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Aviation Interview Quiz on ATP EASA - Qatar 2, created by mmm mmm on 19/05/2018.

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ATP EASA - Qatar 2

Question 1 of 200

1

RED 22.3.4.0 (1390)
A ""TCAS II"" (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) provides:

Select one of the following:

  • a simple intruding airplane proximity warning.

  • the intruder relative position and possibly an indication of a collision avoidance
    manoeuvre within the vertical plane only.

  • the intruder relative position and possibly an indication of a collision avoidance manoeuvre
    within both the vertical and horizontal planes.

  • the intruder relative position and possibly an indication of a collision avoidance manoeuvre
    within the horizontal plane only.

Explanation

Question 2 of 200

1

RED 22.3.4.0 (1394)
The principle of the TCAS (Traffic Collision Avoidance Systems) is based on the use of :

Select one of the following:

  • airborne weather radar system

  • transponders fitted in the aircraft

  • F.M.S. (Flight Management System)

  • air traffic control radar systems

Explanation

Question 3 of 200

1

RED (1398)
When the intruding aircraft is equipped with a transponder without altitude reporting capability, the TCAS (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) issues a :

Select one of the following:

  • ""traffic advisory"" and horizontal ""resolution advisory""

  • ""traffic advisory"" only.

  • ""traffic advisory"" and vertical ""resolution advisory"".

  • ""traffic advisory"", vertical and horizontal ""resolution advisory"".

Explanation

Question 4 of 200

1

RED 22.3.4.0 (1399)
When the intruding aircraft is equipped with a serviceable mode C transponder,
the TCAS II (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) generates a :

Select one of the following:

  • ""traffic advisory"" and vertical ""resolution advisory"".

  • ""traffic advisory"" and horizontal ""resolution advisory"".

  • ""traffic advisory"" only.

  • ""traffic advisory"", vertical and horizontal ""resolution advisory"".

Explanation

Question 5 of 200

1

RED 22.3.4.0 (1403)
A ""resolution advisory"" (RA) is represented on the display system of the TCAS 2 (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) by a :

Select one of the following:

  • blue or white empty lozenge.

  • red full square.

  • blue or white full lozenge

  • red full circle.

Explanation

Question 6 of 200

1

RED 22.3.6.0 (1408)
The stall warning system receives information about the :
1- airplane angle of attack
2- airplane speed
3- airplane bank angle
4- airplane configuration
5- load factor on the airplane
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

Select one of the following:

  • 1, 4

  • 1, 2, 3, 4, 5

  • 2, 3, 4, 5

  • 1, 3, 5

Explanation

Question 7 of 200

1

RED 22.3.6.0 (1409)
A stall warning system is based on a measure of:

Select one of the following:

  • airspeed.

  • aerodynamic incidence.

  • attitude.

  • groundspeed.

Explanation

Question 8 of 200

1

RED 22.3.6.0 (1415)
The stall warning system of a large transport airplane includes:
1- an angle of attack sensor
2- a computer
3- a transmitter originating from the anemometer
4- an independent pitot probe
5- a transmitter of the flap/slat position indicating
systemThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
a)
b)

Select one of the following:

  • 1, 2, 5.

  • 1, 2, 4.

  • 1,5

  • 2,5

Explanation

Question 9 of 200

1

RED 31.1.1.1 (1489)
The centre of gravity of a body is that point

Select one of the following:

  • through which the sum of the forces of all masses of the body is considered to act.

  • where the sum of the moments from the external forces acting on the body is equal to
    zero.

  • where the sum of the external forces is equal to zero.

  • which is always used as datum when computing moments.

Explanation

Question 10 of 200

1

RED 31.1.1.1 (1494)
The centre of gravity is the

Select one of the following:

  • centre of thrust along the longitudinal axis, in relation to a datum line

  • point where all the aircraft mass is considered to be concentrated

  • focus along the longitudinal axis, in relation to a datum line

  • neutral point along the longitudinal axis, in relation to a datum line

Explanation

Question 11 of 200

1

RED 31.1.2.0 (1503)
With the centre of gravity on the forward limit which of the following is to be expected?

Select one of the following:

  • A decrease in the landing speed.

  • A decrease in range.

  • A decrease of the stalling speed.

  • A tendency to yaw to the right on take-off.

Explanation

Question 12 of 200

1

RED 31.1.2.4 (1526)
Which of the following statements is correct?

Select one of the following:

  • The Maximum Landing Mass of an aeroplane is restricted by structural limitations, performance limitations and the strength of the runway.

  • The Maximum Zero Fuel Mass ensures that the centre of gravity remains within limits after the uplift of fuel.

  • The Maximum Take-off Mass is equal to the maximum mass when leaving the ramp.

  • The Basic Empty Mass is equal to the mass of the aeroplane excluding traffic load and useable fuel but including the crew.

Explanation

Question 13 of 200

1

RED 31.1.2.5 (1531)
Assuming gross mass, altitude and airspeed remain unchanged, movement of the centre of gravity from the forward to the aft limit will cause

Select one of the following:

  • increased cruise range.

  • higher stall speed.

  • lower optimum cruising speed.

  • reduced maximum cruise range.

Explanation

Question 14 of 200

1

RED 31.1.2.5 (1537)
In cruise flight, an aft centre of gravity location will:

Select one of the following:

  • decrease longitudinal static stability

  • increase longitudinal static stability

  • does not influence longitudinal static stability

  • not change the static curve of stability into longitudinal

Explanation

Question 15 of 200

1

RED 31.2.4.1 (1630)
An additional baggage container is loaded into the aft cargo compartment but is not entered into the load and trim sheet. The aeroplane will be heavier than expected and calculated take-off safety speeds:

Select one of the following:

  • will be greater than required

  • will give reduced safety margins

  • will not be achieved

  • are unaffected but V1 will be increased

Explanation

Question 16 of 200

1

RED 31.3.1.0 (1639)
The centre of gravity location of the aeroplane is normally computed along the:

Select one of the following:

  • lateral axis.

  • longitudinal axis.

  • vertical axis.

  • horizontal axis.

Explanation

Question 17 of 200

1

RED 32.1.1.0 (1723)
Given:VS= Stalling speedVMCA= Air minimum control speed VMU= Minimum
unstick speed (disregarding engine failure)V1= take-off decision speedVR=
Rotation speedV2 min.= Minimum take-off safety speedVLOF: Lift-off speed The
correct formula is:

Select one of the following:

  • VR< VMCA< VLOF

  • VS< VMCA< V2 min

  • VMU<= VMCA< V1

  • V2min< VMCA> VMU

Explanation

Question 18 of 200

1

RED 32.1.1.0 (1720)
Density altitude is the

Select one of the following:

  • altitude reference to the standard datum plane

  • pressure altitude corrected for 'non standard' temperature

  • altitude read directly from the altimeter

  • height above the surface

Explanation

Question 19 of 200

1

RED 32.1.1.0 (1721)
The Density Altitude

Select one of the following:

  • is equal to the pressure altitude.

  • is used to determine the aeroplane performance.

  • is used to establish minimum clearance of 2.000 feet over mountains.

  • is used to calculate the FL above the Transition Altitude.

Explanation

Question 20 of 200

1

RED 32.1.2.1 (1747)
An increase in atmospheric pressure has, among other things, the following consequences on landing performance:

Select one of the following:

  • an increased landing distance and degraded go-around performance

  • a reduced landing distance and improved go-around performance

  • an increased landing distance and improved go-around performance

  • a reduced landing distance and degraded go around performance

Explanation

Question 21 of 200

1

RED 32.1.2.1 (1749)
A decrease in atmospheric pressure has, among other things, the following consequences on take-off performance:

Select one of the following:

  • a reduced take-off distance and improved initial climb performance

  • an increased take-off distance and degraded initial climb performance

  • an increased take-off distance and improved initial climb performance

  • a reduced take-off distance and degraded initial climb performance

Explanation

Question 22 of 200

1

RED 32.1.3.0 (1766)
The 'climb gradient' is defined as the ratio of

Select one of the following:

  • the increase of altitude to distance over ground expressed as a percentage.

  • the increase of altitude to horizontal air distance expressed as a percentage.

  • true airspeed to rate of climb.

  • rate of climb to true airspeed.

Explanation

Question 23 of 200

1

RED 32.2.1.1 (1791)
The speed VLO is defined as

Select one of the following:

  • landing gear operating speed.

  • design low operating speed.

  • long distance operating speed.

  • lift off speed.

Explanation

Question 24 of 200

1

RED 32.2.1.1 (1789)
A multi engine aeroplane is flying at the minimum control speed (VMCA). Which parameter(s) must be maintainable after engine failure?

