Nathan Petersen
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Quiz on PHASE ONE ACTUAL TEST , created by Nathan Petersen on 23/06/2018.

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Nathan Petersen
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PHASE ONE ACTUAL TEST

Question 1 of 178

1

Is the ability to identify with and understand the wants, needs and viewpoints of those around you. These people are good at recognizing the feelings of others even when those feelings may not be obvious. What characteristic is this?

Select one of the following:

  • Empathy

  • Social skills

  • Self-Regulations

  • Motivation

  • Self-Awareness

Explanation

Question 2 of 178

1

They’re confident-Because they trust their intuition and do not let their emotions get out of control. They know their strengths and weaknesses and they work on these areas so they can perform better. What characteristic of emotional intelligence is this?

Select one of the following:

  • Social Skill

  • Motivation

  • Self-Awareness

  • Self-Regulation

  • Empathy

Explanation

Question 3 of 178

1

They’re willing to defer immediate results for long-term success. They’re highly productive, love a challenge, and are very effective in whatever they do. What characteristic of emotional intelligence is this?

Select one of the following:

  • Empathy

  • Self-Regulation

  • Motivation

  • Social Skills

  • Self-Awareness

Explanation

Question 4 of 178

1

This is the ability to control emotions and impulses. These types of people typically don’t allow themselves to become too angry or jealous, and they don’t make impulsive, careless decisions. They think before they act. What characteristic of emotional intelligence is this?

Select one of the following:

  • Self-Awareness

  • Motivation

  • Social Skills

  • Self-Regulation

  • Empathy

Explanation

Question 5 of 178

1

These types of people are typically team players. Rather than focus on their own success first, they help others develop and shine. They can manage disputes, are excellent communicators and are masters at building and maintaining relationships. What emotional intelligence is this?

Select one of the following:

  • Self-Regulation

  • Empathy

  • Social Skills

  • Self-Awareness

  • Motivation

Explanation

Question 6 of 178

1

Word smart involves sensitivity to spoken and written language, the ability to learn languages and the capacity to use language to accomplish certain goals. This intelligence includes the ability to effectively use language to express oneself rhetorically or poetically; and language as a means to remember information. What Multiple Intelligence theory is this?

Select one of the following:

  • Logical-mathematic intelligence

  • Bodily-Kinesthetic intelligence

  • Linguistic intelligence

  • Naturalist intelligence

Explanation

Question 7 of 178

1

This intelligence consists of the capacity to analyze problems logically, carry out mathematical operations, and investigate issues scientifically. It entails the ability to detect patterns, reason deductively and think logically. What intelligence is this?

Select one of the following:

  • Musical intelligence

  • Interpersonal intelligence

  • Intrapersonal intelligence

  • Logical-mathematical intelligence

Explanation

Question 8 of 178

1

This intelligence enables human beings to recognize, categorize and draw upon certain features in the environment. It combines descriptions of the core ability with a characterization of the role that many cultures value. What intelligence is this?

Select one of the following:

  • visual-spatial intelligence

  • naturalist intelligence

  • Musical Intelligence

  • Logical-Mathematical intelligence

Explanation

Question 9 of 178

1

This intelligence entails the capacity to understand oneself, to appreciate ones feelings, fears and motivations. It involves having an effective working model of ourselves, and to be able to use such information to regulate our lives.

Select one of the following:

  • Naturalist intelligence

  • Musical intelligence

  • Interpersonal intelligence

  • Intrapersonal intelligence

Explanation

Question 10 of 178

1

This intelligence involves skill in the performance composition, and appreciation of musical patters. It encompasses the capacity to recognize and compose musical pitches, tones and rhythms. What intelligence is this

Select one of the following:

  • Musical intelligence

  • naturalist intelligence

  • visual-spatial intelligence

  • linguistic intelligence

Explanation

Question 11 of 178

1

This intelligence is concerned with the capacity to understand the intentions, motivations and desires of other people. Educators, salespeople, religious and political leaders and counselors all need a well-developed form of this intelligence. What intelligence is this?

