CCNA 2 v6.0 Final Exam Answers 2018 – Routing & Switching Essentials

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Question 1 of 103

Refer to the exhibit. Assuming that the routing tables are up to date and no ARP messages are needed, after a packet leaves H1, how many times is the L2 header rewritten in the path to H2?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 2 of 103

Refer to the exhibit. Which highlighted value represents a specific destination network in the routing table?

Select one of the following:

0.0.0.0
10.16.100.128
10.16.100.2
110
791

Explanation

Question 3 of 103

Which type of static route is configured with a greater administrative distance to provide a backup route to a route learned from a dynamic routing protocol?

Select one of the following:

floating static route
default static route
summary static route
standard static route

Explanation

Question 4 of 103

A network administrator reviews the routing table on the router and sees a route to the destination network 172.16.64.0/18 with a next-hop IP address of 192.168.1.1. What are two descriptions of this route? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

parent route
default route
level 2 child route
ultimate route
supernet route

Explanation

Question 5 of 103

Refer to the exhibit. Which route was configured as a static route to a specific network using the next-hop address?

Select one of the following:

S 10.17.2.0/24 [1/0] via 10.16.2.2
S 0.0.0.0/0 [1/0] via 10.16.2.2
C 10.16.2.0/24 is directly connected, Serial0/0/0
S 10.17.2.0/24 is directly connected, Serial 0/0/0

Explanation

Question 6 of 103

What network prefix and prefix-length combination is used to create a default static route that will match any IPv6 destination?

Select one of the following:

:/128
FFFF:/128
::1/64
::/0

Explanation

Question 7 of 103

A router has used the OSPF protocol to learn a route to the 172.16.32.0/19 network. Which command will implement a backup floating static route to this network?

Select one of the following:

ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.240.0 S0/0/0 200
ip route 172.16.32.0 255.255.224.0 S0/0/0 200
ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.224.0 S0/0/0 100
ip route 172.16.32.0 255.255.0.0 S0/0/0 100

Explanation

Question 8 of 103

Refer to the exhibit. Currently router R1 uses an EIGRP route learned from Branch2 to reach the 10.10.0.0/16 network. Which floating static route would create a backup route to the 10.10.0.0/16 network in the event that the link between R1 and Branch2 goes down?

Select one of the following:

ip route 10.10.0.0 255.255.0.0 Serial 00/0 100
ip route 10.10.0.0 255.255.0.0 209.165.200.226 100
ip route 10.10.0.0 255.255.0.0 209.165.200.225 100
ip route 10.10.0.0 255.255.0.0 209.165.200.225 50

Explanation

Question 9 of 103

Which two factors are important when deciding which interior gateway routing protocol to use? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

• scalability
• ISP selection
• speed of convergence
• the autonomous system that is used
• campus backbone architecture

Explanation

Question 10 of 103

6. Employees of a company connect their wireless laptop computers to the enterprise LAN via wireless access points that are cabled to the Ethernet ports of switches. At which layer of the three-layer hierarchical network design model do these switches operate?

Select one of the following:

• physical
• access
• core
• data link
• distribution

Explanation

Question 11 of 103

7. What is a basic function of the Cisco Borderless Architecture access layer?

Select one of the following:

aggregates Layer 2 broadcast domains
aggregates Layer 3 routing boundaries
provides access to the user
provides fault isolation

Explanation

Question 12 of 103

12. Which statement describes a route that has been learned dynamically?

Select one of the following:

• It is automatically updated and maintained by routing protocols.
• It is unaffected by changes in the topology of the network.
• It is identified by the prefix C in the routing table.
• It has an administrative distance of 1.

Explanation

Question 13 of 103

13. Compared with dynamic routes, what are two advantages of using static routes on a router? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

• They improve the efficiency of discovering neighboring networks.
• They use fewer router resources
• They take less time to converge when the network topology changes
• They automatically switch the path to the destination network when the topology changes
• They Improve network security

Explanation

Question 14 of 103

14. To enable RIP routing for a specific subnet, the configuration command network 172.16.64.32 was entered by the network administrator. What address, if any, appears in the running configuration file to identify this network?

Select one of the following:

172.16.64.32
172.16.64.0
172.16.0.0
No address is displayed.

Explanation

Question 15 of 103

15. A network administrator adds the default-information originate command to the configuration of a router that uses RIP as the routing protocol. What will result from adding this command?

Select one of the following:

• The router will only forward packets that originate on directly connected networks.
• The router will propagate a static default route in its RIP updates, if one is present
• The router will be reset to the default factory information
• The router will not forward routing information that is learned from other routers

Explanation

Question 16 of 103

16. Refer to the exhibit. What is the administrative distance value that indicates the route for R2 to reach the 10.10.0.0/16 network?

Select one of the following:

1
0
90
20512256

Explanation

Question 17 of 103

17. Which route will a router use to forward an IPv4 packet after examining its routing table for the best match with the destination address?

Select one of the following:

a level 1 child route
a level 1 parent route
a level 1 ultimate route
a level 2 supernet route

Explanation

Question 18 of 103

18. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is attempting to install an IPv6 static route on router R1 to reach the network attached to router R2. After the static route command is entered, connectivity to the network is still failing. What error has been made in the static route configuration?