Select one of the following:

  • Straight flight and altitude

  • Straight flight

  • Heading, altitude and a positive rate of climb of 100 ft/min

  • Altitude

Explanation

Question 25 of 200

1

RED 32.2.2.1 (1797)
The result of a higher flap setting up to the optimum at take-off is

Select one of the following:

  • an increased acceleration.

  • a shorter ground roll.

  • a higher V1.

  • a longer take-off run.

Explanation

Question 26 of 200

1

RED 32.2.2.2 (1807)
The take-off distance required increases

Select one of the following:

  • due to head wind because of the drag augmentation.

  • due to slush on the runway.

  • due to downhill slope because of the smaller angle of attack.

  • due to lower gross mass at take-off.

Explanation

Question 27 of 200

1

RED 32.2.3.0 (1810)
What is the effect of a head wind component, compared to still air, on the maximum range speed (IAS) and the speed for maximum climb angle respectively?

Select one of the following:

  • Maximum range speed decreases and maximum climb angle speed decreases.

  • Maximum range speed increases and maximum climb angle speed stays constant.

  • Maximum range speed decreases and maximum climb angle speed increases.

  • Maximum range speed increases and maximum climb angle speed increases.

Explanation

Question 28 of 200

1

RED 32.2.3.1 (1811)
The stopway is an area which allows an increase only in :

Select one of the following:

  • the take-off run available.

  • the accelerate-stop distance available.

  • the take-off distance available.

  • the landing distance available.

Explanation

Question 29 of 200

1

RED 32.2.3.1 (1814)
Field length is balanced when

Select one of the following:

  • calculated V2 is less than 110% VMCA and V1, VR, VMCG.

  • take-off distance equals accelerate-stop distance.

  • all engine acceleration to V1 and braking distance for rejected take-off are equal.

  • one engine acceleration from V1 to VLOF plus flare distance between VLOF and 35 feet are
    equal.

Explanation

Question 30 of 200

1

RED 32.2.3.1 (1815)
What is the advantage of a balanced field length condition ?

Select one of the following:

  • For a balanced field length the required take-off runway length always equals the available

  • A balanced field length gives the minimum required field length in the event of an engine failure.

  • A balanced take-off provides the lowest elevator input force requirement for rotation.

Explanation

Question 31 of 200

1

RED 32.2.3.5 (1852)
The speed for maximum lift/drag ratio will result in :

Select one of the following:

  • The maximum range for a propeller driven aeroplane.

  • The maximum range for a jet aeroplane.

  • The maximum endurance for a propeller driven aeroplane.

  • The maximum angle of climb for a propeller driven aeroplane.

Explanation

Question 32 of 200

1

R 32.3.1.1 (1859)
An airport has a 3000 metres long runway, and a 2000 metres clearway at each end of that runway. For the calculation of the maximum allowed take-off mass, the take-off distance available cannot be greater than:

Select one of the following:

  • 4500 metres

  • 6000 metres.

  • 4000 metres.

  • 5000 metres.

Explanation

Question 33 of 200

1

R 32.3.1.1 (1861)
The take-off decision speed V1 is:

Select one of the following:

  • a chosen limit. If an engine failure is recognized after reaching V1 the take-off must be
    aborted.

  • a chosen limit. If an engine failure is recognized before reaching V1 the take-off must be aborted.

  • sometimes greater than the rotation speed VR.

  • not less than V2min, the minimum take-off safety speed.

Explanation

Question 34 of 200

1

R 32.3.1.1 (1862)
Minimum control speed on ground, VMCG, is based on directional control being maintained by:

Select one of the following:

  • primary aerodynamic control, nosewheel steering and differential braking.

  • primary aerodynamic control only.

  • primary aerodynamic control and nosewheel.

  • nosewheel steering only.

Explanation

Question 35 of 200

1

R 32.3.1.1 (1863)
The take-off performance requirements for transport category aeroplanes are based upon:

Select one of the following:

  • all engines operating.

  • only one engine operating.

  • failure of critical engine or all engines operating which ever gives the largest take off distance.

  • failure of critical engine.

Explanation

Question 36 of 200

1

R 32.3.1.1 (1864)
Which of the following distances will increase if you increase V1?
a)
b)
c)
d)

Select one of the following:

  • All Engine Take-off distance

  • Accelerate Stop Distance

  • Take-off distance

  • Take-off run

Explanation

Question 37 of 200

1

R 32.3.1.1 (1865)
The length of a clearway may be included in:

Select one of the following:

  • the accelerate-stop distance available.

  • the take-off run available.

  • the take-off distance available.

  • the distance to reach V1.

Explanation

Question 38 of 200

1

R 32.3.1.1 (1866)
The one engine out take-off run is the distance between the brake release point and:

Select one of the following:

  • the lift-off point.

  • the middle of the segment between VLOF point and 35 ft point.

  • the point where V2 is reached.

  • the point half way between V1 and V2.

Explanation

Question 39 of 200

1

R 32.3.1.1 (1867)
What is the advantage of balancing V1, even in the event of a climb limited takeoff?

Select one of the following:

  • The take-off distance required with one engine out at V1 is the shortest.

  • The safety margin with respect to the runway length is greatest.

  • The accelerate stop distance required is the shortest.

  • The climb limited take-off mass is the highest.

Explanation

Question 40 of 200

1

R 32.3.1.1 (1870)
Take-off run is defined as the

Select one of the following:

  • horizontal distance along the take-off path from the start of the take-off to a point equidistant between the point at which VLOF is reached and the point at which the aeroplane is 35 ft above the take-off surface.

  • distance to 35 feet with an engine failure at V1 or 115% all engine distance to 35 feet.

  • distance to V1 and stop, assuming an engine failure at V1.

  • Distance from brake release to V2.

Explanation

Question 41 of 200

1

R 32.3.1.1 (1872)
Which of the following statements is correct ?

Select one of the following:

  • An underrun is an area beyond the runway end which can be used for an aborted take-off.

  • A stopway means an area beyond the take-off runway, able to support the aeroplane during an aborted take-off.

  • A clearway is an area beyond the runway which can be used for an aborted take-off.

  • If a clearway or a stopway is used, the liftoff point must be attainable at least at the end of
    the permanent runway surface.

Explanation

Question 42 of 200

1

R 32.3.1.1 (1874)
Which of the following set of factors could lead to a V2 value which is limited by VMCA?
)

Select one of the following:

  • Low take-off mass, high flap setting and low field elevation.

  • Low take-off mass, low flap setting and low field elevation.

  • High take-off mass, high flap setting and low field elevation.

  • High take-off mass, low flap setting and high field elevation.

Explanation

Question 43 of 200

1

R 32.3.1.1 (1879)
With regard to a take-off from a wet runway, which of the following statements is correct?

Select one of the following:

  • The screen height can be lowered to reduce the mass penalties.

  • In case of a reverser inoperative the wet runway performance information can still be used.

  • Screen height cannot be reduced.

  • When the runway is wet, the V1 reduction is sufficient to maintain the same margins on the runway length.

Explanation

Question 44 of 200

1

R 32.3.1.1 (1880)
The take-off run is

Select one of the following:

  • the horizontal distance along the take-off path from the start of the take-off to a point equidistant between the point at which VLOF is reached and the point at which the aeroplane is 35 ft above the take-off surface.

  • 1.5 times the distance from the point of brake release to a point equidistant between the
    point at which VLOF is reached and the point at which the aeroplane attains a height of 35 ft
    above the runway with all engines operative.

  • 1.15 times the distance from the point of brake release to the point at which VLOF is
    reached assuming a failure of the critical engine at V1.

  • the distance of the point of brake release to a point equidistant between the point at which
    VLOF is reached and the point at which the aeroplane attains a height of 50 ft above the
    runway assuming a failure of the critical engine at V1.

Explanation

Question 45 of 200

1

R 32.3.1.1 (1881)
Can the length of a stopway be added to the runway length to determine the takeoff distance available ?

Select one of the following:

  • No.

  • No, unless its centerline is on the extended centerline of the runway.

  • Yes, but the stopway must be able to carry the weight of the aeroplane.

  • Yes, but the stopway must have the same width as the runway.

Explanation

Question 46 of 200

1

R 32.3.1.1 (1882)
Which is the correct sequence of speeds during take-off?

Select one of the following:

  • VMCG, V1, VR, V2.

  • V1, VMCG, VR, V2.

  • V1, VR, VMCG, V2.

  • V1, VR, V2, VMCA.