Select one of the following:

  • intrapersonal intelligence

  • linguistic intelligence

  • bodily-kinesthetic intelligence

  • interpersonal intelligence

Explanation

Question 12 of 178

1

This intelligence entails the potential of using ones whole body or parts of the body to solve problems. It is the ability to use mental abilities to coordinate bodily movements. What intelligence is this?

Select one of the following:

  • Interpersonal intelligence

  • naturalist intelligence

  • bodily-kinesthetic intelligence

  • musical intelligence

Explanation

Question 13 of 178

1

This intelligence involves the potential to recognize and use the patterns of wide space and more confined areas. People with this intelligence think in terms of physical space. What intelligence is this?

Select one of the following:

  • bodily-kinesthetic intelligence

  • naturalistic intelligence

  • logical mathematical intelligence

  • visual-spatial intelligence

Explanation

Question 14 of 178

1

The way one views the world, which shapes one’s construction of meaning. In a search for understanding, critical thinkers view phenomena from many different points of view. What essential aspect is this

Select one of the following:

  • Criteria

  • reasoning

  • Point of View

  • Argument

Explanation

Question 15 of 178

1

You need to have conditions that must be met for something to be judged as believable. An assertion must be based on relevant, accurate facts; based on credible sources; precise; unbiased; free from logical fallacies; logically consistent; and strongly reasoned. What essential aspect is this?

Select one of the following:

  • Point of View

  • Dispositions

  • Criteria

  • Reasoning

Explanation

Question 16 of 178

1

Critical thinkers are skeptical, open-minded, value fair-mindedness, respect evidence and reasoning, respect clarity and precision, look at different points of view and will change positions when reason leads them to do so. What essential aspect is this?

Select one of the following:

  • Dispositions

  • Reasoning

  • Criteria

  • Argument

Explanation

Question 17 of 178

1

This character of critical thinking is about one’s own thinking. More specifically, it is being aware of ones thinking as one performs specific tasks and then using this awareness to control what one is doing. What characteristic is this?

Select one of the following:

  • criteria

  • Reasoning

  • metacognition

  • Argument

Explanation

Question 18 of 178

1

Is a statement or proposition with supporting evidence? Critical thinking involves identifying, evaluating and constructing arguments. What essential aspect is this?

Select one of the following:

  • reasoning

  • Point of View

  • Dispositions

  • Argument

Explanation

Question 19 of 178

1

The ability to infer a conclusion from one or multiple premises. To do so requires examining logical relationships among statements of data. What essential aspect is this?

Select one of the following:

  • Reasoning

  • Criteria

  • Argument

  • Dispositions

Explanation

Question 20 of 178

1

Opinions can cause similar problems as biases or anchors, if you hear an opinion that you agree with, you may start treating it as a fact. This may skew your ability to look at the problem objectively and cause you to choose a course of action that will not solve the problem. What pitfall trap is this?

Select one of the following:

  • opinion verses fact

  • The Status Quo Trap

  • Interferences and assumptions

  • anchoring

Explanation

Question 21 of 178

1

The more actions you have already taken on behalf of a choice or direction, the more difficult you will find it to change direction or make a different choice. Whenever you invest time, money, or other resources, or whenever your personal reputation is at stake, you will find it more difficult to change your decision or course of action. What Pitfall trap is this?

Select one of the following:

  • interferences and assumptions

  • The Justify-Past-Actions Trap

  • Vagueness and Ambiguity

  • Anchoring

Explanation

Question 22 of 178

1

We instinctively stay with what seems familiar. We look for decisions that involve the least change. To protect our egos from damage, we avoid changing, even in the face of early predictions that change will be safer. Why? Because more choices involve more effort, and selecting this particular Pitfall and Trap avoids that.