Select one of the following:

The network prefix is incorrect.
The destination network is incorrect.
The interface is incorrect
The next hop address is incorrect.

Explanation

Question 19 of 103

19. What is a characteristic of the distribution layer in the three layer hierarchical model?

Select one of the following:

• provides access to the rest of the network through switching, routing, and network access policies
• distributes access to end users
• represents the network edge
• acts as the backbone for the network, aggregating and distributing network traffic throughout the campus

Explanation

Question 20 of 103

20. Which information does a switch use to populate the MAC address table?

Select one of the following:

• the destination MAC address and the incoming port
• the destination MAC address and the outgoing port
• the source and destination MAC addresses and the incoming port
• the source MAC address and the incoming port
• the source MAC address and the outgoing port
• the source and destination MAC addresses and the outgoing port

Explanation

Question 21 of 103

21. Which statement is correct about Ethernet switch frame forwarding decisions?

Select one of the following:

• Unicast frames are always forwarded regardless of the destination MAC address
• Frame forwarding decisions are based on MAC address and port mappings in the CAM table
• Cut-through frame forwarding ensures that invalid frames are always dropped
• Only frames with a broadcast destination address are forwarded out all active switch ports

Explanation

Question 22 of 103

22. What is the name of the layer in the Cisco borderless switched network design that would have more switches deployed than other layers in the network design of a large organization?

Select one of the following:

access
core
data link
network
network access

Explanation

Question 23 of 103

23. Which switching method drops frames that fail the FCS check?

Select one of the following:

• cut-through switching
• borderless switching
• ingress port buffering
• store-and-forward switching

Explanation

Question 24 of 103

24. In what situation would a Layer 2 switch have an IP address configured ?

Select one of the following:

• when the Layer 2 switch is using a routed port
• when the Layer 2 switch needs to be remotely managed
• when the Layer 2 switch is the default gateway of user traffic
• when the Layer 2 switch needs to forward user traffic to another device

Explanation

Question 25 of 103

25. A network administrator is configuring a new Cisco switch for remote management access. Which three items must be configured on the switch for the task? (Choose three.)

Select one or more of the following:

• vty lines
• VTP domain
• loopback address
• default gateway
• default VLAN
• IP address

Explanation

Question 26 of 103

26. A network technician has been asked to secure all switches in the campus network. The security requirements are for each switch to automatically learn and add MAC addresses to both the address table and the running configuration. Which port security configuration will meet these requirements?

Select one of the following:

auto secure MAC addresses
dynamic secure MAC addresses
static secure MAC addresses
sticky secure MAC addresses

Explanation

Question 27 of 103

27. A network administrator is configuring port security on a Cisco switch. When a violation occurs, which violation mode that is configured on an interface will cause packets with an unknown source address to be dropped with no notification sent?

Select one of the following:

off
restrict
protect
shutdown

Explanation

Question 28 of 103

28. Two employees in the Sales department work different shifts with their laptop computers and share the same Ethernet port in the office. Which set of commands would allow only these two laptops to use the Ethernet port and create violation log entry without shutting down the port if a violation occurs?

Select one of the following:

• switchport mode access
switchport port-security
• switchport mode access
switchport port-security
switchport port-security maximum 2
switchport port-security mac-address sticky
switchport port-security violation restrict
• switchport mode access
switchport port-security maximum 2
switchport port-security mac-address sticky
• switchport mode access
switchport port-security maximum 2
switchport port-security mac-address sticky
switchport port-security violation protect

Explanation

Question 29 of 103

29. Refer to the exhibit. What protocol should be configured on SW-A Port 0/1 if it is to send traffic from multiple VLANs to switch SW-B?

Select one of the following:

• RIP v2
• IEEE 802.1Q
• Spanning Tree
• ARP
• Rapid Spanning Tree

Explanation

Question 30 of 103

30. A Cisco Catalyst switch has been added to support the use of multiple VLANs as part of an enterprise network. The network technician finds it necessary to clear all VLAN information from the switch in order to incorporate a new network design. What should the technician do to accomplish this task?

Select one of the following:

• Erase the startup configuration and reboot the switch
• Erase the running configuration and reboot the switch
• Delete the startup configuration and the vlan.dat file in the flash memory of the switch and reboot the switch
• Delete the IP address that is assigned to the management VLAN and reboot the switch.

Explanation

Question 31 of 103

31. What will a Cisco LAN switch do if it receives an incoming frame and the destination MAC address is not listed in the MAC address table?

Select one of the following:

Drop the frame.
Send the frame to the default gateway address.
Use ARP to resolve the port that is related to the frame.
Forward the frame out all ports except the port where the frame is received.

Explanation

Question 32 of 103

32. What VLANs are allowed across a trunk when the range of allowed VLANs is set to the default value?

Select one of the following:

• The switches will negotiate via VTP which VLANs to allow across the trunk
• Only VLAN 1 will be allowed across the trunk.
• Only the native VLAN will be allowed across the trunk
• All VLANs will be allowed across the trunk

Explanation

Question 33 of 103

33. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring inter-VLAN routing on a network. For now, only one VLAN is being used, but more will be added soon. What is the missing parameter that is shown as the highlighted question mark in the graphic?