Explanation

Question 47 of 200

1

R 32.3.1.1 (1883)
Which statement regarding V1 is correct?

Select one of the following:

  • V1 is not allowed to be greater than VMCG.

  • V1 is not allowed to be greater than VR.

  • When determining the V1, reverse thrust is only allowed to be taken into account on the
    remaining symmetric engines.

  • The V1 correction for up-slope is negative.

Explanation

Question 48 of 200

1

R 32.3.1.1 (1885)
VR cannot be lower than:

Select one of the following:

  • V1 and 105% of VMCA.

  • 105% of V1 and VMCA.

  • 1.2 Vs for twin and three engine jet aeroplane.

  • 1.15 Vs for turbo-prop with three or more engines.

Explanation

Question 49 of 200

1

R 32.3.1.1 (1886)
V2 has to be equal to or higher than

Select one of the following:

  • 1.1 VMCA.

  • 1.15 VMCG.

  • 1.1 VSO.

  • 1.15 VR.

Explanation

Question 50 of 200

1

32.3.1.1 (1887)
V1 has to be

Select one of the following:

  • higher than than VR.

  • equal to or higher than VMCG.

  • equal to or higher than V2.

  • equal to or higher than VMCA.

Explanation

Question 51 of 200

1

R 32.3.1.1 (1888)
The speed VR

Select one of the following:

  • must be higher than V2.

  • must be higher than VLOF.

  • is the speed at which rotation to the lift-off angle of attack is initiated.

  • must be equal to or lower than V1.

Explanation

Question 52 of 200

1

R 32.3.1.1 (1889)
The speed V2 is

Select one of the following:

  • hat speed at which the PIC should decide to continue or not the take-off in the case of an
    engine failure.

  • the take-off safety speed.

  • the lowest airspeed required to retract flaps without stall problems.

  • the lowest safety airspeed at which the aeroplane is under control with aerodynamic
    surfaces in the case of an engine failure.

Explanation

Question 53 of 200

1

R 32.3.1.1 (1890)
Which take-off speed is affected by the presence or absence of stopway and/or clearway ?

Select one of the following:

  • V1

  • V2

  • VMCG

  • VMCA

Explanation

Question 54 of 200

1

R 32.3.1.1 (1891)
The speed V2 is defined for jet aeroplane as

Select one of the following:

  • lift off speed.

  • take-off climb speed or speed at 35 ft.

  • take-off decision speed

  • critical engine failure speed.

Explanation

Question 55 of 200

1

R 32.3.1.1 (1892)
The take-off mass could be limited by

Select one of the following:

  • the take-off distance available (TODA), the maximum brake energy and the climb gradient with one engine inoperative.

  • the maximum brake energy only.

  • the climb gradient with one engine inoperative only.

  • the take-off distance available (TODA) only.

Explanation

Question 56 of 200

1

R 32.3.1.1 (1897)
The take-off distance available is
)

Select one of the following:

  • the length of the take-off run available plus the length of the clearway available.

  • the runway length minus stopway.

  • the runway length plus half of the clearway.

  • the total runway length, without clearway even if this one exists.

Explanation

Question 57 of 200

1

R 32.3.1.1 (1900)
Which statement regarding V1 is correct ?

Select one of the following:

  • VR may not be lower than V1

  • V1 may not be higher than Vmcg

  • When determining V1, reverse thrust may only be used on the remaining symmetric
    engine

  • The correction for up-slope on the balanced V1 is negative

Explanation

Question 58 of 200

1

R 32.3.1.2 (1904)
Which statement related to a take-off from a wet runway is correct?

Select one of the following:

  • A reduction of screen height is allowed in order to reduce weight penalties

  • The use of a reduced Vr is sufficient to maitain the same safety margins as for a dry
    runway

  • In case of a reverser inoperative the wet runway performance information can still be used

  • Screenheight reduction can not be applied because of reduction in obstacle clearance.

Explanation

Question 59 of 200

1

R 32.3.1.2 (1905)
Which statement regarding the influence of a runway down-slope is correct for a balanced take-off? Down-slope...

Select one of the following:

  • reduces V1 and reduces take-off distance required (TODR).

  • increases V1 and reduces the accelerate stop distance required (ASDR).

  • reduces V1 and increases the accelerate stop distance required (ASDR).

  • increases V1 and increases the take-off distance required (TODR).

Explanation

Question 60 of 200

1

R 32.3.1.4 (1917)
How is VMCA influenced by increasing pressure altitude?

Select one of the following:

  • VMCA increases with increasing pressure altitude.

  • VMCA is not affected by pressure altitude.

  • VMCA decreases with increasing pressure altitude.

  • VMCA increases with pressure altitude higher than 4000 ft.

Explanation

Question 61 of 200

1

R 32.3.1.5 (1922)
The lowest take-off safety speed (V2 min) is:

Select one of the following:

  • 1.15 Vs for four-engine turboprop aeroplanes and 1.20 Vs for two or three engine turboprop aeroplanes.

  • 1.20 Vs for all turbojet aeroplanes.

  • 1.15 Vs for all turbojet aeroplanes.

  • 1.20 Vs for all turboprop powered aeroplanes.

Explanation

Question 62 of 200

1

R 32.3.1.5 (1923)
Which of the following answers is true?

Select one of the following:

  • V1 <= VR

  • V1 > Vlof

  • V1 > VR

  • V1 < VMCG

Explanation

Question 63 of 200

1

R 32.3.1.5 (1924)
Which statement is correct?

Select one of the following:

  • VR is the lowest climb speed after engine failure.

  • In case of engine failure below VR the take-off should be aborted.
    d) VR is the lowest speed for directional control in case of engine failure.

  • VR is the speed at which rotation should be initiated.

Explanation

Question 64 of 200

1

R 32.3.1.5 (1925)
Which statement is correct?

Select one of the following:

  • VR must not be less than 1.1 VMCA and not less than V1.

  • VR must not be less than 1.05 VMCA and not less than V1.

  • VR must not be less than VMCA and not less than 1.05 V1.

  • VR must not be less than 1.05 VMCA and not less than 1.1 V1.

Explanation

Question 65 of 200

1

R 32.3.1.5 (1928)
How is V2 affected if T/O flaps 20° is chosen instead of T/O flaps 10°?

Select one of the following:

  • V2 decreases if not restricted by VMCA.

  • V2 has the same value in both cases.

  • V2 increases in proportion to the angle at which the flaps are set.

  • V2 has no connection with T/O flap setting, as it is a function of runway length only.

Explanation

Question 66 of 200

1

R 32.3.1.5 (1930)
If the value of the balanced V1 is found to be lower than VMCG, which of the
following is correct ?

Select one of the following:

  • The VMCG will be lowered to V1.

  • The ASDR will become greater than the one engine out take-off distance.

  • The one engine out take-off distance will become greater than the ASDR.

  • The take-off is not permitted.

Explanation

Question 67 of 200

1

R 32.3.2.0 (1934)
In the event of engine failure below V1, the first action to be taken by the pilot in order to decelerate the aeroplane is to:

Select one of the following:

  • reverse engine thrust.

  • reduce the engine thrust.

  • apply wheel brakes.

  • deploy airbrakes or spoilers.

Explanation

Question 68 of 200

1

R 32.3.2.0 (1936)
In which of the following distances can the length of a stopway be included?

Select one of the following:

  • In the accelerate stop distance available.

  • In the one-engine failure case, take-off distance.

  • In the all-engine take-off distance.

  • In the take-off run available.

Explanation

Question 69 of 200

1

R 32.3.2.1 (1937)
Which statement concerning the inclusion of a clearway in take-off calculation is
correct?

Select one of the following:

  • The field length limited take-off mass will increase.

  • V1 is increased.

  • V1 remains constant.

  • The usable length of the clearway is not limited.

Explanation

Question 70 of 200

1

R 32.3.2.1 (1938)
Balanced V1 is selected

Select one of the following:

  • if the accelerate stop distance is equal to the one engine out take-off distance.

  • for a runway length limited take-off with a stopway to give the highest mass.

  • for a runway length limited take-off with a clearway to give the highest mass.

  • if it is equal to V2.

Explanation

Question 71 of 200

1

R 32.3.2.1 (1939)
A 'Balanced Field Length' is said to exist where:
a)
b)
c)
d)

Select one of the following:

  • The accelerate stop distance is equal to the take-off distance available.

  • The clearway does not equal the stopway.

  • The accelerate stop distance is equal to the all engine take-off distance.

  • The one engine out take-off distance is equal to the all engine take-off distance.

