Honours Clinical Assessment Final Exam Review

Question 1 of 215

1

What contribution did Plato have on a science epistemology?

Select one of the following:

Knowledge is justified
A priori/posteri analytic/synthetic
moral epistemology
Theory of forms

Explanation

Question 2 of 215

1

Who were the logical positivists?

Select one of the following:

Arcesilaus, Carneades, Cicero
Popper, Kuhn, Heidegger, Hempel
Plato, Socrates, Aristotle
Carnap, Schlick, Ayer, Hempel

Explanation

Question 3 of 215

1

What was the philosophical backbone of logical positivism?

Select one of the following:

Kantian thought and socialism
Truth and knowledge need not be meaningful or verifiable as long as it is logical
Truth and knowledge must be meaningful and verifiable
Reaction against metaphysics

Explanation

Question 4 of 215

1

What lead to the decline of logical positivism?

Select one of the following:

Metaphysical philosophy was regaining public support
Scientific laws were considered unverifiable
No valid deductive logic
True moral statements were verifiable, which lead to public outrage

Explanation

Question 5 of 215

1

What was Popper's argument against convention?

Select one of the following:

All possible theories can be tested in all possible means
Knowledge is certain given sufficient evidence
Belief can be objective
Knowledge is never certain

Explanation

Question 6 of 215

1

What was Popper's proposed alternative to conventional epistemology?

Select one of the following:

Test all theories in all possible tests
Falsification
'Post hoc query'
Verisimilitude - consider all knowledge uncertain

Explanation

Question 7 of 215

1

What is the dynanism and growth of scientific knowledge formula?

Select one of the following:

P1->TS1->EE->P2
P2->TS1->P1->EE
TS1->P1->EE->TS2
P1->EE->TS1->P2

Explanation

Question 8 of 215

1

Who were major figures in the science of decision making?

Select one of the following:

Kahneman and Tversky
Tsversky and Loftus
Rest and Kahneman
Franklin and Loftus

Explanation

Question 9 of 215

1

What were Kahneman and Tversky's conclusions concerning human decision making?

Select one of the following:

humans commit more errors than they realize
Heuristics prevent decision making errors
Errors in judgement are the result of poor intelligence of lack of expertise
Errors are less likely under uncertain conditions (less opportunity for bias)

Explanation

Question 10 of 215

1

Do basketball players get hot hands?

Select one of the following:

No, they're delusional
No, their wins and losses proceed randomly despite their feelings on the matter
Yes, 'hot hands' refers to 'being in the zone' and players certainly experience that phenomenon
Yes, because their hands get sweaty (what kind of question is this?)

Explanation

Question 11 of 215

1

What does Garb say about anecdotal evidence and romanticisation of clinical psychology?

Select one of the following:

Validity of case formulations are poor.
Causal judgements are often made by the clinician. These are often accurate.
Unstructured interviews are often more successful than structured interview.
Validity of case formulations are poor due to heuristics only.

Explanation

Question 12 of 215

1

What should be the stages of clinical practice according to Garb?

Select one of the following:

a) description, b) diagnosis, c) case formulation, d) prediction, e) decision making
a) description, b) case formulation, c) diagnosis, d) prediction, e) decision making
a) description, b) decision making, c) case formulation, d) diagnosis, e) prediction
a) case formulation, b) description, c) diagnosis), d) prediction, e) decision making

Explanation

Question 13 of 215

1

Military records suggest ___% WW1 veterans receiving PTSD compensation are pretenders.

Select one of the following:

50
25
75
80

Explanation

Question 14 of 215

1

When is interrater reliability for the DSM-3 agreeable?

Select one of the following:

When semi-structured interviews are used.
When unstructured interviews are used.
When the DSM-3 criteria is adhered to.
When the raters know each other.

Explanation

Question 15 of 215

1

What is the anchoring heuristic?

Select one of the following:

When you rely too heavily on an initial piece of information and it biases subsequent responses.
Like a framing effect, you incorrectly judge two similar or dissimilar statements to solve an issue.
Your preconceived notion of the task/information biases it regardless of the information provided to you.
A stereotype is presented in the information which makes it difficult to judge prototypical information.

Explanation

Question 16 of 215

1

Loftus's first study (1975) was conducted in relation to Nixon's first visit to China and Russia. Subjects estimated a prediction of the actual outcome. 3/4rds estimated the initial prediction as higher. Why did this happen?

Select one of the following:

The event was easy to predict.
Hindsight bias.
Anchoring bias.
Heuristic bias.

Explanation

Question 17 of 215

1

Loftus's "lost in the mall" technique provided subjects with short narratives describing childhood events. The "lost in the mall" memory was false. What percentage of participants incorrectly 'remembered' the event?

Select one of the following:

5
15
25
35

Explanation

Question 18 of 215

1

Define epistemology.

Select one of the following:

Theory of knowledge, especially with regard to its methods, validity, scope, and distinction between justified belief and opinion.
Theory of knowledge, especially with regards to its proponents, validity, and scope.
Theory of knowledge, especially with regards to its validity, scope, and regard to objectivity. Belief or opinion is irrelevant.
Theory of knowledge. This includes proponents, validity, scope, differences between justified belief, opinion, including what happens to be in the public conscience at the time. Is flexible and prone to alteration due to social changes.

Explanation

Question 19 of 215

1

What is fact?

Select one of the following:

A fact is a hypothesis subject to change.
A theory subject to change.
A working hypothesis, not subject to change.
A fact is not prone to error.

Explanation

Question 20 of 215

1

How can cognitive and memory biases impact psychological practice? Choose best example.

Select one of the following:

Cognitive laziness leads to error proneness.
Representativeness heuristic - biological disorders will be treated without biological treatments.
Confirmation bias - clinicians search for information to confirm not discomfirm personal theories or preconceptions.
Hindsight bias - clinicians feel like they know the cause and history of a disorder, yet remain open to alternatives.

Explanation

Question 21 of 215

1

What is the most valid criticism of the science practitioner model?

Select one of the following:

The science practitioner model is still young, and is therefore unreliable. There isn't a stable literature on the subject.
Practitioners don't research, or don't always use research effectively in their practice. The model is idealistic.
The science practitioner model discourages clinicians from pursuing their passions by forcing research aptitude into them.
Training clinicians in scientific theory and methods is a waste of time since clinical work has the primary goal of helping others and research is thus irrelevant.

Explanation

Question 22 of 215

1

When was the Boulder Conference?

Select one of the following:

1949
1950
1948
1947

Explanation

Question 23 of 215

1

After Shakow's recommendations to the New York Psychiatric Institute were accepted and were forwarded to the AAAP, what happened?

Select one of the following:

There was the Penn State conference, where the institute on professional training for clinical psychologists met.
There was the Boulder conference, where the institute on professional training for clinical psychologists met.
There was the AAAP conference, where the institute on professional training for clinical psychologists met.
There was the APA conference, where the institute on professional training for clinical psychologists met.

Explanation

Question 24 of 215

1

What was the result of the Boulder conference?

