Ismael Vázquez
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AVIÓNICA Quiz on 03. 6. ACGA_L01-L09_2017, created by Ismael Vázquez on 28/03/2018.

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Ismael Vázquez
Created by Ismael Vázquez about 6 years ago
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03. 6. ACGA_L01-L09_2017

Question 1 of 24

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1. The fly by ware normal operation modes are:
pg23

Select one of the following:

  • a) Ground mode, take off mode, in flight mode, flare mode.

  • b) Ground mode, take off mode, landing mode, flare mode.

  • c) Ground mode, take off mode, landing mode, approach mode.

  • d) Ground mode, air mode, take off mode, flare mode.

Explanation

Question 2 of 24

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2. According to the ground mode:
pg23

Select one of the following:

  • a) aircraft is fully protected against exceeding the maximum negative and positive load factors (with and without high lift devices extracted), angle of attack, stall, airspeed/Mach number, pitch attitude, roll rate, bank angle etc.

  • b) when the aircraft approaches to ground the control is gradually switched to this mode, where automatic trim is deactivated and modified flight laws are used for pitch control.

  • c) pilot has control on the nose wheel steering as a function of speed.

  • d) after lift-off the envelope protection is gradually introduced.

Explanation

Question 3 of 24

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3. According to the in flight mode:
pg23

Select one of the following:

  • a) aircraft is fully protected against exceeding the maximum negative and positive load factors (with and without high lift devices extracted), angle of attack, stall, airspeed/Mach number, pitch attitude, roll rate, bank angle etc.

  • b) when the aircraft approaches to ground the control is gradually switched to this mode, where automatic trim is deactivated and modified flight laws are used for pitch control.

  • c) pilot has control on the nose wheel steering as a function of speed.

  • d) after lift-off the envelope protection is gradually introduced.

Explanation

Question 4 of 24

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4. According to the Yaw Damper:
pg24

Select one of the following:

  • a. Each yaw damper has an associated coupler which operates as a rate gyro and senses pitch.

  • b. Minimise Duch Roll by automatic rudder displacement proportional to and opposing the amount of yaw experienced.

  • c. Minimise Duch Roll by manual rudder displacement proportional to and opposing the amount of yaw experienced.

  • d. The duch roll is detected when: directional > lateral stability.

Explanation

Question 5 of 24

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5. According to the motion sensors of the FBW System:

Select one of the following:

  • a) Detect the movement of the aircraft in the air.

  • b) Detect higher frequency structural oscillations due to flexible modes.

  • c) Detect low frequency structural oscillations due to flexible modes.

  • d) Detect rigid body movement of the aircraft on landing configuration.

Explanation

Question 6 of 24

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6. What are the differences between analog and digital system of FBW?
pg24

Select one of the following:

  • a) Digital system allows great flexibility and high complexity functions.

  • b) Analog system is affected by inherent delays.

  • c) Analog system allows the use of screens and simplify the work in the cockpit.

  • d) Digital system is instantaneous.

Explanation

Question 7 of 24

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7. Integration of Flight control and Powerplant control systems entails (Select the wrong answer):
pg24

Select one of the following:

  • a) Improvement of system performances

  • b) Efficient energy management

  • c) Reduction in equipment space and mass

  • d) Improvement of resistance to G-forces.

Explanation

Question 8 of 24

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8. According to the in flare mode:
pg24

Select one of the following:

  • a) aircraft is fully protected against exceeding the maximum negative and positive load factors (with and without high lift devices extracted), angle of attack, stall, airspeed/Mach number, pitch attitude, roll rate, bank angle etc.

  • b) when the aircraft approaches to ground the control is gradually switched to this mode, where automatic trim is deactivated and modified flight laws are used for pitch control.

  • c) pilot has control on the nose wheel steering as a function of speed.

  • d) after lift-off the envelope protection is gradually introduced.

Explanation

Question 9 of 24

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1) Regarding the pneumatic de-icing boots, choose the correct answer:
pg25

Select one of the following:

  • a) They are not used if high aerodynamic efficiency is needed

  • b) They are an effective method for ice thickness between 1⁄4 (bridge) and 1⁄2 inch (strength)

  • c) Both “a” and “b” are wrong

  • d) Both “a” and “b” are right

Explanation

Question 10 of 24

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2) Wich of the following cannot be used in helicopters?
pg25

Select one of the following:

  • a) The pneumatic de-icing boots

  • b) The termal anti-icing system

  • c) The airframe de-icing fluid system

  • d) The electro expulsive de-icing system

Explanation

Question 11 of 24

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3) What are the first points to become iced?
pg25

Select one of the following:

  • a) The leading edge of the tail and fin

  • b) Flaps and spoilers

  • c) The trailing edge

  • d) The engine cowling

Explanation

Question 12 of 24

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4) In which consists an ice detection light?
pg25

Select one of the following:

  • a) A light in the cockpit warns the pilot that there is ice in the wing

  • b) A light that illuminates those parts of the wing that are deemed critical for ice accumulation

  • c) An acoustic alarm that warns the pilot that there is ice in the wing

  • d) No one is correct

Explanation

Question 13 of 24

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5) If we talk about an electric motor that rotates a serrated rotor, being the needed torque a function of the amount of ice, we refer to...