Select one of the following:

• It identifies the type of encapsulation that is used
• It identifies the VLAN number
• It identifies the number of hosts that are allowed on the interface
• It identifies the native VLAN number
• It identifies the subinterface

Explanation

Question 34 of 103

34. A network administrator is designing an ACL. The networks 192.168.1.0/25, 192.168.0.0/25, 192.168.0.128/25, 192.168.1.128/26, and 192.168.1.192/26 are affected by the ACL. Which wildcard mask, if any, is the most efficient to use when specifying all of these networks in a single ACL permit entry?

Select one of the following:

• 0.0.0.127
• 0.0.0.255
• 0.0.1.255
• 0.0.255.255
• A single ACL command and wildcard mask should not be used to specify these particular networks or other traffic will be permitted or denied and present a security risk.

Explanation

Question 35 of 103

35. The computers used by the network administrators for a school are on the 10.7.0.0/27 network. Which two commands are needed at a minimum to apply an ACL that will ensure that only devices that are used by the network administrators will be allowed Telnet access to the routers? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

• access-class 5 in
• access-list 5 deny any
• access-list standard VTY
• permit 10.7.0.0 0.0.0.127
• access-list 5 permit 10.7.0.0 0.0.0.31
• ip access-group 5 out
• ip access-group 5 in

Explanation

Question 36 of 103

36. A network engineer has created a standard ACL to control SSH access to a router. Which command will apply the ACL to the VTY lines?

Select one of the following:

access-group 11 in
access-class 11 in
access-list 11 in
access-list 110 in

Explanation

Question 37 of 103

37. What is the reason why the DHCPREQUEST message is sent as a broadcast during the DHCPv4 process?

Select one of the following:

• for hosts on other subnets to receive the information
• to notify other hosts not to request the same IP address
• for routers to fill their routing tables with this new information
• to notify other DHCP servers on the subnet that the IP address was leased

Explanation

Question 38 of 103

38. Which set of commands will configure a router as a DHCP server that will assign IPv4 addresses to the 192.168.100.0/23 LAN while reserving the first 10 and the last addresses for static assignment?

Select one of the following:

• ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.100.1 192.168.100.10
ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.100.254
ip dhcp pool LAN POOL-100
network 192.168.100.0 255.255.255.0
ip default gateway 192.168.100.1
• ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.100.1 192.168.100.9
ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.101.254
ip dhcp pool LAN POOL-100 ip
network 192.168.100.0 255.255.254.0
ip default-gateway 192.168.100.1
• ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.100.1 192.168.100.10
ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.101.254
ip dhcp pool LAN POOL-100
network 192.168.100.0 255.255.254.0
default-router 192.168.100.1
• dhcp pool LAN-POOL 100
ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.100.1 192.168.100.9
ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.100.254
network 192.168.100.0 255.255.254.0
default-router 192.168.101.1

Explanation

Question 39 of 103

39. Which command, when issued in the interface configuration mode of a router, enables the interface to acquire an IPv4 address automatically from an ISP, when that link to the ISP is enabled?

Select one of the following:

• ip dhcp pool
• ip address dhcp
• service dhcp
• ip helper-address

Explanation

Question 40 of 103

40. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring a router as a DHCPv6 server. The administrator issues a show ipv6 dhcp pool command to verify the configuration. Which statement explains the reason that the number of active clients is 0?

Select one of the following:

• The default gateway address is not provided in the pool.
• No clients have communicated with the DHCPv6 server yet.
• The IPv6 DHCP pool configuration has no IPv6 address range specified.
• The state is not maintained by the DHCPv6 server under stateless DHCPv6 operation.

Explanation

Question 41 of 103

41. Refer to the exhibit. R1 has been configured as shown. However, PC1 is not able to receive an IPv4 address. What is the problem?

Select one of the following:

• A DHCP server must be installed on the same LAN as the host that is receiving the IP address.
• R1 is not configured as a DHCPv4 server.
• The ip address dhcp command was not issued on the interface Gi0/1.
• The ip helper-address command was applied on the wrong interface.

Explanation

Question 42 of 103

42. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement shown in the output allows router R1 to respond to stateless DHCPv6 requests?

Select one of the following:

• ipv6 unicast-routing
• ipv6 nd other-config-flag
• ipv6 dhcp server LAN1
• prefix-delegation 2001:DB8:8::/48 00030001000E84244E70
• dns-server 2001:DB8:8::8

Explanation

Question 43 of 103

43. What is used in the EUI-64 process to create an IPv6 interface ID on an IPv6 enabled interface?

Select one of the following:

the MAC address of the IPv6 enabled interface
a randomly generated 64-bit hexadecimal address
an IPv6 address that is provided by a DHCPv6 server
an IPv4 address that is configured on the interface

Explanation

Question 44 of 103

44. Refer to the exhibit. NAT is configured on Remote and Main. The PC is sending a request to the web server. What IPv4 address is the source IP address in the packet between Main and the web server?

Select one of the following:

• 10.130.5.76
• 209.165.200.245
• 203.0.113.5
• 172.16.1.10
• 192.0.2.1
• 209.165.200.226

Explanation

Question 45 of 103

45. Which type of traffic would most likely have problems when passing through a NAT device?

Select one of the following:

• Telnet
• IPsec
• HTTP
• ICMP
• DNS

Explanation

Question 46 of 103

46. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are correct based on the output as shown in the exhibit? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

• The output is the result of the show ip nat translations command
• Traffic with the destination address of a public web server will be sourced from the IP of 192.168.1.10.
• The host with the address 209.165.200.235 will respond to requests by using a source address of 192.168.10.10.
• The output is the result of the show ip nat statistics command
• The host with the address 209.165.200.235 will respond to requests by using a source address of 209.165.200.235

Explanation

Question 47 of 103

47. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has configured R2 for PAT. Why is the configuration incorrect?