Select one of the following:

  • Vagueness and Ambiguity

  • Opinion Verses Fact

  • The Status Quo Trap

  • Interferences and Assumptions

Explanation

Question 23 of 178

1

When considering a decision, the mind gives disproportionate weight to the first information it receives. Initial impressions, estimates, or other data influence subsequent thoughts and judgements

Select one of the following:

  • The Status Quo Trap

  • The Justify-Past-Action Trap

  • Inferences and Assumptions

  • Anchoring

Explanation

Question 24 of 178

1

We use unconscious routines to cope with the complexity inherent in decision making. These routines serve us well in most situations. For example, in judging distances, we equate clarity with proximity. The clearer an object appears, the closer we judge it to be. The fuzzier, the farther away we think it is. What is this called?

Select one of the following:

  • Vagueness and Ambiguity

  • Heuristics

  • Decision making

  • The Status Quo Trap

Explanation

Question 25 of 178

1

This evidence is perceived by one of the five senses. What type of evidence is this

Select one of the following:

  • Physical evidence

  • Smell, Touch, Taste, Hear, and Vision evidence

  • Circumstantial evidence

  • Direct evidence

Explanation

Question 26 of 178

1

This evidence is (real) tangible objects in their original state. What type of evidence is this?

Select one of the following:

  • Direct evidence

  • Circumstantial evidence

  • demonstrative evidence

  • physical evidence

Explanation

Question 27 of 178

1

This evidence is based off of representations, maps photos, models, or diagrams used for illustration. What type of evidence is this?

Select one of the following:

  • Circumstantial evidence

  • Physical evidence

  • Demonstrative evidence

  • Testimonial evidence

Explanation

Question 28 of 178

1

This evidence is spoken evidence of facts personally observed or experienced. What type of evidence is this

Select one of the following:

  • Testimonial evidence

  • Demonstrative evidence

  • Physical evidence

  • Circumstantial evidence

Explanation

Question 29 of 178

1

This evidence is based on an inference (single pieces of this evidence alone are not adequate proof of the elements of a crime, however, taken together an accumulation of circumstantial evidence can be adequate.) What type of evidence is this

Select one of the following:

  • Direct evidence

  • Circumstantial evidence

  • Testimonial evidence

  • Demonstrative evidence

Explanation

Question 30 of 178

1

This search pattern requires two or more people to search each area before moving to the next. What type of pattern is this

Select one of the following:

  • Strip/Lane

  • Zone

  • Spiral

  • Grid

Explanation

Question 31 of 178

1

This search pattern is divided into zones or quadrants, each is searched thoroughly. What type of pattern is this?

Select one of the following:

  • Grid

  • Spiral

  • Strip/Lane

  • Zone

Explanation

Question 32 of 178

1

This search pattern allows for a secondary search from each area (with two people). What type of pattern is this

Select one of the following:

  • Zone

  • Spiral

  • Grid

  • Strip/Lane

Explanation

Question 33 of 178

1

This search pattern is used from inside out or outside in. This search pattern is only used if there’s one person. What type of pattern is this

Select one of the following:

  • Spiral

  • Strip/Lane

  • Zone

  • Grid

Explanation

Question 34 of 178

1

In a crime scene, where is the command post and staging area located?

Select one of the following:

  • Outer perimeter

  • Inner perimeter

  • At the agency headquarters

  • Extended perimeter

Explanation

Question 35 of 178

1

How much longer should the outer perimeter be compared to the inner perimeter?

Select one of the following:

  • At least 25% larger

  • At least 50% larger

  • at least 100% larger

  • None of the above

Explanation

Question 36 of 178

1

This packaging is ideal for storing non-biological samples that could evaporate. The most common examples are flammable liquid accelerants found in fire debris (e.g., gasoline, charcoal lighter fluid, etc.) What type of packaging is this?

Select one of the following:

  • Glass vials and jars

  • Paper

  • Metal cans

  • plastic

  • Contraband boxes

Explanation

Question 37 of 178

1

While collecting evidence at a crime scene, a detective came across blood-covered clothing. To best preserve this evidence, what packaging should the detective use?

Select one of the following:

  • Paper

  • Cardboard boxes

  • Glass vials and jars

  • Plastic

  • Metal cans

Explanation

Question 38 of 178

1

After responding to a drug overdose death, a detective came across a hypodermic needle used for heroin. What packaging should the detective use?