Select one of the following:

70 resolutions agreed upon from 15 agenda issues to discuss.
60 resolutions agreed upon from 12 agenda issues to discuss.
80 resolutions agreed upon from 20 agenda issues to discuss.
50 resolutions agreed upon from 15 agenda issues to discuss.

Explanation

Question 25 of 215

1

What was one of the major historical influences leading to the Boulder conference?

Select one of the following:

The asylum hygiene movement.
The psychological toll on WWI and WWII veterans, and the US government's attempt to address the psychological need of veterans.
Mental asylums were overcrowded. They were becoming "warehouses for lost humanity".
Psychiatrists could not manage the large number of patients with psychological complaints.

Explanation

Question 26 of 215

1

When did federal legislation end "lunatic asylum"'s reign as America's solution to the mentally ill?

Select one of the following:

The late 1900's.
The late 1800's.
The late 1700's.
The late 1600's.

Explanation

Question 27 of 215

1

What was John Locke's legacy in British Empiricism?

Select one of the following:

Tabula rasa - that knowledge was acquired by experience
Intellect, sensibilities, and will.
The Just Noticeable Difference (JND).
Two sources of acquiring knowledge: sensation and perception.

Explanation

Question 28 of 215

1

What was Thomus Upham's contribution to empicisism?

Select one of the following:

He authored the first textbook, and suggested three realms of mental faculty: intellect, sensibilities, and will.
Suggested knowledge is acquired by experience. Also wrote a textbook on the topic.
Claimed that one can learn about the mind by observing the senses.
Noted that the relationship between stimulus properties and perception is logarithmic.

Explanation

Question 29 of 215

1

What was Ernst Weber's legacy? Choose the best answer.

Select one of the following:

Weber-Fechner law - including The Just Noticeable Difference (JND)
The Just Noticeable Difference (JND)
Demonstrating that the JND is a non linear function of stimulus magnitude
That perception could be quantified.

Explanation

Question 30 of 215

1

What role did Fechner play in psychophysics?

Select one of the following:

Demonstrated the relationship between stimulus properties and perception is logarithmic, adding to the JND.
Demonstrated the relationship between stimulus properties and perception is linear, adding to the JND.
Demonstrated the relationship between stimulus properties and perception is hyperbolic, adding to the JND.
Demonstrated the relationship between stimulus properties and perception is the inverse of perceived magnitude, adding to the JND.

Explanation

Question 31 of 215

1

The earliest reference to the brain as the seat of the mind was...

Select one of the following:

The Edwin Smith Surgical Papyrus
Hippocrates
Middle Ages
Ancient China

Explanation

Question 32 of 215

1

What was the Edwin Smith Surgical Papyrus?

Select one of the following:

An ancient egyptian surgical manual documenting 48 wartime cases of head lesion, including the induction of seizure by "palpate his wound" - the wound being on the brain.
An ancient egyptian surgical manual documenting 5 cases of brain tumor, including the removal of said tumor. "Shouldst thou find something disturbing therin under thy fingers"...
An ancient egyptian surgical manual documenting 15 cases of seizure after manual palpation of the brain tissue.
An ancient egyptian surgical manual documenting 35 wartime cases of head lesion, and how to disinfect and manage the wounds.

Explanation

Question 33 of 215

1

The deinstitutionalisation marking the release of 100,000 asylum patients was triggered by...

Select one of the following:

The Community Mental Health Centers Act of 1963, signed by President John Kennedy.
The renaming of the Medical Superintendents of American Institutions for the Insane to the American Psychiatric Association.
The superintendents (head of asylums) were given the role of psychiatrist.
The growth of over 300 mental asylums by the 1960's.

Explanation

Question 34 of 215

1

Psychiatrists "reinvented" themselves by the 1920s with treatments like...

Select one of the following:

Shock treatments.
Frontal lobotomies for managing "difficult cases".
Psychiatric drugs.
Counselling.

Explanation

Question 35 of 215

1

Which surgeon worked on the case of Loborgne ('Tan'), who had a 21 year history of progressive speech loss?

Select one of the following:

Paul Broca
Eduard Hitzig
Korbinian Brodmann
Gustav Fritsch

Explanation

Question 36 of 215

1

Who was the psychiatrist who applied an electrical current to the motor cortex of a dog, who was standing on their appartment's kitchen table?

Select one of the following:

Gustav Fritsch
Eduard Hitzig
Korbinian Brodmann
Paul Broca

Explanation

Question 37 of 215

1

What was Santiago Ramon y Cajal's contribution to neuroscience/psychology? Choose best answer.

Select one of the following:

Documented the famous case of 'Tan', a man with a 21 year history of progressive speech loss.
Made anatomically precise drawings of different types of neurons in the brain.
Identified many brain regions, including the various visual cortices.
Identified the motor cortex by applying an electrical current to a dog in his appartment.

Explanation

Question 38 of 215

1

Who was Wilhelm Wundt?

Select one of the following:

A professor of philosophy at the University of Leipzig who started the first psychological laboratory in 1879.
The first to show experimental methods could apply to higher order cognition.
Founded the first psychological laboratory as John Hopkins, and started the first Psychology department at Clark.
Developed a battery of mental tests.

Explanation

Question 39 of 215

1

Who started the APA?

Select one of the following:

Stanley Hall
James Cattell
Lightner Witmer
Franz Joseph Gall

Explanation

Question 40 of 215

1

Who started the first psychological clinic in 1896?

Select one of the following:

Lightner Witmer
James Cattell
Stanley Hall
Franz J. Gall

Explanation

Question 41 of 215

1

Who developed Phrenology (otherwise known as "If your skull is bumpy in a certain area that correlates to a brain area and so your personality".

Select one of the following:

James Cattell
Franz J. Gall
H. Ebbinhaus
Franz Mesmer

Explanation

Question 42 of 215

1

Who came up with the idea that reaction time was related to mental processing speed?

Select one of the following:

James Cattell
Stanley Hall
William Wundt
Alfred Binet

Explanation

Question 43 of 215

1

The first American scale of Alfred Binet and Theodore Simon's works were published as the "Binet and Simon Tests of Intellectual Capacity" by...

Select one of the following:

Henry Herbert Goddard
Stanley Hall
David Wechsler
Robert Yerkes

Explanation

Question 44 of 215

1

Beers (1908) published a book on his mistreatment (and that of others) in mental asylums and called for reform. Which psychiatrist took notice of his work?

Select one of the following:

Adolf Meyer.
Francis Galton.
Robert Meyer.
Adolf Galton.

Explanation

Question 45 of 215

1

The Emmanuel Movement, concerned with psychologically-based religious healing, was started by whom?

Select one of the following:

Elwood Worcester
Samuel McComb.
Algernon Crapsey.
William James.

Explanation

Question 46 of 215

1

To increase psychological resources, the VA, USPHS, and APA worked together to dramatically increase the rate of PhD clinical psychologists. What success did they have at the end of the first year of their program?

Select one of the following:

VA funded 200 doctoral students at 22 universities.
VA funded more than 1500 students at 50 universities.
VA funded 200 doctoral students at 50 universities.
VA funded more than 1500 students at 22 universities.