Select one of the following:

• NAT-POOL2 is bound to the wrong ACL
• The ACL does not define the list of addresses to be translated.
• The overload keyword should not have been applied.
• The static NAT entry is missing

Explanation

Question 48 of 103

48. A small company has a web server in the office that is accessible from the Internet. The IP address 192.168.10.15 is assigned to the web server. The network administrator is configuring the router so that external clients can access the web server over the Internet. Which item is required in the NAT configuration?

Select one of the following:

an IPv4 address pool
an ACL to identify the local IPv4 address of the web server
the keyword overload for the ip nat inside source command
the ip nat inside source command to link the inside local and inside global addresses

Explanation

Question 49 of 103

49. A college marketing department has a networked storage device that uses the IP address 10.18.7.5, TCP port 443 for encryption, and UDP port 4365 for video streaming. The college already uses PAT on the router that connects to the Internet. The router interface has the public IP address of 209.165.200.225/30. The IP NAT pool currently uses the IP addresses ranging from 209.165.200.228.236. Which configuration would the network administrator add to allow this device to be accessed by the marketing personnel from home?

Select one of the following:

• ip nat inside source static tcp 209.165.200.225 443 10.18.7.5 443
ip nat inside source static udp 209.165.200.225 4365 10.18.7.5 4365
• No additional configuration is necessary
• ip nat pool mktv 10.18.7.5 10.18.7.5
• ip nat inside source static tcp 10.18.7.5 443 209.165.200.225 443
ip nat inside source static udp 10.18.7.5 4365 209.165.200.225 4365
• ip nat outside source static 10.18.7.5 209.165.200.225

Explanation

Question 50 of 103

50. Refer to the exhibit. Based on the output that is shown, what type of NAT has been implemented?

Select one of the following:

• static NAT with a NAT pool
• static NAT with one entry
• dynamic NAT with a pool of two public IP addresses
• PAT using an external interface

Explanation

Question 51 of 103

51. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is trying to configure PAT on R1, but PC-A is unable to access the Internet. The administrator tries to ping a server on the Internet from PC-A and collects the debugs that are shown in the exhibit. Based on this output, what is most likely the cause of the problem?

Select one of the following:

• The inside and outside NAT interlaces have been configured backwards
• The inside global address is not on the same subnet as the ISP
• The address on Fa0/0 should be 64.100.0.1.
• The NAT source access list matches the wrong address range.

Explanation

Question 52 of 103

52. A network engineer is interested in obtaining specific information relevant to the operation of both distribution and access layer Cisco devices. Which command provides common information relevant to both types of devices?

Select one of the following:

• show port-security
• show ip interface
• show ip protocols
• show mac-address-table
• show cdp neighbors

Explanation

Question 53 of 103

53. Which two statements are correct if a configured NTP master on a network cannot reach any clock with a lower stratum number? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

• The NTP master will claim to be synchronized at the configured stratum number.
• An NTP server with a higher stratum number will become the master.
• Other systems will be willing to synchronize to that master using NTP.
• The NTP master will be the clock with 1 as its stratum number.
• The NTP master will lower its stratum number

Explanation

Question 54 of 103

54. What are three functions provided by the syslog service? (Choose three.)

Select one or more of the following:

• to specify the destinations of captured messages
• to periodically poll agents for data
• to select the type of logging information that is captured
• to gather logging information for monitoring and troubleshooting
• to provide traffic analysis
• to provide statistics on packets that are flowing through a Cisco device

Explanation

Question 55 of 103

55. Refer to the exhibit. Which three hosts will receive ARP requests from host A, assuming that port Fa0/4 on both switches is configured to carry traffic for multiple VLANs? (Choose three.)

Select one or more of the following:

host B
host C
host D
host E
host F
host G

Explanation

Question 56 of 103

56. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is examining the message in a syslog server. What can be determined from the message?

Select one of the following:

• This is an error message that indicates the system is unusable.
• This is an alert message for which immediate action is needed
• This is an error message for which warning conditions exist
• This is a notification message for a normal but significant condition

Explanation

Question 57 of 103

57. When a customer purchases a Cisco IOS 15.0 software package, what serves as the receipt for that customer and is used to obtain the license as well?

Select one of the following:

• Software Claim Certificate
• Unique Device Identifier
• End User License Agreement
• Product Activation Key

Explanation

Question 58 of 103

58. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator enters these commands into the R1 router: R1# copy running-config tftp
Address or name of remote host [ ]?When the router prompts for an address or remote host name, what IP address should the administrator enter at the prompt?

Select one of the following:

• 192.168.10.2
• 192.168.11.252
• 192.168.11.254
• 192.168.9.254
• 192.168.10.1

Explanation

Question 59 of 103

59. Which configuration would be appropriate for a small business that has the public IP address of 209.165.200.225/30 assigned to the external interface on the router that connects to the Internet?