Select one of the following:

  • Metal cans

  • Glass vials and jars

  • Plastic-Sharps container

  • Cardboard boxes

Explanation

Question 39 of 178

1

When packaging a firearm for evidence, what packaging should you use?

Select one of the following:

  • Plastic

  • Cardboard Boxes

  • Metal cans

  • Paper

  • Glass Vials and jars

Explanation

Question 40 of 178

1

This packaging is useful for liquid samples, such as blood, alcohol, flammable liquids, water and so forth. What type of packaging is this

Select one of the following:

  • Plastic

  • Metal cans

  • Cardboard boxes

  • Glass vials and jars

  • Paper

Explanation

Question 41 of 178

1

This patrol is often the term given to a high number of officers converging into a limited area. The officers, or patrol, infuse into the designated location and make as many contacts as possible. The increased activity and mere presence of the officers has the psychological effect of the population that they have inundated with officers. Which patrol type is this?

Select one of the following:

  • Line Patrol

  • Regular Patrols

  • Saturation Patrols

  • Area Patrol

Explanation

Question 42 of 178

1

This form of traffic observation is made using a moving patrol car or from a stationary location on a specific route between two points, usually on a major street or section of highway. This method is often used while officers monitor traffic with speed detection devices. Which one is the correct answer?

Select one of the following:

  • Directed Patrol

  • Saturation Observation

  • Conspicuous Observation

  • Line Patrol

Explanation

Question 43 of 178

1

This form of patrol is in an area or beat which includes a number of streets, roads, or intersections of highways. This is usually the type of patrol officers will use on a day-to-day basis. It is also used to patrol an area of high traffic violations involving several city blocks or sections of highway. What type of patrol or denervation is this?

Select one of the following:

  • Area Patrol

  • Conspicuous Observation

  • Directed Patrol

  • Stationary Observation

Explanation

Question 44 of 178

1

A traffic patrol directed toward a certain traffic offense or to a stationary post. What type of patrol or observation is this?

Select one of the following:

  • Stationary Observation

  • Conspicuous Observation

  • Line Patrol

  • Directed Patrol

Explanation

Question 45 of 178

1

Observation of traffic conditions at a selected place, usually one with a high crash rate or traffic flow problem, used especially to detect violations and deter possible violations. What type of patrol or observation in this?

Select one of the following:

  • Conspicuous Observation

  • Area Patrol

  • Stationary Observation

  • Line Patrol

Explanation

Question 46 of 178

1

Stationary observation in which the observer is in full view but is so located, for example, on a side street, that it requires effort on the part of drivers to discover the observer. This type of traffic patrol is usually used when officers monitor traffic from a stationary position with speed detection devices. What type of patrol or observation is this?

Select one of the following:

  • Visible Observation

  • Concealed Observation

  • Directed Patrol

  • Line Patrol

Explanation

Question 47 of 178

1

Stationary observation in which the observer remains in full view of traffic (attempts to attract as much attention as possible to deter violation.) This type of observation is especially useful when officers are completing routine paperwork in a marked patrol car and choose a site clearly visible to high traffic volume. What type of patrol or observation is this?

Select one of the following:

  • Directed Patrol

  • Conspicuous Observation

  • Line Patrol

  • Stationary Patrol

Explanation

Question 48 of 178

1

Stationary observation to which the observer is not visible to persons using ordinary powers of observation from the roadway being used. What type of patrol observation is this?

Select one of the following:

  • Area Patrol

  • Visible Observation

  • Regular Patrol

  • Concealed Observation

Explanation

Question 49 of 178

1

How many feet must there be between traffic flares to provide a clear path for motorists to follow?

Select one of the following:

  • 5 Feet

  • 10 Feet

  • 15 Feet

  • 20 Feet

Explanation

Question 50 of 178

1

Per Wisconsin State Statue 350.101, are you allowed to operate a snowmobile UPON any freeways?

Select one of the following:

  • No, not at all

  • Only during the winter time

  • only in emergency situations

  • Yes, if extra precaution is taken

Explanation

Question 51 of 178

1

To operate a snowmobile legally, what age does the operator of the vehicle must be?

