paper and mark the specimen

Explanation

Question 34 of 82

1

What is the rationale for wearing gloves when handling or transporting surgical specimens?

Select one of the following:

  • to avoid exposure to biohazardous substances

  • to avoid imprints on the specimen

  • to prevent contamination of the specimen

  • to prevent misdiagnosis

Explanation

Question 35 of 82

1

Biopsies that require specialized methods of preparation and preservation to preserve the cells include:

Select one or more of the following:

  • bone marrow

  • muscle

  • nerves

  • testicular

  • tendon

Explanation

Question 36 of 82

1

Proper handling of an explant removed because of an apparent defect or failure includes

Select one or more of the following:

  • copmleting a risk management report

  • decontamination and sterilization before transport to the pathology lab

  • documentation of the serial number in the medical record and on the pathology requisition

  • placing the explant in a container with a formalin for transport to the pathology lab.

Explanation

Question 37 of 82

1

Which of the following actions should the scrub person perform for most specimens after receiving them from the surgeon?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Hand it off the field to the RN circulator on a radiopaque sponge

  • Keep it in a sterile basin until it can be passed to the RN circulator

  • Keep it moist with saline

  • Use a sponge to remove a very small specimen from a foreceps

Explanation

Question 38 of 82

1

Surgical tissue banking is:

Select one of the following:

  • The retrieval, processing, preserving and storing of selected human tissue for later transplantation back into the patient into another patient

  • The retrieval and storing of selected human tissue for later transplantation into another patient

  • The preserving and storing of selected human tissue for later transplantation back into the patient or into another patient.

  • The retrieval, preserving and storing of human tissue for later transplantation back into the patient

Explanation

Question 39 of 82

1

Which pathology specimens require fresh preparation and the use of sterile container?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Breast tissue for hormonal assay

  • Bullets

  • cerebral spinal fluid

  • semen for infertility studies

  • undergarments

Explanation

Question 40 of 82

1

The communicates identifying characteristics to the scrub person and the circulator.
The is concerned with diagnosis, speed of recovery, psychosocial concerns.
The is sensitive to the scrub person's needs and to actions that facilitate accurate specimen management.
The ensures accurate identification of the specimen by having a sterile marking pen to write location and type of tissue

Drag and drop to complete the text.

    surgeon
    patient
    Circulator
    scrub person

Explanation

Question 41 of 82

1

Which of the following forensic specimens should be placed in a paper envelope, labeled and sealed?

Select one or more of the following:

  • gastric contents

  • finger nails

  • pellets

  • carpet remains

  • knives

Explanation

Question 42 of 82

1

In which surgical wound category should a total abdominal hysterectomy be classified?

Select one of the following:

  • clean

  • clean contaminated

  • contaminated

  • dirty

Explanation

Question 43 of 82

1

is the use of physical or chemical means to remove, inactivate, or destroy blood-borne or other pathogens on a surface or item.
is the process of destroying all microorganisms on a substance by exposure to physical and chemical agents; the complete elimination of all forms of microorganisms.
is a process that destroys all microorganisms (vegetative forms of bacteria, all fungi, all viruses) with the exception of high numbers of bacterial spores.
is a chemical or physical process of destroying all pathogenic microorganisms, except spores, on inanimate objects.

Drag and drop to complete the text.

    Decontamination
    sterilization
    High level disinfection
    Disinfection

Explanation

Question 44 of 82

1

Immediate use steam sterilization can be used:

Select one of the following:

  • for implants

  • in urgent situations

  • under no circumstances

  • for all items

Explanation

Question 45 of 82

1

A packaging system for items undergoing sterilization should possess which of the following characteristics?

Select one of the following:

  • Compatible with all sterilization processes

  • made of only disposable materials

  • maintains sterility of the items for a specified amount of time

  • permits aseptic delivery of contents to the sterile field.

Explanation

Question 46 of 82

1

Complete sterilization in ethylene oxide is dependent upon four primary variables: proper time, gas concentration, temperature, and:

Select one of the following:

  • proper packaging

  • aeration

  • chamber humidity

  • pressure

Explanation

Question 47 of 82

1

Which of the following statements about ethylene oxide (EO) sterilization is true?

Select one of the following:

  • EO exposure is potentially carcinogenic and mutagenic to personnel and patients.

  • it cannot be used for heat-sensitive items.

  • it is effective against prions.

  • items processed by EO sterilization may be used immediately

Explanation

Question 48 of 82

1

The use of peracetic acid on surgical items requires the following considerations:

Select one of the following:

  • items can be stored for future use

  • items must be aerated

  • items can withstand high temperatures

  • items must be isolated for 7 days

  • items must be immersible

Explanation

Question 49 of 82

1

An integrator is a multiparameter indicator designed to measure which of the following parameters?

