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Aviation Interview Quiz on ATP EASA Qatar 3 RED, created by mmm mmm on 23/05/2018.

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ATP EASA Qatar 3 RED

Question 1 of 61

1

R 62.6.5.0 (4845)
What is the minimum number of satellites required by a GPS in order to obtain a
three dimensional fix?

Select one of the following:

  • 4

  • 3

  • 5

  • 6

Explanation

Question 2 of 61

1

R 62.6.5.0 (4846)
What is the minimum number of satellites required for a Satellite-Assisted
Navigation System (GNSS/GPS) to carry out two dimensional operation?

Select one of the following:

  • 3

  • 4

  • 6

  • 5

Explanation

Question 3 of 61

1

R 62.6.5.0 (4852)
Which of the following coordinate systems is used by the GPS receiver to determine position (Latitude, longitude and altitude)?

Select one of the following:

  • WGS 84

  • ED 87

  • ED 50

  • EUREF 92

Explanation

Question 4 of 61

1

R 71.1.1.0 (4904)
Flight crew members on the flight deck shall keep their safety belt fastened:

Select one of the following:

  • while at their station.

  • only during take off and landing.

  • only during take off and landing and whenever necessary by the commander in the interest
    of safety.

  • from take off to landing.

Explanation

Question 5 of 61

1

R 71.1.2.4 (4946)
A category II precision approach (CAT II) is an approach with :

Select one of the following:

  • a decision height of at least 100 ft

  • a decision height of at least 200 ft

  • a decision height of at least 50 ft

  • no decision height

Explanation

Question 6 of 61

1

R 71.1.2.4 (4948)
A category I precision approach (CAT I) is an approach which may be carried out with a runway visual range of at least :

Select one of the following:

  • 550 m 1800FT

  • 350 m

  • 800 m

  • 500 m

Explanation

Question 7 of 61

1

R 71.1.2.4 (4949)
A category III A precision approach (CAT III A) is an approach which may be carried out with a runway visual range of at least :

Select one of the following:

  • 200 m = 700 FT

  • 100 m

  • 250 m

  • 50 m

Explanation

Question 8 of 61

1

R 71.1.2.4 (4951)
A category I precision approach (CAT I) has :

Select one of the following:

  • a decision height equal to at least 200 ft.

  • a decision height equal to at least 100 ft.

  • a decision height equal to at least 50 ft.

  • no decision height.

Explanation

Question 9 of 61

1

R 71.1.3.1 (4989)
A jet-powered aircraft, flying above the optimum altitude will have :

Select one of the following:

  • reduced range

  • increased manoeuvring limits

  • increased flight envelope

  • increased Mach number stability

Explanation

Question 10 of 61

1

R 71.1.3.3 (5032)
The MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace extends vertically between flight levels:

Select one of the following:

  • 285 and 420.

  • 280 and 400.

  • 280 and 390.

  • 275 and 400.

Explanation

Question 11 of 61

1

R 71.1.3.3 (5046)
At which levels may Reduced Vertical Separation Minimum (RVSM) be used within
NAT region?

Select one of the following:

  • Between FL290 and FL410.

  • Between FL275 and FL400.

  • Between FL245 and FL410.

  • Below FL290.

Explanation

Question 12 of 61

1

R 71.2.0.0 (5061)
According to the recommended ""noise abatement take-off and climb procedure A"" established in ICAO, DOC 8168 Volume I part V, Chapter 3, thrust reduction to climb power, has to be done as soon as the aircraft reaches :

Select one of the following:

  • 1 500 ft

  • 3 000 ft

  • 2 000 ft

  • 1 000 ft

Explanation

Question 13 of 61

1

R 71.2.2.0 (5070)
The greatest possibility of ice buildup, while flying under icing conditions, occurs
on :

Select one of the following:

  • The aircraft front areas.

  • The upper and lower wingsurfaces.

  • The upper and lower rudder surfaces.

  • Only the pitot and static probes.

Explanation

Question 14 of 61

1

71.2.2.0 (5082)
During an aircraft de-icing/anti-icing procedure:

Select one of the following:

  • the anti-icing and de-icing fluids are applied hot.

  • the de-icing fluid is applied without heating and the anti-icing fluid is applied hot.

  • the anti-icing and de-icing fluids are applied cold.