Explanation

Question 72 of 200

1

R 32.3.2.1 (1940)
If the field length limited take off mass has been calculated using a Balanced Field Length technique, the use of any additional clearway in take off performance calculations may allow

Select one of the following:

  • a greater field length limited take off mass but with a lower V1

  • a greater field length limited take off mass but with a higher V1

  • the obstacle clearance limit to be increased with no effect on V1

  • the obstacle clearance limit to be increased with an higher V1

Explanation

Question 73 of 200

1

R 32.3.2.2 (1946)
A higher outside air temperature (OAT)

Select one of the following:

  • increases the field length limited take-off mass.

  • decreases the brake energy limited take-off mass.

  • increases the climb limited take-off mass.

  • decreases the take-off distance.

Explanation

Question 74 of 200

1

R 32.3.3.1 (1950)
In relation to the net take-off flight path, the required 35 ft vertical distance to clear all obstacles is

Select one of the following:

  • the minimum vertical distance between the lowest part of the aeroplane and all obstacles within the obstacle corridor.

  • based on pressure altitudes.

  • the height by which acceleration and flap retraction should be completed.

  • the height at which power is reduced to maximum climb thrust.

Explanation

Question 75 of 200

1

R 32.3.3.1 (1952)
The requirements with regard to take-off flight path and the climb segments are
only specified for:

Select one of the following:

  • the failure of the critical engine on a multi-engines aeroplane.

  • the failure of any engine on a multi-engined aeroplane.

  • 2 engined aeroplane.

  • the failure of two engines on a multi-engined aeroplane.

Explanation

Question 76 of 200

1

R 32.3.3.1 (1953)
At which minimum height will the second climb segment end?
)

Select one of the following:

  • 400 ft above field elevation.

  • 35 ft above ground.

  • When gear retraction is completed.

  • 1500 ft above field elevation.

Explanation

Question 77 of 200

1

R 32.3.3.1 (1955)
The second segment begins

Select one of the following:

  • when landing gear is fully retracted.

  • when flap retraction begins.

  • when flaps are selected up.

  • when acceleration starts from V2 to the speed for flap retraction.

Explanation

Question 78 of 200

1

R 32.3.3.1 (1956)
For take-off obstacle clearance calculations, obstacles in the first segment may be avoided

Select one of the following:

  • by banking not more than 15° between 50 ft and 400 ft above the runway elevation.

  • by banking as much as needed if aeroplane is more than 50 ft above runway elevation.

  • only by using standard turns.

  • by standard turns - but only after passing 1500 ft.

Explanation

Question 79 of 200

1

R 32.3.3.1 (1958)
The first segment of the take-off flight path ends

Select one of the following:

  • at completion of gear retraction.

  • at completion of flap retraction.

  • at reaching V2.

  • at 35 ft above the runway.

Explanation

Question 80 of 200

1

R 32.3.3.1 (1959)
The climb limited take-off mass can be increased by

Select one of the following:

  • a lower flap setting for take-off and selecting a higher V2.

  • selecting a lower V1.

  • selecting a lower V2.

  • selecting a lower VR.

Explanation

Question 81 of 200

1

R 32.3.3.1 (1960)
During take-off the third segment begins:

Select one of the following:

  • when acceleration to flap retraction speed is started.

  • when landing gear is fully retracted.

  • when acceleration starts from VLOF to V2.

  • when flap retraction is completed.

Explanation

Question 82 of 200

1

R 32.3.3.1 (1962)
Which of the following statements with regard to the actual acceleration height at the beginning of the 3rd climb segment is correct?

Select one of the following:

  • The minimum value according to regulations is 1000 ft.

  • A lower height than 400 ft is allowed in special circumstances e.g. noise abatement.

  • There is no legal minimum value, because this will be determined from case to case during the calculation of the net flight path.

  • The minimum value according to regulations is 400 ft.

Explanation

Question 83 of 200

1

R 32.3.3.2 (1965)
Which of the following statements is applicable to the acceleration height at the beginning of the 3rd climb segment ?

Select one of the following:

  • The maximum acceleration height depends on the maximum time take-off thrust may be applied.

  • The minimum legally allowed acceleration height is at 1500 ft.

  • There is no requirement for minimum climb performance when flying at the accelerationheight

  • The minimum one engine out acceleration height must be maintained in case of all engines
    operating.

Explanation

Question 84 of 200

1

R 32.3.3.4 (1969)
When V1 has to be reduced because of a wet runway the one engine out obstacle clearance / climb performance:

Select one of the following:

  • decreases / remains constant.

  • increases / increases.

  • remains constant / remains constant.

  • decreases / decreases.

Explanation

Question 85 of 200

1

R 32.3.3.4 (1972)
In the event that the take-off mass is obstacle limited and the take-off flight path includes a turn, the bank angle should not exceed

Select one of the following:

  • 15 degrees up to height of 400 ft.

  • 10 degrees up to a height of 400 ft.

  • 20 degrees up to a height of 400 ft.

  • 25 degrees up to a height of 400 ft.

Explanation

Question 86 of 200

1

R 32.3.3.4 (1973)
Which speed provides maximum obstacle clearance during climb?

Select one of the following:

  • The speed for which the ratio between rate of climb and forward speed is maximum.

  • V2 + 10 kt.

  • V2.

  • The speed for maximum rate of climb.

Explanation

Question 87 of 200

1

R 32.3.4.1 (1977)
If the climb speed schedule is changed from 280/.74 to 290/.74 the new crossover altitude is

Select one of the following:

  • lower.

  • higher

  • unchanged.

  • only affected by the aeroplane gross mass.

Explanation

Question 88 of 200

1

R 32.3.4.2 (1982)
How does TAS vary in a constant Mach climb in the troposphere?

Select one of the following:

  • TAS decreases.

  • TAS increases.

  • TAS is constant.

  • TAS is not related to Mach Number.

Explanation

Question 89 of 200

1

32.3.4.2 (1984)
With a jet aeroplane the maximum climb angle can be flown at approximately:

Select one of the following:

  • The highest CL/CD ratio.

  • The highest CL/CD² ratio.

  • 1.2 Vs

  • 1.1 Vs

Explanation

Question 90 of 200

1

R 32.3.4.2 (1986)
Which of the following sequences of speed for a jet aeroplane is correct ? (from low to high speeds)

Select one of the following:

  • Vs, maximum range speed, maximum angle climb speed.

  • Vs, maximum angle climb speed, maximum range speed.

  • Maximum endurance speed, maximum range speed, maximum angle of climb speed.

  • Maximum endurance speed, long range speed, maximum range speed.

Explanation

Question 91 of 200

1

R 32.3.4.2 (1987)
A jet aeroplane is climbing at constant Mach number below the tropopause. Which of the following statements is correct?

Select one of the following:

  • IAS decreases and TAS decreases.

  • IAS increases and TAS increases.

Explanation

Question 92 of 200

1

R 32.3.4.2 (1989)
What happens when an aeroplane climbs at a constant Mach number?

Select one of the following:

  • The lift coefficient increases.

  • The TAS continues to increase, which may lead to structural problems.

  • IAS stays constant so there will be no problems.

  • The ""1.3G"" altitude is exceeded, so Mach buffet will start immediately.

Explanation

Question 93 of 200

1

R 32.3.4.2 (1990)
A jet aeroplane is climbing with constant IAS. Which operational speed limit is most likely to be reached?

Select one of the following:

  • The Maximum operating Mach number.

  • The Stalling speed.

  • The Minimum control speed air.

  • The Mach limit for the Mach trim system.

Explanation

Question 94 of 200

1

R 32.3.5.2 (2027)
The centre of gravity near, but still within, the aft limit

Select one of the following:

  • improves the maximum range.

  • increases the stalling speed.

  • improves the longitudinal stabiity.

  • decreases the maximum range.

Explanation

Question 95 of 200

1

R 32.3.5.3 (2047)
ETOPS flight is a twin engine jet aeroplane flight conducted over a route, where no suitable airport is within an area of

Select one of the following:

  • 60 minutes flying time in still air at the approved one engine out cruise speed.

  • 60 minutes flying time in still air at the normal cruising speed.

  • 30 minutes flying time at the normal cruising speed.

  • 75 minutes flying time at the approved one engine out cruise speed.

Explanation

Question 96 of 200

1

R 32.3.6.1 (2064)
A jet aeroplane descends with constant Mach number. Which of the following speed limits is most likely to be exceeded first?

Select one of the following:

  • Maximum Operating Speed

  • Never Exceed Speed

  • High Speed Buffet Limit

  • Maximum Operational Mach Number

Explanation

Question 97 of 200

1

R 32.3.6.3 (2071)
For jet aeroplanes which of the following statements is correct?