Select one of the following:

access-list 1 permit 10.0.0.0 0.255.255.255
ip nat inside source list 1 interface serial 0/0/0 overload
access-list 1 permit 10.0.0.0 0.255.255.255
ip nat pool comp 192.168.2.1 192.168.2.8 netmask 255.255.255.240
ip nat inside source list 1 pool compaccess-list 1 permit 10.0.0.0 0.255.255.255
ip nat pool comp 192.168.2.1 192.168.2.8 netmask 255.255.255.240
ip nat inside source list 1 pool comp overloadaccess-list 1 permit 10.0.0.0 0.255.255.255
ip nat pool comp 192.168.2.1 192.168.2.8 netmask 255.255.255.240
ip nat inside source list 1 pool comp overload
ip nat inside source static 10.0.0.5 209.165.200.225

Explanation

Question 60 of 103

60. Match the router memory type that provides the primary storage for the router feature. (Not all options are used.)

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 61 of 103

61. Match each borderless switched network principle to its description (Not all options are used)

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 62 of 103

62. Match the description to the correct VLAN type (Notall options are used )

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 63 of 103

63. Refer to the exhibit. Host A has sent a packet to host B. What will be the source MAC and IP addresses on the packet when it arrives at host B?

Select one of the following:

Source MAC: 00E0.FE10.17A3
Source IP: 10.1.1.10
Source MAC: 00E0.FE91.7799
Source IP: 10.1.1.10
Source MAC: 00E0.FE91.7799
Source IP: 10.1.1.1
Source MAC: 00E0.FE91.7799
Source IP: 192.168.1.1
Source MAC: 00E0.FE10.17A3
Source IP: 192.168.1.1

Explanation

Question 64 of 103

64. What benefit does NAT64 provide?

Select one of the following:

• It allows sites to use private IPv6 addresses and translates them to global IPv6 addresses.
• It allows sites to connect multiple IPv4 hosts to the Internet via the use of a single public IPv4 address.
• It allows sites to use private IPv4 addresses, and thus hides the internal addressing structure from hosts on public IPv4 networks.
• It allows sites to connect IPv6 hosts to an IPv4 network by translating the IPv6 addresses to IPv4 addresses.

Explanation

Question 65 of 103

65. What is the effect of configuring the ipv6 unicast-routing command on a router?

Select one of the following:

to assign the router to the all-nodes multicast group
to enable the router as an IPv6 router
to permit only unicast packets on the router
to prevent the router from joining the all-routers multicast group

Explanation

Question 66 of 103

66. What is a characteristic of a static route that creates a gateway of last resort?

Select one of the following:

It backs up a route already discovered by a dynamic routing protocol.
It uses a single network address to send multiple static routes to one destination address.
It identifies the gateway IP address to which the router sends all IP packets for which it does not have a learned or static route
It is configured with a higher administrative distance than the original dynamic routing protocol has.

Explanation

Question 67 of 103

67. Refer to the exhibit. Which route was configured as a static route to a specific network using the next-hop address?

Select one of the following:

• S 0.0.0.0/0 [1/0] via 172.16.2.2
• S 192.168.2.0/24 is directly connected. Serial 0/0/0
• S 192.168.2.0/24 [1/0] via 172.16.2.2
• C 172.16.2.0/24 is directly connected. Serial0/0/0

Explanation

Question 68 of 103

68. Refer to the exhibit. Which command will properly configure an IPv6 static route on R2 that will allow traffic from PC2 to reach PC1 without any recursive lookups by router R2?

Select one of the following:

R2(config)# ipv6 route 2001:db8:10:12::/64 2001:db8:32::1
R2(config)# ipv6 route 2001:db8:10:12::/64 S0/0/0
R2(config)# ipv6 route ::/0 2001:db8:32::1
R2(config)# ipv6 route 2001:db8:10:12::/64 S0/0/1

Explanation

Question 69 of 103

69. Which network design may be recommended for a small campus site that consists of a single building with a few users?

Select one of the following:

a network design where the access and distribution layers are collapsed into a single layer
a network design where the access and core layers are collapsed into a single layer
a collapsed core network design
a three-tier campus network design where the access, distribution, and core are all separate layers, each one with very specific functions

Explanation

Question 70 of 103

70. Which information does a switch use to keep the MAC address table information current?

Select one of the following:

the destination MAC address and the incoming port
the destination MAC address and the outgoing port
the source and destination MAC addresses and the incoming port
the source and destination MAC addresses and the outgoing port
the source MAC address and the incoming port
the source MAC address and the outgoing port

Explanation

Question 71 of 103

71. Which advantage does the store-and-forward switching method have compared with the cut-through switching method?

Select one of the following:

collision detecting
frame error checking
faster frame forwarding
frame forwarding using IPv4 Layer 3 and 4 information

Explanation

Question 72 of 103

72. Which characteristic describes cut-through switching?

Select one of the following:

• Frames are forwarded without any error checking.
• Error-free fragments are forwarded, so switching accurs with lower latency.
• Buffering is used to support different Ethernet speeds.
• Only outgoing frames are checked for errors.

Explanation

Question 73 of 103

73. What is a result of connecting two or more switches together?

Select one of the following:

The number of broadcast domains is increased.
The size of the broadcast domain is increased.
The number of collision domains is reduced.
The size of the collision domain is increased.