Select one of the following:

  • 21 years old

  • 16 years old

  • 18 years old

  • At least 12 years old

Explanation

Question 52 of 178

1

Per Wisconsin State Statue 350.101, under what conditions can a snowmobile operator transport a firearm or bow?

Select one of the following:

  • Only if completely loaded

  • Only if operator carries an authorized permit

  • If operator is the age of 21 or older

  • If the firearm is unloaded and encased or the bow is unstrung or in a carrying case.

Explanation

Question 53 of 178

1

Per Wisconsin Motor Vehicle Law Chapter 351, what considers a habitual traffic offender?

Select one of the following:

  • A person who has accumulated four major traffic convictions (including those from other jurisdictions) in a five-year period

  • A driver being at fault in four or more vehicle accidents in a 12 months period

  • A person who has accumulated a combination of twelve traffic convictions in a 5-year
    period

  • Both “a” and “c”

Explanation

Question 54 of 178

1

Per Wisconsin state statue 346.90, how far away must a driver be following an emergency vehicle?

Select one of the following:

  • 100 feet

  • 200 feet

  • 300 feet

  • 500 feet

Explanation

Question 55 of 178

1

Per State Statue 347.48(4), child safety seat law, children must be in a “car seat” until they reach age___ and ____ pounds, and in a “booster seat” until they reach age _____ and more than ____ pounds?

Select one of the following:

  • 5 years and 50 pounds / 9 years and 90 pounds

  • 4 years and 40 pounds / 8 years and 80 pounds

  • 6 years and 60 pounds / 7 years and 75 pounds

  • 3 years and 30 pounds / 5 years and 100 pounds

Explanation

Question 56 of 178

1

Per Wisconsin state statue 350.101, as a snow mobile operator, which one of the following are you NOT allowed to do?

Select one of the following:

  • Ride directly across any roadways having fewer than 5 lanes, but only after stopping and yielding the right-of-way to all vehicles approaching on the roadway

  • Unless prohibited and posted, ride on the roadway of highways to cross a bridge, culvert or railroad right-of-way, but only after yielding the right-of-way to all vehicle traffic

  • Ride on the roadway of county or town highways and city or village streets for authorized snowmobile events

  • Operate a snowmobile on or across a cemetery, Indian lands, burial, grand, school or church property without consent

Explanation

Question 57 of 178

1

How many feet should a vehicle operator follow behind a snow plow truck, per state law?

Select one of the following:

  • 100 feet

  • 200 feet

  • 300 feet

  • 500 feet

Explanation

Question 58 of 178

1

How far away should a vehicle be parked from a driveway, alley, and entrance per state law?

Select one of the following:

  • 4 feet

  • 6 feet

  • 8 feet

  • 10 feet

Explanation

Question 59 of 178

1

How far should a vehicle be parked away from a fire hydrant?

Select one of the following:

  • 4 feet

  • 6 feet

  • 8 feet

  • 10 feet

Explanation

Question 60 of 178

1

The Belief that your group (culture) is superior. Example: “My culture is the standard for behavior and all people should act like me.” Which is the correct answer?

Select one of the following:

  • Racism

  • Discrimination

  • Culture Preference

  • Ethnocentrism

  • Stereotyping

  • Low Tolerance for Diversity

  • Prejudice

Explanation

Question 61 of 178

1

A less than fair and objective attitude toward cultures different than your own. Which one of the following below is the correct answer?

Select one of the following:

  • Stereotyping

  • Prejudice

  • Racism

  • Low tolerance for Diversity

  • Discrimination

  • Ethnocentrism

  • CulturalPreference

Explanation

Question 62 of 178

1

A simplified and standardized concept or belief held in common by members of a group. These generalizations are often offensive. Which one of the following below is the answer

Select one of the following:

  • Stereotyping

  • Low Tolerance for Diversity

  • Prejudice

  • Culture Preference

  • Racism

  • Discrimination

  • Ethnocentrism

Explanation

Question 63 of 178

1

Unreasonable feelings/ opinions/ attitudes directed against members of other groups. You now pre-judge and think about these groups with hostility and malice. Which one?