Select one of the following:

  • When determining the maximum allowable landing mass at destination, 60% of the available distance is taken into account, if the runway is expected to be dry.

  • In any case runway slope is one of the factors taken into account when determining the required landing field length.

  • An anti-skid system malfunction has no effect on the required landing field length.

  • The required landing field length is the distance from 35 ft to the full stop point.

Explanation

Question 98 of 200

1

R 32.3.6.3 (2072)
Which of the following is true according to JAA regulations for turbopropeller powered aeroplanes not performing a steep approach?

Select one of the following:

  • Maximum Landing Distance at the destination aerodrome and at any alternate aerodrome is 0,7 x LDA (Landing Distance Available).

  • Maximum Landing Distance at destination is 0,95 x LDA (Landing Distance Available).

  • Maximum Take-off Run is 0,5 x runway.

  • Maximum use of clearway is 1,5 x runway

Explanation

Question 99 of 200

1

R 32.3.6.3 (2079)
The landing field length required for turbojet aeroplanes at the destination (wet condition) is the demonstrated landing distance plus

Select one of the following:

  • 92%

  • 70%

  • 43%

  • 67%

Explanation

Question 100 of 200

1

R 32.3.6.3 (2080)
The landing field length required for jet aeroplanes at the alternate (wet condition) is the demonstrated landing distance plus

Select one of the following:

  • 92%

  • 43%

Explanation

Question 101 of 200

1

R 32.3.6.3 (2083)
By what factor must the landing distance available (dry runway) for a turbojet powered aeroplane be multiplied to find the landing distance required? (planning phase for destination).

Select one of the following:

  • 0.60

  • 115/100

  • 1.67

  • 60/115

Explanation

Question 102 of 200

1

R 33.2.2.0 (2220)
The maximum permissible take-off mass of an aircraft for the L wake turbulence category on a flight plan is:

Select one of the following:

  • 7 000 kg

  • 2 700 kg

  • 5 700 kg

Explanation

Question 103 of 200

1

R 33.4.3.1 (2362)
From which of the following would you expect to find the dates and times when temporary danger areas are active

Select one of the following:

  • NOTAM and AIP (Air Information Publication)

  • Only AIP (Air Information Publication)

  • SIGMET

  • RAD/NAV charts

Explanation

Question 104 of 200

1

R 33.6.1.7 (2512)
On an ATC flight plan, an aircraft indicated as ""H"" for ""Heavy""

Select one of the following:

  • is of the highest wake turbulence category

  • has a certified landing mass greater than or equal to 136 000 kg

  • has a certified take-off mass greater than or equal to 140 000 kg

  • requires a runway length of at least 2 000m at maximum certified take-off mass

Explanation

Question 105 of 200

1

R 40.2.1.2 (2590)
Which component(s) is/are transporting the oxygen in the blood?
a)
b) .
c)
d)

Select one of the following:

  • Blood fat.

  • Hemoglobin in the red blood cells.

  • Plasma.

  • White blood cells

Explanation

Question 106 of 200

1

R 40.2.1.2 (2596)
A good method to treat hyperventilation is to:

Select one of the following:

  • talk oneself through the relevant procedure aloud to emotionally calm down and reduce the rate of breathing simultaneously

  • don an oxygen mask

  • excecute the valsalva manoeuvre

  • close the eyes and relax

Explanation

Question 107 of 200

1

R 40.2.1.2 (2604)
After a decompression at high altitude

Select one of the following:

  • nitrogen gas bubbles can be released in the body fluids causing gas embolism, bends and chokes

  • automatically oxygen is deployed into the cabin

  • temperature in the cockpit will increase

  • pressure differentials will suck air into the cabin

Explanation

Question 108 of 200

1

R 40.2.1.2 (2619)
Which of the following symptoms can mark a beginning hyperventilation?

Select one of the following:

  • Dizzy feeling

  • Slow heart beat

  • Slow rate of breathing

  • Cyanosis (blueing of lips and finger nails)

Explanation

Question 109 of 200

1

R 40.2.1.2 (2622)
Which of the following could a pilot experience when he is hyperventilating?
1.Dizziness
2. Muscular spasms
3. Visual disturbances
4. Cyanosis
a)
b)
c)
d)

Select one of the following:

  • 1,2 and 3 are correct, 4 is false

  • 1,2 and 4 are correct, 3 is false

  • 1 is false, all others are correct

  • 2 and 4 are false

Explanation

Question 110 of 200

1

R 40.2.1.2 (2624)
The ""Effective Performance Time"" or ""Time of Useful Consciousness"" after a decompression at 35 000 ft is:
a)
b)
c)
d)

Select one of the following:

  • between 30 and 60 seconds

  • approximately 3 minutes

  • approximately 5 minutes

  • less than 20 seconds

Explanation

Question 111 of 200

1

R 40.2.1.2 (2627)
Flights immediately after SCUBA-diving (compressed gas mixtures, bottles) (>10m depth)

Select one of the following:

  • are forbidden

  • can be performed without any danger

  • are allowed, if 38000 FT are not exceeded

  • should be avoided because hypoxia may develop

Explanation

Question 112 of 200

1

R 40.2.1.2 (2629)
After a cabin pressure loss in approximately 35 000 FT the TUC (Time of Useful Consciousness) will be approximately:

Select one of the following:

  • 30 -90 seconds

  • 10-15 seconds

  • 3-4 minutes

  • 5 minutes or more

Explanation

Question 113 of 200

1

R 40.2.1.2 (2631)
Flying immediately following a dive with SCUBA diving equipment (> 10 m depth)

Select one of the following:

  • can cause decompression sicknesss even when flying at pressure altitudes below 18 000 FT

  • prevents any dangers caused by aeroembolism (decompression sickness) when climbing to altitudes not exceeding 30 000 FT

  • has no influence on altitude flights

  • is forbidden for the flight crew, because it leads to hypoxia

Explanation

Question 114 of 200

1

R 40.2.1.2 (2646)
In order to get rid of excess nitrogen following scuba diving, subsequent flights should be delayed

Select one of the following:

  • 24 hours

  • 3 hours after non decompression diving

  • 36 hours after any scuba diving

  • 48 hours after a continuous ascent in the water has been made

Explanation

Question 115 of 200

1

R 40.2.1.2 (2650)
Hyperventilation causes

Select one of the following:

  • a lack of carbon dioxide in the blood

  • an excess of carbon dioxide in the blood

  • acidosis

  • hypochondria

Explanation

Question 116 of 200

1

R 40.2.1.2 (2671)
Pain in the joints caused by gas bubbles following a decompression is called:

Select one of the following:

  • bends

  • chokes

  • creeps

  • leans

Explanation

Question 117 of 200

1

R 40.2.1.2 (2683)
Early symptoms of hypoxia could be:
1. euphoria
2. decreased rate and depth of breathing
3. lack of concentration
4. visual disturbances
)

Select one of the following:

  • 1,3 and 4 are correct

  • 1,2,3 and 4 are correct

  • 1,2 and 3 are correct

  • 1,2 and 4 are correct

Explanation

Question 118 of 200

1

R 40.2.1.2 (2695)
Hyperventilation is:

Select one of the following:

  • a normal compensatory physiological reaction to a drop in partial oxygen pressure (i.e. when climbing a high mountain)

  • an accellerated heart frequency caused by an increasing blood pressure

  • an accellerated heart frequency caused by a decreasing blood-pressure

  • a reduction of partial oxygen pressure in the brain

Explanation

Question 119 of 200

1

R 40.2.1.2 (2697)
What is the average Time of Useful Consciousness after a rapid decompression at 40,000 ft ?

Select one of the following:

  • About 12 seconds

  • Between 20 seconds and 1 minute

  • About 40 secods

  • More than 1 minute

Explanation

Question 120 of 200

1

R 40.2.1.2 (2703)
What is the ""Time of Useful Consciousness"" for a rapid decompression at 25,000 ft ?