  • the anti-icing fluid is applied without heating and the de-icing fluid is applied HOT

Explanation

Question 15 of 61

1

R 71.2.4.0 (5104)
When setting up a minimum noise climb, the minimum height at which a power reduction shall be allowed is :

Select one of the following:

  • 300 m (1000 ft)

  • 450 m (1500 ft)

  • 150 m (500 ft)

  • 600 m (2000 ft)

Explanation

Question 16 of 61

1

R 71.2.4.0 (5108)
According with the ""noise abatement take-off and climb procedure B"", as established in DOC 8168 - Ops Volume 1, part V, aircraft must climb at V2 + 10 to 20 kt, until reaching :

Select one of the following:

  • 1 000 ft

  • 500 ft

  • 1 500 ft

  • 3 000 ft

Explanation

Question 17 of 61

1

R 71.2.5.0 (5111)
To use passengers oxygen in case of severe cabin smoke is:

Select one of the following:

  • useless because the toxical cabin smoke is mixed with the breathing oxygen.

  • possible and recommended.

  • useless because breathing oxygen would explode under smoke conditions.

  • useless because the oxygen units do not operate under smoke conditions.

Explanation

Question 18 of 61

1

R 71.2.5.0 (5139)
A class B fire is a fire of:

Select one of the following:

  • liquid or liquefiable solid

  • solid material usually of organic nature

  • electrical source fire

  • special fire: metal, gas, chemical product

Explanation

Question 19 of 61

1

R 71.2.6.0 (5142)
When flying in straight and level flight at FL 290 for some considerable time a small leak develops in the cabin which causes a slow depressurisation, this can be seen on the cabin rate of climb indicator which will indicate :

Select one of the following:

  • a rate of climb

  • a rate of descent of approximately 300 fpm

  • zero

  • a rate of descent dependent upon the cabin differential pressure

Explanation

Question 20 of 61

1

R 71.2.6.0 (5149)
The time of useful consciousness in case of an explosive decompression at an altitude of 40 000 ft is:

Select one of the following:

  • 12 seconds.

  • 30 seconds.

  • 5 minutes.

  • 1 minute.

Explanation

Question 21 of 61

1

R 71.2.7.0 (5161)
One of the main characteristics of windshear is that it :

Select one of the following:

  • can occur at any altitude in both the vertical and horizontal planes

  • occurs only at a low altitude ( 2000 ft) and never in the vertical plane

  • occurs only at a low altitude ( 2000 ft) and never in the horizontal plane

  • can occur at any altitude and only in the horizontal plane

Explanation

Question 22 of 61

1

R 71.2.7.0 (5162)
Which one of the following magnitudes will be the first to change its value when penetrating a windshear ?

Select one of the following:

  • Indicated airspeed.

  • Pitch angle.

  • Vertical speed.

  • Groundspeed.

Explanation

Question 23 of 61

1

R 71.2.8.0 (5179)
For the purpose of wake turbulence separation, what is the ICAO minimum radar
separation distance if a heavy aeroplane is following directly behind another heavy
aeroplance on the approach to the same runway ?

Select one of the following:

  • 7.4 km (4 NM)

  • 9.3 km (5 NM)

  • 11.1 km (6 NM)

  • 3.7 km (2 NM)

Explanation

Question 24 of 61

1

R
71.2.8.0 (5187)
For purpose of wake turbulence separation, what is the ICAO minimum radar 431 separation distance and minimum time if a medium aeroplane (less than 136000
kg and more than 7000 kg) is following directly behind a heavy aeroplane on the
approach to the same runway ?

Select one of the following:

  • 9.3 km (5 NM) and 2 minutes

  • 11.1 km (6 NM) and 3 minutes

  • 7.4 km (4 NM) and 2 minutes

  • 9.3 km (5 NM) and 3 minutes

Explanation

Question 25 of 61

1

R 71.2.8.0 (5188)
For purpose of wake turbulence separation, what is the ICAO minimum radar separation time if a light aeroplance (7000 kg or less) is following a medium aeroplane (less than 136000 kg but more than 7000 kg) on the approach to landing ?

Select one of the following:

  • 3 minutes

  • 4 minutes

  • 5 minutess

  • 2 minutes

Explanation

Question 26 of 61

1

R 71.2.8.0 (5190)
For the purpose of wake turbulence separation, what is the minimum separation time that is permitted when a light aircraft is taking off behind a heavy aircraft from an intermediate part of the same runway ?