Explanation

Question 47 of 215

1

What did David Shakow write his dissertation on? (Also, why is this relevant? I dunno, it's in the notes.)

Select one of the following:

Schizophrenia patients.
Depressive and anxious patients.
Obsessive compulsive patients.
Personality disorders.

Explanation

Question 48 of 215

1

There are three broad types of validity. What are they?

Select one of the following:

Content, Criterion, Construct.
Content, Predictive, Concurrent.
Content, Criterion, Predictive.
Predictive, Concurrent, Construct.

Explanation

Question 49 of 215

1

In Coaley's Taxonomy of Assessment, what are the two major divisions of measurement?

Select one of the following:

Measurement and Non-measurement
Content and Criterion
Validity and Reliability
Interviews and Surveys

Explanation

Question 50 of 215

1

What are the two types of criterion validity?

Select one of the following:

Predictive and concurrent
Construct and content
Concurrent and construct
Predictive and content

Explanation

Question 51 of 215

1

Define criterion validity.

Select one of the following:

Degree to which a test samples the domain and elicits responses in a responsible way.
Correlations between scale scores and other criteria or sources.
The measure agrees with other measures of the same type.
Measures should correlate with those like it, not those dissimilar to it.

Explanation

Question 52 of 215

1

Define content validity.

Select one of the following:

Degree to which a test samples the domain and elicits responses in a responsible way.
Correlations between scale scores and other criteria or sources.
Extent to which variance score reflects variance of actual construct.
Measures should correlate with those similar not dissimilar.

Explanation

Question 53 of 215

1

How should the variance associated with a new given measure be partitioned?

Select one of the following:

a. variance of scores on new test, b. shared variance, c. variance of scores on criterion measure
a. variance of representative sample, b. variance of non representative sample, c. variance of clinical population of interest.
a. within subjects variance, b. between subjects variance, c. error variance
a. variance of criterion, b. variance of measure 1, c. variance of measure 2.

Explanation

Question 54 of 215

1

In Coaley's Taxonomy of Assessment, what is considered "non-measurement"?

Select one of the following:

Interviews, observations
Correct/incorrect item responses
Not using correct/incorrect responses
Tests

Explanation

Question 55 of 215

1

What is a nominal scale?

Select one of the following:

Absolute zero
Distance is meaningful
Attributes can be ordered
Attributes are only named

Explanation

Question 56 of 215

1

What is factorial validity?

Select one of the following:

scores are mixed with scores of other tests, similar and dissimilar, and subject to factor analysis
determines any increase in validity and whether this is significant, when an assessment is added to others
correlations relating to different aspects of the criterion measurement also tend to have different values
tests hypothesized not to be similar are not

Explanation

Question 57 of 215

1

What is the multi-trait multi-method approach?

Select one of the following:

More consistent and elaborate form of convergent-discriminant validity; can be used to demonstrate construct validity
A combination of factorial validity, differential validity, and incremental validity
Using a regression on factors associated with a measure to see what items are associated with more error -> to be removed
Multiple raters perform independent factor analysis on the measure and then a Factor Rater Score is calculated.

Explanation

Question 58 of 215

1

What is discriminant validity?

Select one of the following:

Tests hypothesized not to be similar are not.
Correlations related to different aspects of the criterion measurement also tend to have different values.
used to demonstrate construct validity
Comparing at least 5 other measures that are similar in order to identify bad items

Explanation

Question 59 of 215

1

What is the most robust measure of central tendency?

Select one of the following:

Mean
Mode
Median
SD

Explanation

Question 60 of 215

1

What percentage of scores is encompassed within 1 SD + and - the mean within the normal distribution?

Select one of the following:

68.26
95.44
50.32
82.94

Explanation

Question 61 of 215

1

What is the Blinkhorn Effect?

Select one of the following:

When you cherry pick the best correlations from your data
Missing a vital piece of statistical information because you experienced an inattentional blink
Removing items with weird variance to improve the robustness of your test
Removing bad data points and replacing them with bootstrapped estimates to improve your test

Explanation

Question 62 of 215

1

What are the 'faux friends' of validity?

Select one of the following:

Face validity, faith validity
Face validity, inter rater judgements
Faith validity, inter rater judgements
Face validity, faith validity, inter rater judgements

Explanation

Question 63 of 215

1

What is the Pollyana Effect?

Select one of the following:

Belief of test users in the value of certain assessments and their attitudes towards them
People tend to remember positive items more than negative ones
Heuristics interfere with the measure of a test
When framing effects influence a subject's response on the measure

Explanation

Question 64 of 215

1

Which statement is the most correct?

Select one of the following:

Reliability is possible without validity, but validity is not possible without reliability
Reliability is possible without validity, but validity is possible without reliability
Reliability is not possible without validity, and validity is not possible without reliability
Reliability is not possible without validity, but validity is possible without reliability

Explanation

Question 65 of 215

1

What does Classical Test Theory state about a person's observed score (X)?

Select one of the following:

X = T + e
X = T + we + be + e
X = T + we + e
X = (T + T2)/2 + e

Explanation

Question 66 of 215

1

Which reliability is "consistent across tests"?

Select one of the following:

test-retest reliability
parallel forms reliability
internal consistency
inter-rater reliability

Explanation

Question 67 of 215

1

Which reliability is consistent across time?

Select one of the following:

test-retest reliability
parallel forms reliability
internal consistency
inter-rater reliability

Explanation

Question 68 of 215

1

Which reliability is consistent between items?

Select one of the following:

test-retest reliability
parallel forms reliability
internal consistency
inter-rater reliability

Explanation

Question 69 of 215

1

What is one issue associated with alternate forms reliability?

Select one of the following:

difficult to construct perfectly equivalent tests
equivalence means your test is redundant
inter-judge agreement is never perfect
practice effects

Explanation

Question 70 of 215

1

What is one of the issues associated with test-retest reliability?

Select one of the following:

length of the interval between the two tests
what the subject had for breakfast that morning
not measuring reliability directly
if the test changes then your retest measure is worthless

Explanation

Question 71 of 215

1

What is an example of a measure of internal consistency?

Select one of the following:

Cronbach's alpha
Pearson's r
the variance across items
principal components analysis

Explanation

Question 72 of 215

1

What is an example of a systematic error?

Select one of the following:

scale score is consistently too high or low
the weather on the day of testing is consistently bad
never obtaining the true score
subject's cognitions at the time of testing

Explanation

Question 73 of 215

1

I just got a reliability coefficient for my new scale on Honours Students Neuroticism Causes - it's .5! That's...

Select one of the following:

good!
marginal.
unacceptable.
excellent!

Explanation

Question 74 of 215

1

What is local dependence?

Select one of the following:

If X scores increase on Y then they will on Z.
errors of measurement from 2 unreliable variables correlate significantly
an honours student is dependent on their supervisor for guidance
the test-retest reliability of a test depends on its validity

Explanation

Question 75 of 215

1

Confidence intervals vary as a function of reliability.

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 76 of 215

1

The Parallel Testing Model uses test-retest reliability

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 77 of 215

1

Platonic "true" scores are possible to achieve.