Select one of the following:

  • Between 3 and 5 minutes depending on the physical activities of the subjected pilot

  • About 18 seconds

  • Between 25 seconds and 1 minute 30 seconds

  • About 30 seconds

Explanation

Question 121 of 200

1

R 40.2.1.2 (2742)
The symptoms of hyperventilation are caused by a:

Select one of the following:

  • surplus of CO2 in the blood

  • surplus of O2 in the blood

  • shortage of CO in the blood

  • shortage of CO2 in the blood

Explanation

Question 122 of 200

1

R 40.2.1.2 (2751)
Symptoms caused by gas bubbles in the lungs, following a decompression are called:

Select one of the following:

  • creeps

  • chokes

  • leans

  • bends

Explanation

Question 123 of 200

1

R 40.2.1.2 (2750)
The symptoms caused by gas bubbles under the skin following a decompression
are called:

Select one of the following:

  • creeps

  • chokes

  • bends

Explanation

Question 124 of 200

1

R 40.2.1.2 (2760)
Following a rapid decompression at 30.000 feet, the time of useful consciousness
would be about:

Select one of the following:

  • 1 to 2 minutes

  • 3 to 5 minutes

  • 5 to 10 minutes

  • 10 to 12 minutes

Explanation

Question 125 of 200

1

R 40.2.1.2 (2761)
After a rapid decompression at 35 000 feet, the time of useful consciousness is
about:

Select one of the following:

  • 30 to 60 seconds

  • 15 seconds or less

  • 5 minutes.

  • 10 minutes.

Explanation

Question 126 of 200

1

R 40.2.1.2 (2762)
After SCUBA diving (more than 30 feet of depth) you have to wait a period of time before flying again. This period is at least:

Select one of the following:

  • 24 hours

  • 6 hours

  • 12 hours

  • 48 hours

Explanation

Question 127 of 200

1

R 40.2.1.2 (2763)
Flying immediately after SCUBA diving involves the risk of getting:

Select one of the following:

  • decompression sickness without having a decompression

  • hyperventilation

  • hypoxia

  • stress

Explanation

Question 128 of 200

1

R 40.2.2.1 (2770)
The rate and depth of breathing is primary regulated by the concentration of:

Select one of the following:

  • carbon dioxide in the blood

  • nitrogen in the air

  • water vapour in the alveoli

  • oxygen in the cells

Explanation

Question 129 of 200

1

R 40.3.4.4 (3151)
Which statement is correct?

Select one of the following:

  • Problems in the personal relation between crew members very likely hamper their communication process.

  • There is no relation between inadequate communication and incidents or accidents.

  • Inconsistent communication behaviour improves flight safety.

  • Problems in the personal relation between crew members hardly hamper their communication process.

Explanation

Question 130 of 200

1

R 40.3.6.4 (3251)
What are the main effects of a lack of sleep loss on performance ?

Select one of the following:

  • It increases fatigue, concentration and attention difficulties, the risk of sensory illusions and mood disorders

  • It increases fatigue and concentration difficulties, but facilitates stress management by muscular relaxation,

  • It causes muscular spasms

  • It reduces concentration and fatigue only with sleep loss greater than 48 hours

Explanation

Question 131 of 200

1

R 50.1.1.1 (3277)
Which one of the following statements applies to the tropopause?

Select one of the following:

  • It separates the troposphere from the stratosphere

  • It is, by definition, an isothermal layer

  • It indicates a strong temperature lapse rate

  • It is, by definition, a temperature inversion

Explanation

Question 132 of 200

1

R 50.1.2.1 (3293)
The 0° isotherm is forecast to be at FL 50. At what FL would you expect a temperature of -6° C?

Select one of the following:

  • FL 80

  • FL 20

  • FL 100

  • FL 110

Explanation

Question 133 of 200

1

R 50.1.2.1 (3295)
The temperature at FL 110 is -5°C. What will the temperature be at FL 50 if the ICAO standard lapse rate is applied ?

Select one of the following:

  • +7°C

  • +3°C

  • 0°C

  • -3°C

Explanation

Question 134 of 200

1

R 50.1.2.3 (3316)
The environmental lapse rate in an actual atmosphere

Select one of the following:

  • has a fixed value of 1°C/100m

  • varies with time

  • has a fixed value of 0.65°C/100m

  • has a fixed value of 2°C/1000 FT

Explanation

Question 135 of 200

1

R 50.1.4.1 (3356)
Under what condition does pressure altitude have the same value as density altitude ?

Select one of the following:

  • At standard temperature.

  • At sea level when the temperature is 0°C.

  • When the altimeter has no position error.

  • When the altimeter setting is 1013,2 hPa.

Explanation

Question 136 of 200

1

R 50.1.5.1 (3358)
The lowest assumed temperature in the International Standard Atmosphere (ISA) is :

Select one of the following:

  • -56.5°C

  • -273°C

  • -44.7°C

  • -100°C

Explanation

Question 137 of 200

1

R 50.1.5.1 (3366)
If you are flying at FL 120 and the outside temperature is -2°C, at what altitude will the ""freezing level"" be?

Select one of the following:

  • FL 110

  • FL 130

  • FL 150

  • FL 90

Explanation

Question 138 of 200

1

R You are flying at FL 130, and your true altitude is 12000 FT. What is the temperature deviation from that of the standard atmosphere at FL 130 (QNH 1013,2 hPa) ?

Select one of the following:

  • ISA -20°C

  • ISA +/-0°C

  • ISA +20°C

  • ISA +12°C

Explanation

Question 139 of 200

1

50.1.6.1 (3392)
You are flying at FL 200. Outside air temperature is -40°C, and the pressure at sea level is 1033 hPa. What is the true altitude?

True ALT= ALT on QNH + (ISA Deviation * 4 * pressure ALT/ 1000)

Select one of the following:

  • 19340 feet

  • 20660 feet

  • 21740 feet

  • 18260 feet

Explanation

Question 140 of 200

1

R 50.1.6.3 (3401)
An aircraft lands at an airport (airport elevation 1240 FT, QNH 1008 hPa). The altimeter is set to 1013 hPa. The altimeter will indicate :

1013-1008=5 Hpa
5 times 27 = 135
135+1240=1378 ft
Remember: 1013hPa is a higher pressure than the QNH 1008hPa so it is lower in the atmosphere.

Select one of the following:

  • 1375 FT.

  • 1200 FT

  • 1105 FT.

  • 1280 FT.

Explanation

Question 141 of 200

1

R 50.1.6.3 (3405)
During the climb after take-off, the altimeter setting is adjusted at the transition altitude. If the local QNH is 1023 hPa, what will happen to the altimeter reading during the resetting procedure ?
a)
b)
c)
d)

Select one of the following:

  • It will decrease

  • It will increase

  • It will remain the same

  • It is not possible to give a definitive answer

Explanation

Question 142 of 200

1

R 50.1.6.3 (3417)
The QNH is equal to the QFE if

Select one of the following:

  • the elevation = 0

  • T actual = T standard

  • T actual > T standard

  • T actual < T standard

Explanation

Question 143 of 200

1

R 50.1.6.3 (3419)
For a given airfield the QFE is 980 hPa and the QNH is 1000 hPa. The approximate elevation of the airfield is

Select one of the following:

  • 160 metres

  • 600 metres

  • 540 metres

  • 120 metres

Explanation

Question 144 of 200

1

R 50.3.1.2 (3539)
What does dewpoint mean?

Select one of the following:

  • The temperature to which a mass of air must be cooled in order to reach saturation.

  • The temperature at which the relative humidity and saturation vapour pressure are the
    same.

  • The freezing level (danger of icing).

  • The temperature at which ice melts.

Explanation

Question 145 of 200

1

R 50.3.1.2 (3541)
The relative humidity of a sample air mass is 50%. How is the relative humidity of this air mass influenced by changes of the amount of water vapour in it?

Select one of the following:

  • It increases with increasing water vapour.

  • It is not influenced by changing water vapour.

  • It decreases with increasing water vapour.

  • It is only influenced by temperature.

Explanation

Question 146 of 200

1

R 50.3.1.2 (3542)
Relative humidity

Select one of the following:

  • changes when water vapour is added, even though the temperature remains constant.

  • is not affected when air is ascending or descending.

  • is not affected by temperature changes of the air.

  • does not change when water vapour is added provided the temperature of the air remains
    constant.

Explanation

Question 147 of 200

1

R 50.3.1.2 (3547)
Which of the following statements is true of the dew point of an air mass?

Select one of the following:

  • It can only be equal to, or lower, than the temperature of the air mass

  • It can be higher than the temperature of the air mass

  • It can be used to estimate the air mass's relative humidity even if the air temperature is
    unknown

  • It can be used together with the air pressure to estimate the air mass's relative humidity

Explanation

Question 148 of 200

1

R 50.3.1.2 (3548)
Relative humidity

Select one of the following:

  • increases if the air is cooled whilst maintaining the vapour pressure constant

  • is higher in warm air than in cool air

  • is higher in cool air than in warm air

  • decreases if the air is cooled whilst maintaining the vapour pressure constant

Explanation

Question 149 of 200

1

R 50.3.1.2 (3550)
Dew point is defined as

Select one of the following:

  • the temperature to which moist air must be cooled to become saturated at a given pressure

  • the lowest temperature at which evaporation will occur for a given pressure

  • the lowest temperature to which air must be cooled in order to reduce the relative humidity

  • the temperature below which the change of state in a given volume of air will result in the
    absorption of latent heat

Explanation

Question 150 of 200

1

R 50.3.1.2 (3555)
Relative humidity at a given temperature is the relation between

Select one of the following:

  • actual water vapour content and saturated water vapour content

  • water vapour weight and dry air weight

  • water vapour weight and humid air volume

  • dew point and air temperature

Explanation

Question 151 of 200

1

R 50.3.2.1 (3556)
Which of the following changes of state is known as sublimation?