Select one of the following:

  • 3 minutes

  • 4 minutes

  • 5 minutes

  • 2 minutes

Explanation

Question 27 of 61

1

R 71.2.8.0 (5193)
According with DOC 4444 (ICAO), a wake turbulence non-radar separation minima
of 3 minutes shall be applied :

Select one of the following:

  • to a departing MEDIUM aircraft following a HEAVY aircraft arrival when operating on a
    runway with a desplaced landing threshold

  • to LIGHT aircraft taking-off behind a MEDIUM aircraft from an intermediate part
    of parallel runway separated by less 760 m

  • to an arriving LIGHT aircraft following a MEDIUM aircraft departure when operating on a
    runway with a desplaced landing threshold, if the projected flight paths are expected to cross

  • Between a LIGHT aircraft and a MEDIUM aircraft making a missed approach and the LIGHT
    aircraft utilizing an opposite-direction runway for take-off

Explanation

Question 28 of 61

1

R 71.2.8.0 (5194)
According DOC 4444 (ICAO), a wake turbulence non-radar separation minima of 2 minutes shall be applied to :

Select one of the following:

  • LIGHT aircraft taking-off behind a MEDIUM aircraft from an intermediate part of the same
    runway

  • LIGHT aircraft landing behind a MEDIUM aircraft

  • MEDIUM aircraft landing behind a HEAVY aircraft

  • MEDIUM aircraft taking-off behind a HEAVY aircraft from an intermediate part of a parallel
    separated by less than 760 m

Explanation

Question 29 of 61

1

R 71.2.8.0 (5195)
In accordance with DOC 4444 (ICAO) when a MEDIUM and a LIGHT aircraft are
using the same runway, or parallel runways separated by less than 760 m, (in
approach or departure phases of flight), shall be applied a wake turbulence radar
separation minima of :

Select one of the following:

  • 5 NM

  • 4 NM

  • 3 NM

  • 2 NM

Explanation

Question 30 of 61

1

R 71.2.8.0 (5196)
According with DOC 4444 (ICAO), a wake turbulence non-radar separation minima
of 3 minutes shall be applied to :

Select one of the following:

  • MEDIUM aircraft landing behind a HEAVY aircraft

  • LIGHT aircraft landing behind a MEDIUM aircraft

  • LIGHT aircraft taking-off behind a MEDIUM aircraft from a parallel runway separated by
    less than 760 m. (using whole runway)

  • LIGHT aircraft taking -off behind a MEDIUM aircraft when aircraft are using the same
    runway

Explanation

Question 31 of 61

1

R 71.2.9.0 (5200)
In case of a serious threat based on the presence of a bomb on board a pressurized
aircraft and disregarding any fuel considerations:

Select one of the following:

  • you dexcend to the flight level corresponding to the indicated cabin altitude or
    the safety altitude if higher and take preventive steps by putting yourself in a
    landing approach configuration.

  • you climb to the maximum flight level which does not need the use of pressurization.

  • you go down to the level corresponding to the indicated cabin altitude and keep the
    airplane in a clean configuration until the final approach.

  • you carry out an emergency descent to reach the safety altitude.

Explanation

Question 32 of 61

1

71.2.10.0 (5214)
For aeroplanes having a seating capacity of more than 44 passengers, it must be shown by actual demonstration that the maximum seating capacity, including the required number of crew members, can be evacuated from the aeroplane to the ground in :

Select one of the following:

  • 90 seconds

  • 132 seconds

  • 60 seconds

  • 120 seconds

Explanation

Question 33 of 61

1

RED 71.2.13.0 (5251)
The maximum validity of a SNOWTAM is :

Select one of the following:

  • 24 hours

  • 12 hours

  • 6 hours

  • 3 hours

Explanation

Question 34 of 61

1

R 71.2.13.0 (5255)
In the JAR OPS, a runway is considered damp when:

Select one of the following:

  • its surface is not dry, and when surface moisture does not give it a shiny appearance.

  • it is covered with a film of water of less than 3 mm.

  • it is covered with a film of water of less than 1 mm.

  • surface moisture gives it a shiny appearance.