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 78 of 215

1

What is the Domain Sampling Model?

Select one of the following:

average score over infinite testing
average score over three testing sessions
test-retest reliability but using the median instead of the mean
test-retest reliability over multiple testing sessions and checking for changes in possible factors

Explanation

Question 79 of 215

1

What are sources of error variance for the generalisability approach to reliability?

Select one of the following:

Time differences
Content differences across test forms
Content differences within the test
All mentioned.

Explanation

Question 80 of 215

1

The Masculinity/Femininity scale in the MMPI was designed to...

Select one of the following:

detect homosexuality
see to what extent someone embodies feminine/masculine traits
class men/women according to their stereotypical gender roles
detect gender norm deviants

Explanation

Question 81 of 215

1

What was one of Yerkes's roles in the development of intelligence testing?

Select one of the following:

opposed an age-scale approached and favored the point-scale approach
translated the Alfred Binet
came up with the concept of g, the main factor underlying intelligence
first to decide that intelligence was made of both verbal and non-verbal intelligence

Explanation

Question 82 of 215

1

The Army Alpha and Beta intelligence scale was developed by...

Select one of the following:

Robert Yerkes
Arthur Otis
Alfred Binet
David Wechsler

Explanation

Question 83 of 215

1

Who translated the Alfred Binet into the Stanford Binet?

Select one of the following:

Lewis Terman
Robert Yerkes
Arthur Otis
Francis Galton

Explanation

Question 84 of 215

1

Wechsler designed new intelligence tests.

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 85 of 215

1

Galton's original intelligence test failed because...

Select one of the following:

reaction time, keen sight, and squeeze strenght were unrelated to intelligence, but related to motor and perceptual function
early versions of the block test, language comprehension test, and number recall were poorly designed
reaction time was related to intelligence, but only if measured in the millisecond range
it was developed for children and failed to apply to adults

Explanation

Question 86 of 215

1

Which edition of the Stanford Binet adapted Weschler's multiscale multitask format?

Select one of the following:

3rd
4th
2nd
5th

Explanation

Question 87 of 215

1

The Wechsler-Bellevue I intelligence scale (1939) was made for...

Select one of the following:

children or retarded adults
adults only
children only
the elderly

Explanation

Question 88 of 215

1

The verbal concept information construct in the WAIS-IV tests crystallized intelligence.

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 89 of 215

1

The WAIS-IV construct PRI measures...

Select one of the following:

fluid reasoning, spatial processing, visual-motor integration
temporary retention of information, mental manipulation, attention, concentration, mental control
verbal concept formation, verbal reasoning, acquired knowledge, crystallized intelligence
processing speed, scanning, learning

Explanation

Question 90 of 215

1

The WAIS-IV construct WMI measures...

Select one of the following:

verbal concept formation, verbal reasoning, acquired knowledge, crystallized intelligence
fluid reasoning, spatial processing, visual-motor integration
temporary retention of information, mental manipulation, attention, concentration, mental control
processing speed, scanning, learning

Explanation

Question 91 of 215

1

The WAIS-IV construct PSI measures...

Select one of the following:

verbal concept formation, verbal reasoning, acquired knowledge, crystallized intelligence
fluid reasoning, spatial processing, visual-motor integration
temporary retention of information, mental manipulation, attention, concentration, mental control
processing speed, scanning, learning

Explanation

Question 92 of 215

1

What are three different tasks in the VCI construct (WAIS-IV)?

Select one of the following:

Provide concepts that link two words, vocabulary, information (general knowledge)
assemble blocks, visual puzzles, matrix reasoning
arithmetic, symbol search, coding
Raven's matrices, concept linking, arithmetic

Explanation

Question 93 of 215

1

Inter-rater reliability r scores for the Similarities, Vocubulary, Information, and Comprehension subtests for the WAIS-IV are closest to:

Select one of the following:

.90
.80
.70
.60

Explanation

Question 94 of 215

1

When was the NEO inventory started (note: not completed)?

Select one of the following:

1978
1968
1958
1988

Explanation

Question 95 of 215

1

The NEO personality inventory in 1985 had what general structure?

Select one of the following:

6 facets for each NEO, and brief global A+C.
4 facets for each NEO, and brief global A+C.
8 facets for each NEO, and brief global A+C.
5 facets for each NEO, and brief global A+C,

Explanation

Question 96 of 215

1

The NEO-FFI (1989) included norms for...

Select one of the following:

college students and adults
college students and children
college students, children, and adults
children and adults

Explanation

Question 97 of 215

1

The NEO-PI-R (1992) version had norms for...

Select one of the following:

adults only, with those younger only under special circumstances
children only, with those older only for mental retardation
adolescents only
adults and children

Explanation

Question 98 of 215

1

One of the changes to the NEO-PI-R (1992) was...

Select one of the following:

New A and C scales+facets
replacement of 20 NEO items
rewording of 10 NEO items
Addition of 5 new A and C scales and facets

Explanation

Question 99 of 215

1

Scores in the NEO-PI-R are presented as t-scores.

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 100 of 215

1

The NEO-PI-R consists of...

Select one of the following:

240 questions answered on 5-point Likert scale
200 questions answered on 7-point Likert scale
150 questions answered True or False
300 questions answered True or False

Explanation

Question 101 of 215

1

What is one of the main disadvantages of the NEO-PI-R?

Select one of the following:

Does not quantify cognitive abilities or distortions
Does not adequately take into account the A + C constructs
Its validity scales do not work correctly
Norms are not recent

Explanation

Question 102 of 215

1

NEO-PI-R has validity scales.

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 103 of 215

1

Miller (1991) suggested that:

Select one of the following:

there is clinical utility for personality inventories in guiding treatment
there is no clinical utility for personality inventories in guiding treatment
treatment should not be guided by personality scores since they may change throughout the course of treatment
the NEO-PI-R and MMPI could be used in tandem for an accurate clinical picture of a patient

Explanation

Question 104 of 215

1

Singer (2005) suggested that personality inventories were:

Select one of the following:

the first phase for treating a patient
the second phase for treating a patient
innappropriate for use in clinical practice without additional information
is useful for formulating a diagnosis

Explanation

Question 105 of 215

1

In regards to twin studies of intelligence, what is an individuality multiplier?

Select one of the following:

shared environmental factors are masked -> variance attributed to genes
environment differs so variance interpreted as gene changes
changes in intelligence over time due to environment alone
the twin's non-shared traits interact with the environment to produce even greater non shared traits

Explanation

Question 106 of 215

1

In regards to twin studies of intelligence, what is a social multiplier?

Select one of the following:

shared environmental factors are masked -> variance attributed to genes
environment differences interpreted as gene changes
changes in intelligence over time attributed to the environment alone
if a twin has a different social group to their other twin, the social group will encourage the development of traits they value regardless of the twin's values

Explanation

Question 107 of 215

1

Low agreeableness and low conscientiousness is associated with...

Select one of the following:

psychopathy
depression
Machiavellianism
paranoid schizophrenia

Explanation

Question 108 of 215

1

High neuroticism and low extraversion is associated with...