Select one of the following:

  • Pressure, steam, temperature

  • Temperature, time, presence of steam

  • Pressure and sterility

Explanation

Question 50 of 82

1

Low temperature gas plasma hydrogen peroxide sterilization has which of the following properties?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Accommodates lumened instruments

  • Exhaust monitoring is required

  • Items can be used for future use

  • No toxic residue

  • The sterilant is bactericidal, virucidal and fungucidal

  • Useful for items that are heat sensitive

Explanation

Question 51 of 82

1

Shelf life is related to:

Select one or more of the following:

  • Exposure to external events

  • methods of sterilization

  • material

  • number of personnel who may have handled the package

  • time from initial sterilization

Explanation

Question 52 of 82

1

When selecting drapes to create a sterile field for the patient, which of the folloiwng drape qualities are most essential to maintaining the sterile field?

Select one of the following:

  • barrier protection

  • cost/benefit ratio

  • limitation of environmental impact

  • flexibility and flammability

Explanation

Question 53 of 82

1

ID the correct draping considerations

Select one or more of the following:

  • Drape from a sterile area to an unsterile area by draping the nearest first

  • Start draping from the periphery to the operating site.

  • Ensure that surgical drapes are applied after prepping solutions have dried.

  • After a drape is placed, it can be moved if necessary.

  • When draping the opposite side, the scrubbed person should walk around the OR bed to drape.

Explanation

Question 54 of 82

1

What precautions should a scrub person take during the draping procedure?

Select one or more of the following:

  • NEver cuff the drapes over a gloved hand

  • be careful not to contaminate gown when placing drapes

  • never reach across an unsterile area to drape

  • use perforating towel clips.

Explanation

Question 55 of 82

1

Draping the patient involves:

Select one of the following:

  • covering the patient with the sterile barrier

  • Covering the patient and the surrounding areas with a sterile barrier

  • covering the patient and the surrounding areas with sterile materials to create and maintain a barrier between nonsterile and sterile areas

  • covering the patient, the surrounding areas, and the instruments with a sterile barrier.

Explanation

Question 56 of 82

1

is used as added protection above or below the surgical areas or when a fenestrated sheet cannot be used.
is used when draping an extremity to permit the extremity to remain a part of the sterile field.
is used to cover surgical site on abdomen and back
is used to outline the surgical site
is used to create a sterile field with the patient in the lithotomy position

Drag and drop to complete the text.

    medium sheet
    extremity sheet
    laparotomy sheet
    towels
    lithotomy sheet

Explanation

Question 57 of 82

1

Choose the correct statements about incise drapes:

Select one or more of the following:

  • are a type of fenestrated sheet

  • are available with or without adhesive backing

  • are made up of plastic and impermeable material

  • may be used in eye or ear procedures

  • may be impregnated with iodophor

Explanation

Question 58 of 82

1

An drape is used for carpal tunnel surgery
A drape is used for vaginal hysterectomy
An drape is used for tympanoplasty
A drape is used for umbilical hernia repair

Drag and drop to complete the text.

    extremity
    perineal
    aperture
    laparotomy

Explanation

Question 59 of 82

1

AORN recommends that the following factors be considered when selecting drape products:

Select one or more of the following:

  • Amount of irrigation fluid that is anticipated

  • anticipated blood loss

  • duration of procedure

  • potential for linting

  • surgeon preference

Explanation

Question 60 of 82

1

A designation of "4-0" on a suture package indicates the suture material's

Select one of the following:

  • diameter

  • elasticity

  • pliability

  • strength

Explanation

Question 61 of 82

1

is the capacity of a suture to regain former shape after being reformed.
is the ability to regain original form and length after being stretched.
is, when knotted, the force in pounds that suture can withstand before it breaks
is the ability to soak up fluid along a strand

Drag and drop to complete the text.

    memory
    elasticity
    knot tensile strength
    capillarity

Explanation

Question 62 of 82

1

Which type of staplers are used in the alimentary tract in thoracic procedures?

Select one of the following:

  • Linear staplers

  • Intraluminal circular staplers

  • skin staplers

  • ligating and dividing staplers

Explanation

Question 63 of 82

1

This suture is used for opthalmic procedures.

Select one of the following:

  • plain catgut

  • collagen suture

  • surgical silk

  • surgical stainless steel

Explanation

Question 64 of 82

1

This suture is used in the serosa of the GI tract.

Select one of the following:

  • surgical silk

  • surgical stainless steel

  • plain catgut

Explanation

Question 65 of 82

1

This suture is used in the respiratory tract, orthopedics and neurosurgery.