Explanation

Question 35 of 61

1

R 71.2.13.0 (5254)
A braking action of 0.25 and below reported on a SNOWTAM is :

Select one of the following:

  • poor

  • unreliable

  • medium

  • good

Explanation

Question 36 of 61

1

R 81.1.3.1 (5307)
The lift formula is:

Select one of the following:

  • L= CL 1/2 RHO V² S

  • L= W

  • L= CL 2 RHO V² S

  • L= n W

Explanation

Question 37 of 61

1

R 81.1.6.0 (5355)
What will happen in ground effect ?

Select one of the following:

  • the induced angle of attack and induced drag decreases

  • the wing downwash on the tail surfaces increases

  • an increase in strength of the wing tip vortices

  • a significant increase in thrust required

Explanation

Question 38 of 61

1

R 81.1.6.0 (5356)
If an aeroplane flies in the ground effect

Select one of the following:

  • the lift is increased and the drag is decreased.

  • the effective angle of attack is decreased.

  • the induced angle of attack is increased.

  • drag and lift are reduced.

Explanation

Question 39 of 61

1

R 81.1.6.4 (5357)
Floating due to ground effect during an approach to land will occur :

Select one of the following:

  • when the height is less than halve of the length of the wing span above the
    surface

  • when the height is less than twice the length of the wing span above the surface

  • when a higher than normal angle of attack is used

  • at a speed approaching the stall

Explanation

Question 40 of 61

1

R 81.1.6.4 (5358)
Ground effect has the following influence on the landing distance :

Select one of the following:

  • increases.

  • increases, only if the landing flaps are fully extended.

  • does not change.

  • decreases.

Explanation

Question 41 of 61

1

R 81.1.8.2 (5377)
The stall speed :

Select one of the following:

  • increases with an increased weight

  • decreases with an increased weight

  • does not depend on weight

  • increases with the length of the wingspan

Explanation

Question 42 of 61

1

R 81.1.8.2 (5381)
The following factors increase stall speed :

Select one of the following:

  • an increase in load factor, a forward c.g. shift, decrease in thrust.

  • a higher weight, selecting a higher flap setting, a forward c .g. shift.

  • increasing bank angle, increasing thrust, slat extension.

  • a lower weight, decreasing bank angle, a smaller flapsetting.

Explanation

Question 43 of 61

1

R 81.1.8.2 (5383)
The stall speed increases, when: (all other factors of importance being constant)
a)
b)
c)
d)

Select one of the following:

  • pulling up from a dive.

  • weight decreases.

  • minor altitude changes occur e.g. 0-10.000 ft.

  • spoilers are selected from OUT to IN.

Explanation

Question 44 of 61

1

R 81.1.8.4 (5393)
Compared with stalling airspeed (VS) in a given configuration, the airspeed at which stick shaker will be triggered is:

Select one of the following:

  • greater than VS.

  • 1.20 VS.

  • 1.30 VS.

  • 1.12 VS.

Explanation

Question 45 of 61

1

R 81.1.8.5 (5409)
One disadvantage of the swept back wing is it's stalling characteristics. At the
stall :

Select one of the following:

  • tip stall will occur first, which produces a pitch-up moment.

  • wing root stall will occur first, which produces a rolling moment

  • tip stall will occur first, which produces a nose-down moment

  • leading edge stall will occur first, which produces a nose-down moment

Explanation

Question 46 of 61

1

R 81.1.9.0 (5414)
After take-off the slats (when installed) are always retracted later than the flaps. Why ?

Select one of the following:

  • Because SLATS EXTENDED gives a large decrease in stall speed with relatively
    less drag.

  • Because SLATS EXTENDED provides a better view from the cockpit than FLAPS EXTENDED.

  • Because VMCA with SLATS EXTENDED is more favourable compared to the FLAPS
    EXTENDED situation.

  • Because FLAPS EXTENDED gives a large decrease in stall speed with relatively less drag.

Explanation

Question 47 of 61

1

R 81.1.10.1 (5448)
When ""spoilers"" are used as speed brakes:

Select one of the following:

  • at same angle of attack, CD is increased and CL is decreased.

  • CLmax of the polar curve is not affected.

  • they do not affect wheel braking action during landing.

  • at same angle of attack, CL remains unaffected.