Select one of the following:

depression
paranoid schizophrenia
obsessive compulsive disorder
schizoid personality disorder

Explanation

Question 109 of 215

1

What is g's correlation to working memory?

Select one of the following:

.72
.82
.65
.59

Explanation

Question 110 of 215

1

Neurobiological research supports IQ represented by how many factors?

Select one of the following:

2
3
4
1

Explanation

Question 111 of 215

1

According to Sternberg et al. (1999, 2000) to what degree is practicality (ability to solve concrete problems) and creativity (come up with novel solutions) correlated to IQ?

Select one of the following:

moderately
poorly
highly
not at all

Explanation

Question 112 of 215

1

g(F) is can be measured by Raven's Progressive Matrices.

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 113 of 215

1

White twins from rich backgrounds have a lower heritability estimate than poor whites or blacks.

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 114 of 215

1

The book, The Bell Curve, authored by Richard Hernstein and Charles Murray in 1994 suggested IQ is little influenced by environmental factors.

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 115 of 215

1

According to Nisbett et al. (2012), adoption studies may tend to overestimate the role of the environment and underestimate the role of genetics due to the restricted social class range of adoptive homes.

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 116 of 215

1

According to Nisbett et al. (2012), what progress has been made on finding genes associated with normal IQ variation?

Select one of the following:

Over 282 individual genes for mental retardation found, very little in those associated with normal intelligence
Over 282 individual genes for normal intelligence, very little for those with mental retardation
Over 874 individual genes for mental retardation found, very little associated with normal intelligence
Over 902 individual genes for mental retardation found, very few associated with normal intelligence.

Explanation

Question 117 of 215

1

Breast feeding has been associated with... (Nisbett et al., 2012)

Select one of the following:

+6 IQ points for normal weighted infants, +8 for premature
+3 IQ points for normal weighted infants, +5 for premature
+1 IQ point for normal weighted infants, +3 for premature
No changes in IQ

Explanation

Question 118 of 215

1

High socio-economic status has been associated with... (Nisbett et al., 2012)

Select one of the following:

+12 IQ points than low SES
+6 IQ points than low SES
+3 IQ points than low SES
no differences between high SES IQ and low SES IQ

Explanation

Question 119 of 215

1

Is there an IQ difference for first-borns in a family? (Nisbett et al., 2012)

Select one of the following:

Yes, about 3+ IQ
Yes, about 1+ IQ
No difference
Yes, about 5+ IQ

Explanation

Question 120 of 215

1

What is the Flynn Effect?

Select one of the following:

A substantial and long-term increase in worldwide IQ from 1930.
When environmental influences to IQ are overlooked in favor of genetic explanations.
Non shared environments within a family impacts IQ more than shared environments.
IQ increases when low SES individuals are placed into a high SES environment.

Explanation

Question 121 of 215

1

An IQ score of 70 is the cutting point for immunity from the death penalty in the USA.

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 122 of 215

1

Damage in the prefrontal cortex is associated with...

Select one of the following:

decreased performance on Raven's Progressive Matrices
decreased performance related to task content
reduction in sex-based IQ differences
decreased g(C)

Explanation

Question 123 of 215

1

The frontal and temporal lobes are related to what in terms of IQ...

Select one of the following:

task content
neural efficiency
seizures
performance on the MMPI

Explanation

Question 124 of 215

1

IQ differences of 15 points between black and whites reported in 1996 is thought to be genetically related.

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 125 of 215

1

Digit Span on the WAIS-IV is useful at the lower end of intelligence functioning.

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 126 of 215

1

The WAIS-IV's Picture Completion Task is not biased by gender or object familiarity.

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 127 of 215

1

Conscientiousness has a protective role on mortality.

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 128 of 215

1

Neuroticism, negative emotion, and hostility are positively associated with mortality.

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 129 of 215

1

The more neurotic you are, the more likely you are to get a divorce. (Roberts et al., 2007)

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 130 of 215

1

If you have high conscientiousness and agreeableness, you're more likely to become divorced than if you had low conscientiousness and agreeableness. (Roberts et al. 2007)

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 131 of 215

1

What is one of the major changes in the norms for the MMPI-2-RF and the MMPI-2?

Select one of the following:

no gender norms
norms for adolescents added
norms for children added
no difference

Explanation

Question 132 of 215

1

Which has the largest number of items - the MMPI-2-RF, the MMPI-2, or the MMPI-A?

Select one of the following:

The MMPI-2, followed by the MMPI-A, then the MMPI-2-RF.
The MMPI-2-RF, followed by the MMPI-2, then MMPI-A.
The MMPI-A, followed by the MMPI-2-RF, then MMPI-2.
The MMPI-2-RF, followed by the MMPI-A, then MMPI-2.

Explanation

Question 133 of 215

1

The MMPI-A contains extra scales unique only to the MMPI-A.

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 134 of 215

1

The asylum movement in America was spawned by...

Select one of the following:

Elwood Worcester
Pillipe Pinel
William Wundt
Clifford Beers

Explanation

Question 135 of 215

1

The MMPI was developed when, by whom?

Select one of the following:

1930s by Hathaway and McKinley
1930s by Harris and Lingoes
1940s by Weiner and Harmon
1940s by Krueger and Kendler

Explanation

Question 136 of 215

1

Kraepelinian syndromes means...

Select one of the following:

symptom clusters in the MMPI
based on existing knowledge of symptom clusters and syndromes
symptom clusters based on classic psychoanalytic casework
symptom clusters based on 1800s syndrome research

Explanation

Question 137 of 215

1

What were the validity scales on the original MMPI?

Select one of the following:

Cannot Say, Lie, Infrequency, Correction.
Variable Response Inconsistency, Uncommon Virtues, Adjustment Validity, Infrequent Responses.
True Response Inconsistency, Infrequent Psychopathology Response, Symptom Validity, Response Bias Scale.
Uncommon Virtues, Lie, Response Bias Scale, Adjustment Validity.

Explanation

Question 138 of 215

1

What was one of the major problems of the original MMPI?

Select one of the following:

There were no norms for code types
Some of the clinical scales were outdated
The profiles it produced were non-discriminatory
The validity scales produced too many false positives

Explanation

Question 139 of 215

1

Can the MMPI distinguish between delinquent and non-delinquent females?

Select one of the following:

Yes, based on Pd, Sc, and Ma elevations.
Yes, based on D, MF, Si elevations.
No. Only the MMPI-A can do that.
Yes, based on Pd, D, and Si elevations.

Explanation

Question 140 of 215

1

The first full-fledged effort to examine internal consistency of the MMPI was done by...

Select one of the following:

Wiggins (1966)
Hataway and McKinley (1940)
Capwell (1940)
Hathaway and Monachesi (1953)

Explanation

Question 141 of 215

1

One of the major changes introduced to the MMPI-2 included...

Select one of the following:

The removal of items dealing with religion, sexuality, sexist language, or awkwardly phrased sentences.
The removal of several validity scales.
Adding the clinical scale Demoralization, effectively removing repetitive items from clinical subscales.
Removal of gender norms.