Explanation

Question 74 of 103

74. A part of the new security policy, all switches on the network are configured to automatically learn MAC addresses for each port. All running configurations are saved at the start and close of every business day. A severe thunderstorm causes an extended power outage several hours after the close of business. When the switches are brought back online, the dynamically learned MAC addresses are retained. Which port security configuration enabled this?

Select one of the following:

auto secure MAC addresses
dynamic secure MAC addresses
static secure MAC addresses
sticky secure MAC addresses

Explanation

Question 75 of 103

75. Which commands are used to re-enable a port that has been disabled as a result of a port security violation?

Select one of the following:

shutdown
no shutdown
no switchport port-securityshutdown
no switchport port-security violation shutdownshutdown
no switchport port-security maximum

Explanation

Question 76 of 103

76. Which two characteristics describe the native VLAN? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

• Designed to carry traffic that is generated by users, this type of VLAN is also known as the default VLAN.
• The native VLAN traffic will be untagged across the trunk link.
• This VLAN is necessary for remote management of a switch.
• High priority traffic, such as voice traffic, uses the native VLAN.
• The native VLAN provides a common identifier to both ends of a trunk.

Explanation

Question 77 of 103

77. Which type of traffic is designed for a native VLAN?

Select one of the following:

• management
• user-generated
• tagged
• untagged

Explanation

Question 78 of 103

78. Which statement describes a characteristic of the extended range VLANs that are created on a Cisco 2960 switch?

Select one of the following:

They are numbered VLANs 1002 to 1005.
They cannot be used across multiple switches.
They are reserved to support Token Ring VLANs.
They are not stored in the vlan.dat file.

Explanation

Question 79 of 103

79. A network administrator is using the router-on-a-stick method to configure inter-VLAN routing. Switch port Gi1/1 is used to connect to the router. Which command should be entered to prepare this port for the task?

Select one of the following:

• Switch(config)# interface gigabitethernet 1/1
Switch(config-if)# spanning-tree vlan 1
• Switch(config)# interface gigabitethernet 1/1
Switch(config-if)# spanning-tree portfast
• Switch(config)# interface gigabitethernet 1/1
Switch(config-if)# switchport mode trunk
• Switch(config)# interface gigabitethernet 1/1
Switch(config-if)# switchport access vlan 1

Explanation

Question 80 of 103

80. What will be the result of adding the command ip dhcp excluded-address 172.16.4.1 172.16.4.5 to the configuration of a local router that has been configured as a DHCP server?

Select one of the following:

Traffic that is destined for 172.16.4.1 and 172.16.4.5 will be dropped by the router.
Traffic will not be routed from clients with addresses between 172.16.4.1 and 172.16.4.5.
The DHCP server function of the router will not issue the addresses from 172.16.4.1 through 172.16.4.5 inclusive.
The router will ignore all traffic that comes from the DHCP servers with addresses 172.16.4.1 and 172.16.4.5.

Explanation

Question 81 of 103

81. A host on the 10.10.100.0/24 LAN is not being assigned an IPv4 address by an enterprise DHCP server with the address 10.10.200.10/24. What is the best way for the network engineer to resolve this problem?

Select one of the following:

Issue the command ip helper-address 10.10.200.10 on the router interface that is the 10.10.100.0/24 gateway.
Issue the command default-router 10.10.200.10 at the DHCP configuration prompt on the 10.10.100.0/24 LAN gateway router.
Issue the command ip helper-address 10.10.100.0 on the router interface that is the 10.10.200.0/24 gateway.
Issue the command network 10.10.200.0 255.255.255.0 at the DHCP configuration prompt on the 10.10.100.0/24 LAN gateway router.

Explanation

Question 82 of 103

82. What is used in the EUI-64 process to create an IPv6 interface ID on an IPv6 enabled interface?

Select one of the following:

the MAC address of the IPv6 enabled interface
a randomly generated 64-bit hexadecimal address
an IPv6 address that is provided by a DHCPv6 server
an IPv4 address that is configured on the interface

Explanation

Question 83 of 103

83. An administrator is trying to remove configurations from a switch. After using the command erase startup-config and reloading the switch, the administrator finds that VLANs 10 and 100 still exist on the switch. Why were these VLANs not removed?

Select one of the following:

These VLANs are default VLANs that cannot be removed.
These VLANs cannot be deleted unless the switch is in VTP client mode.
These VLANs can only be removed from the switch by using the no vlan 10 and no vlan 100 commands.
Because these VLANs are stored in a file that is called vlan.dat that is located in flash memory, this file must be manually deleted.

Explanation

Question 84 of 103

84. Refer to the exhibit. Inter-VLAN communication between VLAN 10, VLAN 20, and VLAN 30 is not successful. What is the problem?

Select one of the following:

The access interfaces do not have IP addresses and each should be configured with an IP address.
The switch interface FastEthernet0/1 is configured as an access interface and should be configured as a trunk interface.
The switch interface FastEthernet0/1 is configured to not negotiate and should be configured to negotiate.
The switch interfaces FastEthernet0/2, FastEthernet0/3, and FastEthernet0/4 are configured to not negotiate and should be configured to negotiate.

Explanation

Question 85 of 103

85. A network administrator is configuring an ACL with the command access-list 10 permit 172.16.32.0 0.0.15.255. Which IPv4 address matches the ACE?