Explanation

Question 48 of 61

1

R 81.2.1.1 (5454)
The flight Mach number is 0.8 and the TAS is 400 kts. The speed of sound is:

speed of sound: mach / tas 0.8/400= 500

Select one of the following:

  • 500 kts

  • 320 kts

  • 480 kts

  • 600 kts

Explanation

Question 49 of 61

1

R 81.2.2.1 (5465)
Mcrit is the free stream Mach Number at which:

Select one of the following:

  • somewhere about the airframe Mach 1 is reached locally.

  • the critical angle of attack is reached.

  • shockstall occurs.

  • Mach buffet occurs.

Explanation

Question 50 of 61

1

R 81.2.2.2 (5488)
When comparing a rectangular wing and a swept back wing of the same wing area and wing loading, the swept back wing has the advantage of :

Select one of the following:

  • Higher critical Mach number

  • Greater strength

  • Increased longitudinal stability

  • Lower stalling speed

Explanation

Question 51 of 61

1

R 81.2.2.3 (5491)
How does stalling speed (IAS) vary with altitude?

Select one of the following:

  • It remains constant at lower altitudes but increases at higher altitudes due to compressibility effects.

  • It increases with increasing altitude, because the density decreases.

  • It remains constant.

Explanation

Question 52 of 61

1

R 81.2.2.3 (5493)
At higher altitudes, the stall speed (IAS):

Select one of the following:

  • increases

  • decreases

  • decreases until the tropopause

  • remains the same

Explanation

Question 53 of 61

1

R 81.4.3.5 (5552)
A C.G location beyond the aft limit leads to:

Select one of the following:

  • a too high pulling stick force during rotation in the take off.

  • an increasing static longitudinal stability.

  • a better recovery performance in the spin.

  • an unacceptable low value of the manoeuvre stability (stick force per g, Fe/g).

Explanation

Question 54 of 61

1

81.5.1.1 (5580)
Rotation about the lateral axis is called :

Select one of the following:

  • pitching.

  • rolling.

  • slipping.

  • yawing.

Explanation

Question 55 of 61

1

R 81.5.2.4 (5583)
The centre of gravity moving aft will:

Select one of the following:

  • increase the elevator up effectiveness.

  • decrease the elevator up effectiveness.

  • not affect the elevator up or down effectiveness.

  • increase or decrease the elevator up effectiveness, depending on wing location.

Explanation

Question 56 of 61

1

R 81.5.5.0 (5599)
Which moments or motions interact in a dutch roll?
a)
b)
c)
d)

Select one of the following:

  • Rolling and yawing.

  • Pitching and rolling.

  • Pitching and adverse yaw.

  • Pitching and yawing.

Explanation

Question 57 of 61

1

R 81.6.3.2 (5643)
What wing shape or wing characteristic is the least sensitive to turbulence :

Select one of the following:

  • swept wings

  • winglets

  • straight wings

  • wing dihedral

Explanation

Question 58 of 61

1

R 81.8.1.5 (5672)
A jet aeroplane is rolled into a turn, while maintaining airspeed and holding
altitude. In such a case, the pilot has to:

Select one of the following:

  • increase thrust and angle of attack.

  • increase thrust and keep angle of attack unchanged.

  • increase thrust and decrease angle of attack.

  • increase angle of attack and keep thrust unchanged.

Explanation

Question 59 of 61

1

R 81.8.1.5 (5676)
The bank angle in a rate-one turn depends on:

Select one of the following:

  • TAS.

  • weight.

  • load factor

  • wind.

Explanation

Question 60 of 61

1

R 81.8.2.10 (5683)
Why is VMCG determined with the nosewheel steering disconnected?

Select one of the following:

  • Because the value of VMCG must also be applicable on wet and/or slippery
    runways.

  • Because the nosewheel steering could become inoperative after an engine has failed.

  • Because it must be possible to abort the take-off even after the nosewheel has already
    been lifted off the ground.

  • Because nosewheel steering has no effect on the value of VMCG.

Explanation

Question 61 of 61

1

R
How does VMCG change with increasing field elevation and temperature?

Select one of the following:

  • decreases, because VMCG is expressed in IAS and the IAS decreases with TAS
    constant and decreasing density

  • increases, because at a lower density a larger IAS is necessary to generate the required
    rudder force

  • increases, because VMCG is related to V1 and VR and those speeds increase if the density
    decreases

  • 1998-10-05 0:00

Explanation