Explanation

Question 142 of 215

1

Psychasthenia in the MMPI-2 refers to...

Select one of the following:

Hypochondriasis/conversion disorders
Tendency to experience negative emotions
Anxiety
Depression proneness

Explanation

Question 143 of 215

1

In Watson and Tellegen's (1985) two-dimensional emotion map, what is the opposite of High Positive Affect?

Select one of the following:

Low Positive Affect
Unpleasantness
Disengagement
High Negative Affect

Explanation

Question 144 of 215

1

Two main factors associated with the clinical scales were Demoralisation and...

Select one of the following:

A second factor uncorrelated with Demoralisation.
A second factor mildly correlated with Demoralisation.
A second factor moderately correlated with Demoralisation.
a second factor highly correlated with Demoralisation.

Explanation

Question 145 of 215

1

Studies have shown that the RC scales map well onto...

Select one of the following:

previous scales of the MMPI
MPQ and NEO-PI-R
the Demoralisation scale
the second facttor in the MMPI-RC scales

Explanation

Question 146 of 215

1

What does the Symptom Validity scale detect?

Select one of the following:

the underreporting of symptoms
the overreporting of symptoms
Somatic complaints infrequent in the medical patient populations
exaggerated memory complaints

Explanation

Question 147 of 215

1

Which of these is NOT a MMPI-2-RF higher order scales?

Select one of the following:

Emotional/Internalizing Dysfunction
Thought Dysfunction
Behavioural/Externalizing Dysfunction
Cognitive/Perceptual Dysfunction

Explanation

Question 148 of 215

1

The Watson (2005) hierarchical structure of mood and anxiety disorders classifies emotional disorders into two broad categories. What are they?

Select one of the following:

Cognitive and Emotional
Distress and Fear
Panic and Social
Depressive and Anxious

Explanation

Question 149 of 215

1

In the MMPI-2-RF Internalizing Hierarchy, there are 3 broad categories underneath the heading Emotional-Internalising Dysfunction. What are they?

Select one of the following:

Demoralisation, Low Positive Emotions, Dysfunctional Negative Emotions
Distress, Fear, Panic
Demoralisation, Distress, Fear
Demoralisation, Negative Positive Emotions, Low Negative Emotions
Demoralisation, Lack of Positive Emotions, Presence of Dysfunctional Negative Emotions

Explanation

Question 150 of 215

1

Externalising disorders have a common genetic underpinning.

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 151 of 215

1

The scientist-practitioner model has been described as embodying three concepts. Which of the following is NOT one of those espoused by Shakow?

Select one of the following:

research
therapy
assessment
diagnostics

Explanation

Question 152 of 215

1

Butler et al's (2005) review of CBT efficacy found...

Select one of the following:

antidepressant drugs were superior to CBT
CBT had a low efficacy on marital distress
CBT had a moderate efficacy on preventing sexual assault repeat offending
chronic pain was treated moderately well with CBT

Explanation

Question 153 of 215

1

Butler et al's (2005) review on CBT efficacy found...

Select one of the following:

large uncontrolled effect sizes for CBT efficacy for schizophrenia
large uncontrolled effect sizes for CBT efficacy for depression
large uncontrolled effect sizes for CBT efficacy for OCD
large uncontrolled effect sizes for CBT for childhood somatic disorders

Explanation

Question 154 of 215

1

In Butler et al's (2005) study on CBT efficacy large effect sizes were found for the treatment of...

Select one of the following:

panic disorders
anger
bulimia nervosa
social phobia with agoraphobia only

Explanation

Question 155 of 215

1

According to Butler (2005)'s review on CBT efficacy, one disorder requiring more attention regarding CBT is...

Select one of the following:

substance abuse
obsessive compulsive disorder
panic disorders
sexual repeat offending

Explanation

Question 156 of 215

1

Is CBT case conceptualisation reliable?

Select one of the following:

Descripive levels of presenting issues reliable, inference about causal influences is not.
Descripive levels of presenting issues not reliable, inference about causal influences is.

Explanation

Question 157 of 215

1

Focused training of case conceptualisation does not improve the coherence and quality of case conceptualisation across therapy modules.

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 158 of 215

1

A generic approach used for identifying triggers and maintenance factors of a problem for case conceptualisation is...

Select one of the following:

functional analysis
literature review
factor analysis
trigger maintenance survey

Explanation

Question 159 of 215

1

What was the maintenance cycle of 'Beth''s PTSD in the Kuyken et al. paper?

Select one of the following:

Memories of abuse and violence + triggers => current threat => cutting => cognitive elaboration <=> (repeat)
current threat => Memories of abuse and violence + triggers => cutting => cognitive elaboration <=> (repeat)
current threat => Memories of abuse and violence + triggers => cognitive elaboration => cutting <= => (repeat)
current threat => Memories of abuse and violence + triggers + cutting => cognitive elaboration => cutting <= => (repeat)

Explanation

Question 160 of 215

1

Panic disorder affects up to _% of the population at some point in their life. (Fill in blank.)

Select one of the following:

5
3
2
8

Explanation

Question 161 of 215

1

Changes in neural circuits in people with panic disorder does NOT include...

Select one of the following:

lowered amygdala volume
lowered temporal lobe volume
reduced frontal lobe volume
reduced orbitofrontal flow

Explanation

Question 162 of 215

1

The belief that anxiety could cause deleterious physical, social, and psychological consequences beyond those immediate in an actual panic attack is a risk factor for onset of panic disorder.

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 163 of 215

1

Anxiety sensitivity predicts more variance in panic disorder onset than neuroticism.

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 164 of 215

1

The ____ is thought to mediate anxiety sensitivity.

Select one of the following:

insular cortex
amygdala
hippocamous
somatosensory cortex

Explanation

Question 165 of 215

1

The current preferred drug treatment for panic disorder is...

Select one of the following:

SSRIs
benzodiazepines
tricyclics
neuroleptics

Explanation

Question 166 of 215

1

_ is an effective drug for panic disorder in non-responding CBT patients.

Select one of the following:

paroxetine
setraline
venlafaxine
nefazodone

Explanation

Question 167 of 215

1

Hypnosis is a helpful treatment alternative to CBT for panic disorder.