Select one of the following:

172.16.20.2
172.16.26.254
172.16.47.254
172.16.48.5

Explanation

Question 86 of 103

86. Refer to the exhibit. A PC at address 10.1.1.45 is unable to access the Internet. What is the most likely cause of the problem?

Select one of the following:

The NAT pool has been exhausted.
The wrong netmask was used on the NAT pool.
Access-list 1 has not been configured properly.
The inside and outside interfaces have been configured backwards.

Explanation

Question 87 of 103

87. A network administrator is verifying a configuration that involves network monitoring. What is the purpose of the global configuration command logging trap 4?

Select one of the following:

System messages will be forwarded to the number following the logging trap argument.
System messages that exist in levels 4-7 must be forwarded to a specific logging server.
System messages that match logging levels 0-4 will be forwarded to a specified logging device.
System messages will be forwarded using a SNMP version that matches the argument that follows the logging trap command.

Explanation

Question 88 of 103

88. What is indicated by the M in the Cisco IOS image name c1900-universalk9-mz.SPA.153-3.M.bin?

Select one of the following:

a maintenance deployment release
a minor release
a mainline release
an extended maintenance release

Explanation

Question 89 of 103

89. Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer is preparing to upgrade the IOS system image on a Cisco 2901 router. Based on the output shown, how much space is available for the new image?

Select one of the following:

25574400 bytes
249856000 bytes
221896413 bytes
33591768 bytes

Explanation

Question 90 of 103

90. Refer to the exhibit. Based on the exhibited configuration and output, why is VLAN 99 missing?

Select one of the following:

because there is a cabling problem on VLAN 99
because VLAN 99 is not a valid management VLAN
because VLAN 1 is up and there can only be one management VLAN on the switch
because VLAN 99 needs to be entered as a VLAN under an interface before it can become an active interface
because the VLAN 99 has not been manually entered into the VLAN database with the vlan 99 command

Explanation

Question 91 of 103

91. Order the DHCP process steps. (Not all options are used.)

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 92 of 103

92. Refer to the exhibit. Assuming that the routing tables are up to date and no ARP messages are needed, after a packet leaves H1, how many times is the L2 header rewritten in the path to H3?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 93 of 103

93. Refer to the exhibit. Which highlighted value represents a specific destination network in the routing table?

Select one of the following:

172.16.100.64
172.16.100.2
110
791
0.0.0.0

Explanation

Question 94 of 103

94. On which two routers would a default static route be configured? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

stub router connection to the rest of the corporate or campus network
any router where a backup route to dynamic routing is needed for reliability
edge router connection to the ISP
any router running an IOS prior to 12.0
the router that serves as the gateway of last resort

Explanation

Question 95 of 103

95. The exhibit shows two PCs called PC A and PC B, two routes called R1 and R2, and two switches. PC A has the address 172.16.1.1/24 and is connected to a switch and into an interface on R1 that has the IP address 172.16.1.254. PC B has the address 172.16.2.1/24 and is connected to a switch that is connected to another interface on R1 with the IP address 172.16.2.254. The serial interface on R1 has the address 172.16.3.1 and is connected to the serial interface on R2 that has the address 172.16.3.2/24. R2 is connected to the internet cloud. Which command will create a static route on R2 in order to reach PC B?

Select one of the following:

• R2(config)# ip route 172.16.2.1 255.255.255.0 172.16.3.1
• R2(config)# ip route 172.16.2.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.2.254
• R2(config)# ip route 172.16.2.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.3.1
• R2(config)# ip route 172.16.3.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.2.254

Explanation

Question 96 of 103

96. Refer to the exhibit. R1 was configured with the static route command ip route 209.165.200.224 255.255.255.224 S0/0/0 and consequently users on network 172.16.0.0/16 are unable to reach resources on the Internet. How should this static route be changed to allow user traffic from the LAN to reach the Internet?

Select one of the following:

Add an administrative distance of 254.
Change the destination network and mask to 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0
Change the exit interface to S0/0/1.
Add the next-hop neighbor address of 209.165.200.226.

Explanation

Question 97 of 103

97. Refer to the exhibit. Router R1 has an OSPF neighbor relationship with the ISP router over the 192.168.0.32 network. The 192.168.0.36 network link should serve as a backup when the OSPF link goes down. The floating static route command ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 S0/0/1 100 was issued on R1 and now traffic is using the backup link even when the OSPF link is up and functioning. Which change should be made to the static route command so that traffic will only use the OSPF link when it is up?

Select one of the following:

Add the next hop neighbor address of 192.168.0.36.
Change the administrative distance to 1.
Change the destination network to 192.168.0.34.
Change the administrative distance to 120.

Explanation

Question 98 of 103

98. Refer to the exhibit. All hosts and router interfaces are configured correctly. Pings to the server from both H1 and H2 and pings between H1 and H2 are not successful. What is causing this problem?

Select one of the following:

RIPv2 does not support VLSM.
RIPv2 is misconfigured on router R1.
RIPv2 is misconfigured on router R2.
RIPv2 is misconfigured on router R3.
RIPv2 does not support discontiguous networks.