Select one of the following:

  • Ethnocentrism

  • Racism

  • Discrimination

  • Stereotyping

  • Culture Preference

  • Low Tolerance for Diversity

  • Prejudice

Explanation

Question 64 of 178

1

Negative acts intended to oppress members of other cultures. Which one is the correct answer?

Select one of the following:

  • Low Tolerance for Diversity

  • Racism

  • Cultural Preference

  • Discrimination

  • Prejudice

  • Ethnocentrism

  • Stereotyping

Explanation

Question 65 of 178

1

A belief that races have distinct characteristics that determines their respective culture. Previous negative feeling is now a belief system. “My culture is superior and I have the right to rule over others”. A racist believes he/she must protect and defend their culture. Which one is correct?

Select one of the following:

  • Prejudice

  • Ethnocentrism

  • Low Tolerance for Diversity

  • Discrimation

  • Stereotyping

  • Racism

  • Cultural Preference

Explanation

Question 66 of 178

1

Natural and normal tendency for people to prefer their own culture. Which one is the correct answer?

Select one of the following:

  • Cultural Preference

  • Low Tolerance for Diversity

  • Enthocentlrism

  • stereotyping

  • prejudice

  • Racism

  • Discrimination

Explanation

Question 67 of 178

1

If under the age of ________, a juvenile must be released to a parent or guardian.

Select one of the following:

  • 13

  • 14

  • 15

  • 16

Explanation

Question 68 of 178

1

Per 34 C.F.R. § 99.30., any school or school district that receives federal funding is obligated by federal law not to release records that include personally identifying information ( students’ or parents’ names, addresses, or other identifying information) without the consent of either the students’ parent or the student, if the student is over ______ years of age

Select one of the following:

  • 12

  • 14

  • 17

  • 18

Explanation

Question 69 of 178

1

Statues require law enforcement to keep records of confidential (exceptions do apply) and kept separate from adult records. They can be shared with other LE Agencies, schools, and social welfare agencies, and parents or children ___________ and older can give permission to view.

Select one of the following:

  • 12

  • 14

  • 16

  • 17

Explanation

Question 70 of 178

1

If ______ years or older, a juvenile can be released without adult supervision. However, all parents and guardians must be notified of time of release and to whom (if any).

Select one of the following:

  • 13

  • 14

  • 15

  • 16

Explanation

Question 71 of 178

1

There are only a few groups of people who can obtain Juvenile Records; such as the Child of Welfare Bureau, schools, and Law Enforcement Agencies, the parent of the juvenile, and also the juvenile if he / she is at least ______ years of age.

Select one of the following:

  • 14

  • 16

  • 17

  • None of the above

Explanation

Question 72 of 178

1

Under what conditions are juveniles required by law to be audibly/ visually recorded

Select one of the following:

  • When arrested for Misdemeanor charges

  • When stopped at a retail store

  • When arrested for Felony charges

  • Whenever being interrogated (no matter the severity of the crime)

Explanation

Question 73 of 178

1

For a juvenile to have a disposition for a crime that he/she has committed, the juvenile must first be _____________ of the charge?

Select one of the following:

  • Convicted

  • Found Guilty

  • Adjudicated

  • Sentenced

Explanation

Question 74 of 178

1

How many hours can a law enforcement agency detain a juvenile for investigatory purposes?

Select one of the following:

  • 4 hours

  • 6 hours

  • 8 hours

  • 24 hours

Explanation

Question 75 of 178

1

In this style, the officer is conflicted about the use of authority and sees people as basically all the same. These types of officers will bargain for compliance, minimize, rationalize or block rather than exercise their lawful authority and do their duty. What style is this?

Select one of the following:

  • Professional

  • Avoider

  • Enforcer

  • Reciprocator

Explanation

Question 76 of 178

1

In this style, the officer type casts people as either good or bad. The “bad people are dealt with by using formal enforcement exclusively as a solution to the problem (citation use of force, arrest, protective custody, etc.) What style is this?