Select one of the following:

  • Surgical Silk

  • Surgical stainless steel

  • Collagen suture

  • Plain Catgut

Explanation

Question 66 of 82

1

used to ligate small vessels and suture subcutaneous fat

Select one of the following:

  • surgical silk

  • collagen suture

  • plain catgut

  • stainless steel

Explanation

Question 67 of 82

1

Fill the blank space to complete the text.

needle points are for penetrating tough tissues.

Explanation

Question 68 of 82

1

The body's reaction to suture material starts .

Drag and drop to complete the text.

    at the time of insertion.
    weeks after the suture insertion
    days after the suture insertion
    months after suture insertion

Explanation

Question 69 of 82

1

Which of the following are natural absorbable suture materials?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Chromic catgut

  • Polyglactin 910

  • Collagen

  • Polyglyconate

Explanation

Question 70 of 82

1

Select the suture material below that is synthetic absorbable suture:

Select one of the following:

  • surgical cotton

  • surgical silk

  • polyglycolic acid

  • linen

Explanation

Question 71 of 82

1

Which of the following skin closure products involve the use of liquid polymers?

Select one of the following:

  • skin clips

  • skin closure dressings

  • skin adhesives

  • skin closure strips

Explanation

Question 72 of 82

1

Select the features and benefits of using a French-eye/split-eye needle.

Select one or more of the following:

  • Can be used with any type of suture material

  • diameter of the needle should match the type of suture used.

  • Easy to thread

  • Eye has a variety of shapes

Explanation

Question 73 of 82

1

During which phase of wound healing does contraction occur?

Select one of the following:

  • Epithelialization

  • Inflammation

  • proliferation

  • Remodeling

Explanation

Question 74 of 82

1

Identify the proper sequence of events in the body's defense mechanism

Select one of the following:

  • cleaning up the pathogens -> repairing deeper tissue damage -> hemostasis -> wound sealing

  • wound sealing -> cleaning up the pathogens -> repairing deeper tissue damage -> hemostasis

  • hemostasis -> cleaning up pathogens -> regeneration of epidermal covering -> repairing deeper tissue damage

  • hemostasis -> cleaning up the pathogens -> wound sealing -> regeneration of epidermal covering

Explanation

Question 75 of 82

1

At what point in the healing process do most wound disruptions occur?

Select one of the following:

  • Beginning of proliferative phase: (Phase 2) 2 to 10 days

  • End of proliferative phase: (Phase 2) 10-22 days

  • Beginning of maturation phase (Phase 3) 21 days to 6 weeks

  • End of maturation phase (Phase 3) 6 weeks to 2 years

Explanation

Question 76 of 82

1

Colon resection would be classified as a wound.
Open or fresh traumatic wound would be classified as a wound.
Ruptured appendix would be classified as a wound.
Thyroidectomy would be classified as a wound.

Drag and drop to complete the text.

    clean contaminated
    contaminated
    septic
    clean

Explanation

Question 77 of 82

1

Prolonged high dosages of steroids preoperatively delay

Select one of the following:

  • hemoglobin formation

  • bile production

  • insulin production

  • collagen formation

Explanation

Question 78 of 82

1

The CDC's classification of Surgical Wounds system is intended to

Select one of the following:

  • categorize surgical wounds based on coexisting diseases and according to origin, diagnosis and treatment

  • elaborate on the CDCs principles of universal precautions by establishing guidelines for treating infections should they occur

  • suggest emergency criteria for dealing with infections inside the procedure room

  • monitor postoperative infections and suggest steps to take to reduce these infections

Explanation

Question 79 of 82

1

Select the intraoperative factors that negatively affect wound healing.

Select one or more of the following:

  • A surgical complication

  • Failure to eliminate dead space when closing the incision

  • Implantation of orthopedic hardware

  • surgical incisions in an areas of high mobility

  • surgical incisions in highly vascular areas

  • use of xray during the procedure

Explanation

Question 80 of 82

1

Match the topical hemostatic method with the appropriate method of action.
Passive -
Flowables -
Fibrin sealants -
Active -

Drag and drop to complete the text.

    provide a barrier
    enhanced clotting
    mechanically obstruct flow
    increase amount of fibrinogen

Explanation

Question 81 of 82

1

Methods of producing hemostasis include which of the following?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Administering blood

  • Applying pressure

  • Using electrocautery

  • Irrigating with large amounts of sterile saline

  • Using an antiseptic solution containing alcohol

  • Using topical hemostatic agents.

Explanation

Question 82 of 82

1

The process of digestion of pathogens by neutrophils and macrophages is known as

Select one of the following:

  • Epithelialization

  • hemostasis

  • Edema formation

  • phagocytosis

  • proliferation

Explanation