Explanation

Question 99 of 103

99. What caused the following error message to appear?01:11:12: %PM-4-ERR_DISABLE: psecure-violation error detected on Fa0/8, putting Fa0/8 in err-disable state01:11:12: %PORT_SECURITY-2-PSECURE_VIOLATION: Security violation occurred, caused by MAC address 0011.a0d4.12a0 on port FastEthernet0/8.01:11:13: %LINEPROTO-5-UPDOWN: Line protocol on Interface FastEthernet0/8, changed state to down01:11:14: %LINK-3-UPDOWN: Interface FastEthernet0/8, changed state to down

Select one of the following:

• Another switch was connected to this switch port with the wrong cable.
• An unauthorized user tried to telnet to the switch through switch port Fa0/8.
• NAT was enabled on a router, and a private IP address arrived on switch port Fa0/8.
• A host with an invalid IP address was connected to a switch port that was previously unused.
• Port security was enabled on the switch port, and an unauthorized connection was made on switch port Fa0/8.

Explanation

Question 100 of 103

100. Refer to the exhibit.
A company has an internal network of 172.16.25.0/24 for their employee workstations and a DMZ network of 172.16.12.0/24 to host servers. The company uses NAT when inside hosts connect to outside network. A network administrator issues the show ip nat translations command to check the NAT configurations. Which one of source IPv4 addresses is translated by R1 with PAT?

Select one of the following:

• 10.0.0.31
• 172.16.12.5
• 172.16.12.33
• 192.168.1.10
• 172.16.25.35

Explanation

Question 101 of 103

101. What is the purpose of the Cisco PAK?

Select one of the following:

It is a key for enabling an IOS feature set.
It is a proprietary encryption algorithm.
It is a compression file type used when installing IOS 15 or an IOS upgrade.
It is a way to compress an existing IOS so that a newer IOS version can be co-installed on a router.

Explanation

Question 102 of 103

102. Refer to the exhibit. A small business uses VLANs 2, 3, 4, and 5 between two switches that have a trunk link between them. What native VLAN should be used on the trunk if Cisco best practices are being implemented?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 103 of 103

103. Refer to the exhibit. NAT is configured on RT1 and RT2. The PC is sending a request to the web server. What IPv4 address is the source IP address in the packet between RT2 and the web server?

Select one of the following:

192.0.2.2
172.16.1.10
203.0.113.10
172.16.1.254
192.168.1.5
209.165.200.245

Explanation

Check answer

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	Created by Alex Q almost 6 years ago

Quiz on CCNA 2 v6.0 Final Exam Answers 2018 – Routing & Switching Essentials, created by Alex Q on 15/05/2018.

CCNA 2 v6.0 Final Exam Answers 2018 – Routing & Switching Essentials

Question 1 of 103

Refer to the exhibit. Assuming that the routing tables are up to date and no ARP messages are needed, after a packet leaves H1, how many times is the L2 header rewritten in the path to H2?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 2 of 103

Refer to the exhibit. Which highlighted value represents a specific destination network in the routing table?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 3 of 103

Which type of static route is configured with a greater administrative distance to provide a backup route to a route learned from a dynamic routing protocol?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 4 of 103

A network administrator reviews the routing table on the router and sees a route to the destination network 172.16.64.0/18 with a next-hop IP address of 192.168.1.1. What are two descriptions of this route? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 5 of 103

Refer to the exhibit. Which route was configured as a static route to a specific network using the next-hop address?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 6 of 103

What network prefix and prefix-length combination is used to create a default static route that will match any IPv6 destination?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 7 of 103

A router has used the OSPF protocol to learn a route to the 172.16.32.0/19 network. Which command will implement a backup floating static route to this network?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 8 of 103

Refer to the exhibit. Currently router R1 uses an EIGRP route learned from Branch2 to reach the 10.10.0.0/16 network. Which floating static route would create a backup route to the 10.10.0.0/16 network in the event that the link between R1 and Branch2 goes down?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 9 of 103

Which two factors are important when deciding which interior gateway routing protocol to use? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 10 of 103

6. Employees of a company connect their wireless laptop computers to the enterprise LAN via wireless access points that are cabled to the Ethernet ports of switches. At which layer of the three-layer hierarchical network design model do these switches operate?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 11 of 103

7. What is a basic function of the Cisco Borderless Architecture access layer?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 12 of 103

12. Which statement describes a route that has been learned dynamically?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 13 of 103

13. Compared with dynamic routes, what are two advantages of using static routes on a router? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 14 of 103

14. To enable RIP routing for a specific subnet, the configuration command network 172.16.64.32 was entered by the network administrator. What address, if any, appears in the running configuration file to identify this network?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 15 of 103

15. A network administrator adds the default-information originate command to the configuration of a router that uses RIP as the routing protocol. What will result from adding this command?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 16 of 103

16. Refer to the exhibit. What is the administrative distance value that indicates the route for R2 to reach the 10.10.0.0/16 network?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 17 of 103

17. Which route will a router use to forward an IPv4 packet after examining its routing table for the best match with the destination address?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 18 of 103

18. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is attempting to install an IPv6 static route on router R1 to reach the network attached to router R2. After the static route command is entered, connectivity to the network is still failing. What error has been made in the static route configuration?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 19 of 103

19. What is a characteristic of the distribution layer in the three layer hierarchical model?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 20 of 103

20. Which information does a switch use to populate the MAC address table?