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 168 of 215

1

The legacy of the Boulder conference included:

Select one of the following:

a resolution that provided an opening for the introduction of the scientist-practitioner model of professional training in psychology.
cooperation of the American Psychological Association, the United States Public Health Service, and the Veterans Association.
a resolution that provided an opening for the introduction of the scientist-practitioner model of professional training in psychology AND cooperation of the American Psychological Association, the United States Public Health Service, and the Veterans Association.
none of the above

Explanation

Question 169 of 215

1

Benjamin (2000) argues that the founding of scientific psychology dates from the establishment of the research laboratory at the University of Leipzeig by:

Select one of the following:

Wilhelm Wundt
Hermann von Helmholtz
Gustav Fechner
Hermann Ebbinghaus

Explanation

Question 170 of 215

1

Early psychology laboratories were founded in the United States of America by the likes of:

Select one of the following:

G. Stanley Hall and Lightner Witmer
James McKeen Cattell and Elwood Worcester
G. Stanely Hall and James McKeen Cattell
Lightner Witmer and Elwood Worcester

Explanation

Question 171 of 215

1

O'Gorman (2001) reported that Eysenck in 1949 argued that therapy was NOT a role for clinical psychologists but for psychiatrists. Instead, Eysenck was reported as seeing the task of clinical psychologist as embracing:

Select one of the following:

assessment and diagnosis
diagnosis and research
assessment and research
assessment, diagnosis, and research

Explanation

Question 172 of 215

1

The scientist-practitioner model has been criticised for:

Select one of the following:

several shortcomings, but without sound argument or reliable evidence
failing to adopt an integrative approach to science and practice
failing to appropriately value the contribution of practice to practitioner skill
failing to adopt an integrative approach to science and practice AND failing to appropriately value the contribution of practice to practitioner skill

Explanation

Question 173 of 215

1

Since the early 20th century, the American public's stereotype of a psychologist has been:

Select one of the following:

a psychoanalytic one
a psychodynamic one
an assessment and diagnosis one
a behaviorist one

Explanation

Question 174 of 215

1

The beginnings of clinical and school psychology in the USA are associated with:

Select one of the following:

James McKeen Cattell's mental testing
the Emmanuel movement
Lightner Witmer
the Mental Hygiene Movement

Explanation

Question 175 of 215

1

Which event brought greater public attention to the issues of mental health in the USA in the 20th century?

Select one of the following:

Elwood Worcester's Emmanuel movement
Beer and Meyer's Mental Hygiene movement
Sigmund Freud's series of lectures on psychoanalysis at Clark University in response to an invitation from Stanley G. Hall.
Morton Prince's publication of 'The Dissociation of Personality'

Explanation

Question 176 of 215

1

In 1917:

Select one of the following:

the psychiatric community called for an end to clinical psychology
clinical psychologists called for an end to psychiatry
the psychiatric community called for an end to clinical psychology AND to psychiatry
none of the above

Explanation

Question 177 of 215

1

In 1937, the short-lived American Association for Psychology (AAAP) was founded with an initial organisational structure focused on:

Select one of the following:

assessment, diagnosis, prevention, and therapy
assessment, diagnosis, education, and industry
clinical matters, consulting, education, and industry
clinical matters, education, industry, and prevention

Explanation

Question 178 of 215

1

The practice of clinical psychology between the two world wars was essentially about:

Select one of the following:

assessment
diagnosis
prevention
therapy

Explanation

Question 179 of 215

1

The emergence of modern clinical psychology was related to:

Select one of the following:

use of psychology in WW1
use of psychology in WW2
major in-fighting in the psychiatric community
a plan to develop the science and profession of psychology after WW2

Explanation

Question 180 of 215

1

Benjamin (2005) says, “it can be argued that the modern profession of clinical psychology was established … by”:

Select one of the following:

pure luck
federal government agencies seeking to meet a wartime and post-wartime need
the psychological community
devious means

Explanation

Question 181 of 215

1

Personality assessment was well-established in the practice of clinical psychology in the USA by the 1940s. Which of the following tests was NOT in use at that time?

Select one of the following:

the Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory
the NEO inventories
the Rorschach projective test
the Thematic Apperception Test

Explanation

Question 182 of 215

1

Managed care in the US was said by Benjamin (2005) to end the golden age of clinical psychology, equated with the decades of the 1960s and 1970s. Managed care impacted negatively on the practice of clinical psychologists from the 1980s by:

Select one of the following:

increasing the fees charged for mental health services
limiting patient access to mental health services
increasing fees charged for mental health services AND limiting patient access to mental health services
heavily subsidising fees charged by psychiatrists for psychotherapy

Explanation

Question 183 of 215

1

Benjamin (2005) comments that, “traditional strengths of doctoral education in psychology [have included] that students”:

Select one of the following:

are able to avoid paying exorbitant fees that they would otherwise need to pay if pursuing a Master’s-level qualification
are taught methodological skills and are trained as critical thinkers and problem solvers
bolster the publication rate of academic professors
all of the above

Explanation

Question 184 of 215

1

What are the FIRST three steps in conducting a meta-analysis? (note: there are 6 steps total)

Select one of the following:

1. Searching for studies, 2. Selecting the studies, 3. Defining the review question and eligibility criteria.
1. Defining the review question and eligibility criteria, 2. Searching for studies, 3. Selecting the studies.
1. Defining the review question and eligibility criteria, 2. Selecting the studies. 3. Data extraction.
1. Searching for studies, 2. Defining the review question and eligibility critera, 3. Cleaning studies.

Explanation

Question 185 of 215

1

What is a disadvantage of meta-analysis?

Select one of the following:

Moderator analysis
Obscures qualitative data
Obscures quantitative data
Magnitude of effects

Explanation

Question 186 of 215

1

What is a moderator variable? (Hint: contrast with mediator).

Select one of the following:

A variable that influences the strength of a relationship between two other variables
A variable that explains the relationship between two other variables
A variable that is unrelated to two other variables, but is related to a third.
A variable that is uncorrelated with another.

Explanation

Question 187 of 215

1

What is the formula for Hedge's g?

Select one of the following:

g = (Mean1-Mean2)/pooled SD
g = (Population Mean - Sample Mean)/pooled SD
g = (Mean1+Mean2+Mean3+etc)/N
g = (mean1-mean2)/n-1

Explanation

Question 188 of 215

1

Which is these is NOT a general effect associated with common factors research?

Select one of the following:

Alliance Outcome relationship
Therapist and Researcher Allegiance
Therapist Effects
Specific Effects

Explanation

Question 189 of 215

1

What does the common factor Therapist and Researcher Allegience refer to?

Select one of the following:

Whether the therapist and researcher believe the treatment is efficacious.
Skill of the therapist at delivering a specific treatment.
The relationship between the therapist, researcher, and patient.
Skill of therapist at delivering a general treatment.

Explanation

Question 190 of 215

1

The Therapist Effects common factor suggests patients should...

Select one of the following:

seek the best treatment for your condition
seek a therapist who uses an approach you find compatible
make sure their therapist believes the therapy works
make sure the researcher in charge of producing journal articles believes in the therapy's efficacy

Explanation

Question 191 of 215

1

Messer and Wampold (2002) recommend...

Select one of the following:

Limit clinical trials to comparing bonafide therapies
Don't use control groups in clinical trials: two active controls that are bonafide therapies will suffice
Increase emphasis on specific factors in therapy manuals so all bases are covered adequately
Limit clinical trials to comparing new therapies

Explanation

Question 192 of 215

1

According to Grencavage and Norcross (1990) what is the most agreed upon common factor?

Select one of the following:

catharsis
development of therapeutic alliance
client's positive expectancies
beneficial therapist qualities

Explanation

Question 193 of 215

1

In terms of raw frequency, which were the most frequently occuring treatment structures identified as common factors? (Grencavage & Norcross, 1990).