Select one of the following:

  • Solid direct to vapour

  • Solid direct to liquid

  • Liquid direct to solid

  • Liquid direct to vapour

Explanation

Question 152 of 200

1

R 50.3.2.1 (3559)
How are high level condensation trails formed that are to be found occasionally behind jet aircraft ?

Select one of the following:

  • Through water vapour released during fuel combustion

  • Through a decrease in pressure, and the associated adiabatic drop in temperature at the wing tips while flying through relatively warm but humid air

  • Only through unburnt fuel in the exhaust gases

  • In conditions of low humidity, through the particles of soot contained in the exhaust gases

Explanation

Question 153 of 200

1

R 50.3.2.1 (3561)
Supercooled droplets are always

Select one of the following:

  • at a temperature below freezing

  • small and at a temperature below freezing

  • large and at a temperature below freezing

  • at a temperature below -60°C

Explanation

Question 154 of 200

1

R 50.3.2.1 (3563)
A super-cooled droplet is

Select one of the following:

  • a droplet still in liquid state at a temperature below freezing

  • a water droplet that is mainly frozen

  • a small particle of water at a temperature below -50°C

  • a water droplet that has been frozen during its descent

Explanation

Question 155 of 200

1

R 50.3.2.1 (3566)
A super-cooled droplet is one that

Select one of the following:

  • remains liquid at a below freezing temperature

  • has frozen to become an ice pellet

  • has a shell of ice with water inside it

  • is at an above freezing temperature in below freezing air

Explanation

Question 156 of 200

1

R 50.4.1.2 (3596)
Which of the following types of clouds are evidence of unstable air conditions?

Select one of the following:

  • CU, CB.

  • ST, CS.

  • SC, NS.

  • CI, SC.

Explanation

Question 157 of 200

1

R 50.4.1.2 (3609)
Which of the following cloud types is a medium level cloud ?

Select one of the following:

  • AS

  • CS

  • ST

  • SC

Explanation

Question 158 of 200

1

R 50.4.1.2 (3610)
Fallstreaks or virga are

Select one of the following:

  • water or ice particles falling out of a cloud that evaporate before reaching the
    ground

  • strong downdraughts in the polar jet stream, associated with jet streaks

  • gusts associated with a well developed Bora

  • strong katabatic winds in mountainous areas and accompanied by heavy precipitation

Explanation

Question 159 of 200

1

R 50.4.1.2 (3611)
Altostratus clouds are classified as

Select one of the following:

  • medium level clouds (ALSO CALLED ALTO CUMULUS)

  • low level clouds

  • high level clouds

  • convective clouds

Explanation

Question 160 of 200

1

R 50.4.1.2 (3618)
The presence of altocumulus lenticularis is an indication of the

Select one of the following:

  • presence of mountain waves

  • risk of orographic thunderstorms

  • development of thermal lows

  • presence of valley winds

Explanation

Question 161 of 200

1

R 50.5.1.1 (3648)
How does freezing rain develop?

Select one of the following:

  • Rain falls through a layer where temperatures are below 0°C

  • Rain falls on cold ground and then freezes

  • Through melting of sleet grains

  • Through melting of ice crystals

Explanation

Question 162 of 200

1

R 50.5.2.1 (3652)
What type of cloud can produce hail showers?

Select one of the following:

  • CB

  • NS

  • CS

  • AC

Explanation

Question 163 of 200

1

R Freezing rain occurs when

Select one of the following:

  • rain falls into a layer of air with temperatures below 0°C

  • ice pellets melt

  • water vapour first turns into water droplets

  • snow falls into an above-freezing layer of air

Explanation

Question 164 of 200

1

R 50.6.2.8 (3716)
What type of front / occlusion usually moves the fastest?
a)
b)
c)
d)

Select one of the following:

  • Cold front.

  • Warm front.

  • Cold occlusion.

  • Warm occlusion.

Explanation

Question 165 of 200

1

R 50.8.2.3 (3773)
In which of the following bands of latitude is the intertropical convergence zone
most likely to be encountered in January, between Dakar and Rio de Janeiro?

Select one of the following:

  • 0° - 7°N.

  • 3° - 8°S.

  • 8° - 12°S.

  • 7° - 12°N.

Explanation

Question 166 of 200

1

R 50.9.3.1 (3868)
Vertical wind shear is

Select one of the following:

  • vertical variation in the horizontal wind

  • vertical variation in the vertical wind

  • horizontal variation in the horizontal wind

  • horizontal variation in the vertical wind

Explanation

Question 167 of 200

1

R 50.9.4.1 (3878)
During the life cycle of a thunderstorm, which stage is characterized
predominantly by downdrafts?

Select one of the following:

  • Dissipating stage

  • Cumulus stage

  • Mature stage

  • Anvil stage

Explanation

Question 168 of 200

1

R 50.9.4.4 (3896)
What is the approximate maximum diameter of a microburst ?

Select one of the following:

  • 4 km

  • 400 m

  • 20 km

  • 50 km

Explanation

Question 169 of 200

1

R 50.9.4.4 (3898)
How long does a typical microburst last?

Select one of the following:

  • 1 to 5 minutes.

  • Less than 1 minute.

  • 1 to 2 hours.

  • About 30 minutes.

Explanation

Question 170 of 200

1

R 50.10.1.1 (3924)
The wind direction in a METAR is measured relative to

Select one of the following:

  • true north

  • magnetic north

  • the 0-meridian

  • grid north

Explanation

Question 171 of 200

1

R 50.10.3.1 (3964)
What is a trend forecast?

Select one of the following:

  • An aerodrome forecast valid for 9 hours

  • A landing forecast appended to METAR/SPECI, valid for 2 hours

  • A route forecast valid for 24 hours

  • A routine report

Explanation

Question 172 of 200

1

R 50.10.3.1 (3965)
What does the expression ""Broken (BKN)"" mean?

Select one of the following:

  • 5-7 Eights of the sky is cloud covered

  • 3-4 Eights of the sky is cloud covered

  • 3-5 Eights of the sky is cloud covered

  • Nil significant cloud cover

Explanation

Question 173 of 200

1

R 50.10.3.1 (3974)
Refer to the TAF for Amsterdam airport.FCNL31 281500EHAM 281601 14010KT
6000 -RA SCT025 BECMG 1618 12015G25KT SCT008 BKN013 TEMPO 1823 3000
RA BKN005 OVC010 BECMG 2301 25020KT 8000 NSW BKN020 =Flight from
Bordeaux to Amsterdam, ETA 2100 UTC. At ETA Amsterdam what surface wind is
forecast ?

Select one of the following:

  • 120° / 15 kt gusts 25 kt

  • 140° / 10 kt

  • 300° / 15 kt maximum wind 25 kt

  • 250° / 20 kt

Explanation

Question 174 of 200

1

R 50.10.3.1 (3976)
In the TAF for Dehli, during the summer, for the time of your landing you note:
TEMPO TS. What is the maximum time this deterioration in weather can last in
anyone instance ?

Select one of the following:

  • 60 minutes.

  • 120 minutes.

  • 10 minutes.

  • 20 minutes.

Explanation

Question 175 of 200

1

R 50.10.3.1 (3983)
Refer to the following TAF extract:BECMG 1821 2000 BKN004 PROB30 BECMG
2124 0500 FG VV001What does the abbreviation ""VV001"" mean?

Select one of the following:

  • Vertical visibility 100 FT

  • RVR less than 100 m.

  • RVR greater than 100 m.

  • Vertical visibility 100 m.

Explanation

Question 176 of 200

1

R 50.10.3.1 (3985)
How long from the time of observation is a TREND in a METAR valid?

Select one of the following:

  • 2 hours.

  • 9 hours.

  • 1 hour.

  • 30 minutes.

Explanation

Question 177 of 200

1

R 50.10.3.1 (3989)
Refer to the following TAF extract:
BECMG 1821 2000 BKN004 PROB30 BECMG
2124 0500 FG VV001What does the abbreviation ""BKN004"" mean?