Select one of the following:

  • a) A serrated rotor ice detector

  • b) A smiths ice detector

  • c) A hot rod ice detector

  • d) An ice detection light

Explanation

Question 14 of 24

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6) How does a vibrating rod ice detector work?

Select one of the following:

  • a) A vibration frequency drops when ice increases

  • b) A heater breaks the ice

  • c) A vibration frequency drops before the ice increases, preventing it

  • d) High pressures destroy the ice formed

Explanation

Question 15 of 24

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7) Which of the following statements is true?

Select one of the following:

  • a) In most cases it is the aircraft itself that triggers the lightning when entering a region with intense electrostatic field

  • b) Aircraft accidents caused by lightning are very common

  • c) The basic solution to limit damage to a structure and systems from lighting is to make the whole structure a good electrical conductor

  • d) No one is true

Explanation

Question 16 of 24

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8) The triboelectic effect...
pg26

Select one of the following:

  • a) Occurs when a lightning hits the aircraft

  • b) Happens when certain materials become electrically charged after they come into contact with another different material through friction.

  • c) In aircrafts is important in flying across clouds or in an ambient with particles in suspension

  • d) Both “b” and “c” are right

Explanation

Question 17 of 24

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1. Which of the following statements is true?
pg26

Select one of the following:

  • a) The fuel system must provide an uninterrupted flow of contaminant free fuel regardless of the aircraft’s attitude.

  • b) The gravity center of the aircraft must be preserved even when the fuel is consumed .

  • c) Previous two sentences must met regardless of the aircraft’s attitude.

  • d) Al three statements are true.

Explanation

Question 18 of 24

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2. In what concerns about historical fuel systems:
pg26

Select one of the following:

  • a) First way of feed the engine was by the use of manual pressure.

  • b) Higher performance was related with more complexity.

  • c) Jet engines, being more modern than their piston-engines predecessors, need less fuel.

  • d) Use of under-wing and under-fuselage ventral tanks was less efficient for the range.

Explanation

Question 19 of 24

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3. What was the first method used to know the fuel consumption/ remaining?
pg27

Select one of the following:

  • a) Analog electronics.

  • b) Visual (Fuel tank visible for the pilot flying).

  • c) Digital Electronics.

  • d) Mechanical.

Explanation

Question 20 of 24

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4. What were the techniques used to prevent the engine explosion due to fuel tank penetration by enemy fire?
pg27

Select one of the following:

  • a) Polyurethane reticulated foam installed within the fuel tanks.

  • b) Gaseous Nitrogen Inert system.

  • c) On Board Inert Gas Generation System OBIGGS (separation O2 /N2) .

  • d) Previous three are correct.

Explanation

Question 21 of 24

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5. The fuel system has also to ensure safe handling of the engine to prevent (select the WRONG option):
pg27

Select one of the following:

  • ExcessiveTurbineEntryTemperature(TET).

  • Under-speed.

  • Compressor surge.

  • Excessive acceleration/deceleration.

Explanation

Question 22 of 24

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6. JAR 25 rule establishes that:
pg27

Select one of the following:

  • Each fuel system is able to supply at least 90% of the fuel flow required under each intended operation condition or maneuver.

  • Each fuel system is able to supply at least 95% of the fuel flow required the majorityof operation condition or maneuver.

  • Each fuel system is able to supply at least 100% of the fuel flow required under the majority of operation condition or maneuver.

  • Each fuel system is able to supply at least 100% of the fuel flow required under each intended operation condition or maneuver.

Explanation

Question 23 of 24

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7. Select the correct statement about the fuel tanks:
pg27

Select one of the following:

  • a) To facilitate outboard fuel movement, a number of check valves (non-return valves) are installed along the ribs that form the boundaries between compartments.

  • b) The fuel tanks are normally located in the aircraft fuselage and tail.

  • c) In fighter aircrafts, there are complex shapes due to the lack of volume

  • d) A and C are correct.

Explanation

Question 24 of 24

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8. What of the following is not a type of fuel tank?
pg28

Select one of the following:

  • a) Flexible Tanks

  • b) Rigid Tanks

  • c) External Tanks

  • d) Integral Tanks

Explanation