Select one of the following:

use of techniques/rituals
focus on inner world/exploration of emotional issues
adherence to theory
a healing setting

Explanation

Question 194 of 215

1

In terms of raw frequency, what is the most frequently occuring Selected Relationship Elements identified as common factors? (Grencavage & Norcross, 1990)?

Select one of the following:

development of a therapeutic alliance/relationship
engagement
transference
client's belief structures

Explanation

Question 195 of 215

1

There are four main “efforts” in the realm of epistemology and the philosophy of science. The first is associated with Plato. He characterised knowledge as:

Select one of the following:

justified
true
belief
all possible answers

Explanation

Question 196 of 215

1

Correspondence theory, regarding Plato’s notion of truth:

Select one of the following:

pre-supposes unbiased observation
is about belief accurately depicting reality
pre-supposes unbiased observation + is about belief accuracy depicting reality
none mentioned

Explanation

Question 197 of 215

1

Coherence theory, regarding Plato’s notion of truth, was demonstrated by Schlick (a logical positivist) to be lacking in the sense that it is possible:

Select one of the following:

to construct a perfectly coherent fantasy world, and yet that world is not true
for inconsistencies to co-exist in reality
to construct a perfectly coherent fantasy world, and yet that world is not true + for inconsistencies to co-exist in reality
none mentioned

Explanation

Question 198 of 215

1

The problem of infinite regress is associated with which aspect(s) of Plato’s definition of knowledge:

Select one of the following:

belief
justification
turth
belief and justifaction

Explanation

Question 199 of 215

1

The “Gettier problems” identify a shortcoming of Plato’s definition of knowledge, in that:

Select one of the following:

it is possible to hold a false belief
it is possible to have knowledge without justification
it is possible to have justified true belief without knowledge
all mentioned

Explanation

Question 200 of 215

1

Logical positivism was a reaction against:

Select one of the following:

meta-analysis
metaphysics
metacognition
metamorphosis

Explanation

Question 201 of 215

1

Logical positivism is associated with the “verifiability principle” which is about:

Select one of the following:

proving something true or false by experimental manipulation
proving something true from a set of relevant examples
proving something false by identifying at least one exception to the rule
proving something true or false by experience

Explanation

Question 202 of 215

1

Popper argued that true knowledge:

Select one of the following:

is based on consistent results from many methodologically sound replications of an experiment
is in short supply
survives tests of falsification
all mentioned

Explanation

Question 203 of 215

1

Popper argued that knowledge is never certain, but has degrees of:

Select one of the following:

verifiability
believability
vicissitude
verisimilitude

Explanation

Question 204 of 215

1

The Popperian view would be that:

Select one of the following:

confirmation is superior to disconfirmation
confirmation is superior in some contexts, and disconfirmation is superior in
others
neither confirmation nor disconfirmation is superior to the other
confirmation is inferior to disconfirmation

Explanation

Question 205 of 215

1

The dominant justification of the scientist-practitioner model is:

Select one of the following:

Platonic
Logical positivist
Popperian
Kuhnian

Explanation

Question 206 of 215

1

A view of science characterised as the “fuzzy, dynamic, progressive accumulation of
true knowledge” would be labelled:

Select one of the following:

Popperian
Platonic
Logical positivist
Kuhnian

Explanation

Question 207 of 215

1

Detractors of the Popperian view of knowledge include:

Select one of the following:

Plato and other ancient Greek philosophers
The philosophers of the Enlightenment
Kuhn and the post-modernists
The logical positivists

Explanation

Question 208 of 215

1

Kahneman and Tversky concluded from their research about human decision-making
that humans commit more decision-making errors than they realise. Such errors result
from:

Select one of the following:

poor intelligence and lack of expertise
the misapplication of powerful heuristics
fatigue
all of the above

Explanation

Question 209 of 215

1

Which of the following is not true?

Select one of the following:

Humans have a good grasp of probability.
Humans use familiarity rather than probability.
Human emotions can hijack rational decision-making.
Humans often fail to realise when there is missing information.

Explanation

Question 210 of 215

1

Which canonical heuristic is associated with faulty generalisations?

Select one of the following:

anchoring heuristic
availability heuristic
framing effect
representativeness heuristic

Explanation

Question 211 of 215

1

Stereotypes are associated with which two canonical heuristics?

Select one of the following:

availability heuristic and anchoring heuristic
availability heuristic and framing effect
conjunction fallacy and representativeness heuristic
availability heuristic and representativeness heuristic

Explanation

Question 212 of 215

1

Losses are more devastating and gains are more gratifying. This statement is
associated with which canonical heuristic?

Select one of the following:

anchoring heuristic
framing effect
hindsight bias
none of the above

Explanation

Question 213 of 215

1

Which of the following is a criticism of the scientist-practitioner model:

Select one of the following:

views of science have changed since 1949
there is low recognition of the tacit knowledge of clinicians
practice makes a meagre contribution to psychological science
all of the above

Explanation

Question 214 of 215

1

O’Donohue and Lilienfeld (2007) in their consideration of epistemological and ethical
dimensions of clinical science suggest that:

Select one of the following:

psychological services should be offered to the public regardless of whether
they can be continually monitored
as clinical experience increases adherence to a strictly scientific clinical
psychology becomes less important
psychological services should not be offered to the public unless they are
offered within a sound quality improvement system
it is appropriate to draw upon professional knowledge based on anecdotal
evidence when there is no applicable scientific knowledge

Explanation

Question 215 of 215

1

According to Spring (2007), evidence-based practice designates a process of clinical
decision-making that integrates:

Select one of the following:

research evidence
clinical expertise
patient preferences and characteristics
all mentioned

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Honours Clinical Assessment Final Exam Review

Honours Clinical Assessment Final Exam Review

Question 1 of 215

What contribution did Plato have on a science epistemology?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 2 of 215

Who were the logical positivists?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 3 of 215

What was the philosophical backbone of logical positivism?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 4 of 215

What lead to the decline of logical positivism?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 5 of 215

What was Popper's argument against convention?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 6 of 215

What was Popper's proposed alternative to conventional epistemology?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 7 of 215

What is the dynanism and growth of scientific knowledge formula?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 8 of 215

Who were major figures in the science of decision making?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 9 of 215

What were Kahneman and Tversky's conclusions concerning human decision making?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 10 of 215

Do basketball players get hot hands?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 11 of 215

What does Garb say about anecdotal evidence and romanticisation of clinical psychology?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 12 of 215

What should be the stages of clinical practice according to Garb?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 13 of 215

Military records suggest ___% WW1 veterans receiving PTSD compensation are pretenders.

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 14 of 215

When is interrater reliability for the DSM-3 agreeable?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 15 of 215

What is the anchoring heuristic?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 16 of 215

Loftus's first study (1975) was conducted in relation to Nixon's first visit to China and Russia. Subjects estimated a prediction of the actual outcome. 3/4rds estimated the initial prediction as higher. Why did this happen?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 17 of 215

Loftus's "lost in the mall" technique provided subjects with short narratives describing childhood events. The "lost in the mall" memory was false. What percentage of participants incorrectly 'remembered' the event?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 18 of 215

Define epistemology.

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 19 of 215

What is fact?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 20 of 215