Select one of the following:

  • 1 - 4 oktas, ceiling 400 FT.

  • 5 - 7 oktas, ceiling 400 FT.

  • 4 - 8 oktas, ceiling 400 m.

  • 1 - 4 oktas, ceiling 400 m.

Explanation

Question 178 of 200

1

50.10.3.1 (3992)
What does the term SIGMET signify?

Select one of the following:

  • A SIGMET is a warning of dangerous meteorological conditions

  • A SIGMET is a flight forecast, issued by the meteorological station several times daily

  • A SIGMET is a brief landing forecast added to the actual weather report

  • A SIGMET is an actual weather report at an aerodrome and is generally issued at halfhourly intervals

Explanation

Question 179 of 200

1

50.10.3.1 (3999)
Refer to the following TAF for Zurich.LSZH 261019 20018G30KT 9999 -RA SCT050
BKN080 TEMPO 23012KT 6000 -DZ BKN015 BKN030 BECMG 1518 23020G35KT
4000 RA OVC010=The lowest visibility forecast at ETA Zurich 1430 UTC is:

Select one of the following:

  • 6 km.

  • 6 NM.

  • 4 km.

  • 10 km.

Explanation

Question 180 of 200

1

RED 50.10.3.1 (4004)
Refer to TAF below.EGBB 261812 28015G25KT 9999 SCT025 TEMPO 1822 29018G35KT 5000 SHRASN BKN010CB PROB30 TEMPO 1821 1500 TSGR BKN008CB BECMG 2124 26010KTFrom the TAF above you can assume that visibility at 2055Z in Birmingham (EGBB) will be :

Select one of the following:

  • a maximum 5 km.

  • not less than 1,5 km but could be in excess of 10 km.

  • a minimum of 1,5 km and a maximum of 5 km.

  • more than 10 km

Explanation

Question 181 of 200

1

R 50.10.3.1 (4005)
Which of the following meteorological phenomena can rapidly change the braking
action of a runway?

Select one of the following:

  • FZRA

  • MIFG

  • FG

  • HZ

Explanation

Question 182 of 200

1

R 50.10.3.1 (4019)
If CAVOK is reported then

Select one of the following:

  • no low drifting snow is present

  • no clouds are present

  • low level windshear has not been reported

  • any CB's have a base above 5000 FT

Explanation

Question 183 of 200

1

R 50.10.3.6 (4088)
Which of the following weather reports is a warning of conditions that could be potentially hazardous to aircraft in flight ?

Select one of the following:

  • SIGMET.

  • ATIS.

  • SPECI.

  • TAF.

Explanation

Question 184 of 200

1

R 50.10.3.6 (4089)
In which of the following circumstances is a SIGMET issued ?

Select one of the following:

  • Marked mountain waves.

  • Fog or a thunderstorm at an aerodrome.

  • Clear ice on the runways of an aerodrome.

  • A sudden change in the weather conditions contained in the METAR.

Explanation

Question 185 of 200

1

R 62.1.3.0 (4655)
Given: Course Deviation Indicator (CDI) for a VOR is selected to 090°.From/To indicator indicates ""TO"".CDI needle is deflected halfway to the right.On what radial is the aircraft?

Select one of the following:

  • 275

  • 85

  • 265

  • 95

Explanation

Question 186 of 200

1

R 62.1.4.0 (4662)
Which of the following will give the most accurate calculation of aircraft ground speed?

Select one of the following:

  • A DME station sited on the flight route

  • An ADF sited on the flight route

  • A VOR station sited on the flight route

  • A DME station sited across the flight route

Explanation

Question 187 of 200

1

R 62.1.4.0 (4667)
A DME is located at MSL.An aircraft passing vertically above the station at flight
level FL 360 will obtain a DME range of approximately:

Select one of the following:

  • 6 NM

  • 7 NM

  • 11 NM

  • 8 NM

Explanation

Question 188 of 200

1

R 62.1.4.0 (4679)
Of what use, if any, is a military TACAN station to civil aviation ?

Select one of the following:

  • It can provide DME distance

  • It is of no use to civil aviation

  • It can provide a DME distance and magnetic bearing

  • It can provide a magnetic bearing

Explanation

Question 189 of 200

1

R 62.1.4.0 (4682)
A VOR and DME are co-located.You want to identify the DME by listening to the callsign. Having heard the same callsign 4 times in 30 seconds the:

Select one of the following:

  • DME callsign is the one with the higher pitch that was broadcast only once

  • DME callsign was not transmitted, the distance information is sufficient proof of correct
    operation

  • DME callsign is the one with the lower pitch that was broadcast several times

  • VOR and DME callsigns were the same and broadcast with the same pitch

Explanation

Question 190 of 200

1

R 62.1.5.0 (4689)
What approximate rate of descent is required in order to maintain a 3° glide path
at a groundspeed of 120 kt?

Select one of the following:

  • 600 FT/MIN

  • 550 FT/MIN

  • 800 FT/MIN

  • 950 FT/MIN

Explanation

Question 191 of 200

1

R 62.1.5.0 (4691)
What is the approximate angular coverage of reliable navigation information for a 3° ILS glide path out to a distance of 10 NM?

Select one of the following:

  • 1.35° above the horizontal to 5.25° above the horizontal and 8° each side of the localiser centreline

  • 0.45° above the horizontal to 1.75° above the glide path and 8° each side of the localiser
    centreline

  • 0.7° above and below the glide path and 2.5° each side of the localiser centreline

  • 3° above and below the glide path and 10° each side of the localiser centreline

Explanation

Question 192 of 200

1

R 62.1.5.0 (4700)
Every 10 kt decrease in groundspeed, on a 3° ILS glidepath, will require an approximate:

Select one of the following:

  • decrease in the aircraft's rate of descent of 50 FT/MIN

  • increase in the aircraft's rate of descent of 50 FT/MIN

  • decrease in the aircraft's rate of descent of 100 FT/MIN

  • increase in the aircraft's rate of descent of 100 FT/MIN

Explanation

Question 193 of 200

1

R 62.1.5.0 (4701)
Instrument Landing Systems (ILS) Glide Paths provide azimuth coverage (i) ..........
° each side of the localiser centre-line to a distance of (ii) .......... NM from the
threshold.

Select one of the following:

  • (i) 8 (ii) 10

  • (i) 25 (ii) 17

  • (i) 35 (ii) 25

  • (i) 5 (ii) 8

Explanation

Question 194 of 200

1

R 62.1.5.0 (4707)
The heading rose of an HSI is frozen on 200°.Lined up on the ILS of runway 25, the localizer needle will be:

Select one of the following:

  • centred

  • left of centre

  • right of centre

  • centred with the 'fail' flag showing

Explanation

Question 195 of 200

1

R 62.2.4.0 (4759)
When Mode C is selected on the aircraft SSR transponder the additional information transmitted is:

Select one of the following:

  • flight level based on 1013.25 hPa

  • altitude based on regional QNH

  • aircraft height based on sub-scale setting

  • height based on QFE

Explanation

Question 196 of 200

1

R 62.2.4.0 (4764)
When an aircraft is operating its Secondary Surveillance Radar in Mode C an air traffic controller's presentation gives information regarding the aircraft's indicated flight level that is accurate to within:

Select one of the following:

  • + or - 50 FT

  • + or - 75 FT

  • + or - 100 FT

  • + or - 25 FT

Explanation

Question 197 of 200

1

R 62.2.4.0 (4767)
The ATC transponder system,excluding Mode S, contains :

Select one of the following:

  • two modes, each of 4096 codes

  • four modes, each 1024 codes

  • four modes, each 4096 codes

  • two modes, each 1024 codes

Explanation

Question 198 of 200

1

R 62.2.4.0 (4771)
Which one of the following Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) codes should be used by aircraft entering airspace from an area where SSR operation has not been required?

Select one of the following:

  • 2000

  • 5000

  • 7000

  • 0

Explanation

Question 199 of 200

1

R 62.2.4.0 (4776)
The selection of code 2000 on an aircraft SSR transponder indicates:

Select one of the following:

  • entry into airspace from an area where SSR operation has not been required

  • unlawful interference with the planned operation of the flight

  • an emergency

  • transponder malfunction

Explanation

Question 200 of 200

1

R 62.2.4.0 (4777)
The selection of code 7500 on an aircraft SSR transponder indicates:

Select one of the following:

  • unlawful interference with the planned operation of the flight

  • an emergency

  • transponder malfunction

  • radio communication failure

Explanation

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