Select one of the following:

  • Enforcer

  • Reciprocator

  • Professional

  • Avoider

Explanation

Question 77 of 178

1

This style is comfortable with legitimate use of authority. This style is firm yet compassionate, act morally, and resist corruption. This style is proactive and takes a broad view of police “services.” What style is this?

Select one of the following:

  • Avoider

  • Professional

  • Reciprocator

  • Enforcer

Explanation

Question 78 of 178

1

In this style, the officer does not see people from “bad” neighborhoods as worth defending. The officer lacks assertiveness or does not understand how to properly use authority to protect victims of those neighborhoods from criminal predator. This type of officer is unwilling or unable to engage the community proactively. What style is this?

Select one of the following:

  • Reciprocator

  • Enforcer

  • Avoider

  • Professional

Explanation

Question 79 of 178

1

This theory emphasizes the principles behind actions rather than actions results. Acting rightly thus requires being motivated by proper universal principles that treat everyone with respect. When you’re motivated by the right principles, you overcome your animal instincts and act ethically. What theory is this?

Select one of the following:

  • Kantianism

  • Care ethics

  • Contact theory

  • Virtue ethics

Explanation

Question 80 of 178

1

This theory focuses ethical attention on relationships before other factors. As a result, acting rightly involves building, strengthening, and maintaining strong relationships. Acting rightly thus displays care for others and for the relationships of which they are a part. To ethicists, relationships are fundamental to critical thinking. What theory is this?

Select one of the following:

  • Care ethics

  • Utilitarianism

  • Virtue ethics

  • contact theory

  • Kantianism

Explanation

Question 81 of 178

1

This theory proposes thinking about ethics in terms of agreements between people. Doing the right thing means abiding by the agreements that the members of a rational society would choose. So for contract theorists, ethics isn’t necessarily about character, consequences, or principles. What is this?

Select one of the following:

  • Care ethics

  • Virtue ethics

  • Utilitarianism

  • Kantianism

  • Contact theory

Explanation

Question 82 of 178

1

This theory puts character above all else. Living on ethical life requires developing and demonstrating the virtues of courage, compassion, wisdom and temperance. It also requires the avoidance of vices like greed, jealousy, and selfishness. Which theory is this?

Select one of the following:

  • Utilitarianism

  • Contact Theory

  • Kantianism

  • Virtue Ethics

  • Care Ethics

Explanation

Question 83 of 178

1

This theory holds that the amount of happiness and suffering created by a person’s actions is what really matters. Thus, acting rightly involves maximizing the amount of happiness and minimizing the amount of suffering around you. Sometimes you may even need to break some of the traditional moral rules to achieve such an outcome. What theory is this?

Select one of the following:

  • Virtue Ethics

  • Kantianism

  • Contact Theory

  • Care Ethics

  • Utilitarianism

Explanation

Question 84 of 178

1

For two weeks straight, Ward and Sida were planning on robbing a McDonald’s Restaurant, but never acted on executing their plan, up until Sida purchased a stolen firearm from a local drug dealer. Sida told Ward to meet him up at the restaurant at 10:00 p.m. that same day. What Inchoate offense does this fall under?

Select one of the following:

  • Attempted Robbery

  • Solicitation

  • Conspiracy

  • Attempt

Explanation

Question 85 of 178

1

Jones conspired to rob a bank. During the act of robbing the bank, an off-duty officer intervened and arrested Jones. What Inchoate offense does this fall under?

Select one of the following:

  • Attempt

  • Conspiracy

  • Pre-Meditated Crime

  • Solicitation

Explanation

Question 86 of 178

1

Dan Hover hired a undercover police to murder his wife? What Inchoate offense does this fall under?

Select one of the following:

  • Conspiracy

  • Prostitution

  • Attempt

  • Solicitation

Explanation

Question 87 of 178

1

In order for a person to be charged with an enhanced penalty for committing a violent crime on school grounds, how many feet must he or she be within the premises?

Select one of the following:

  • 200 feet

  • 500 feet

  • 1000 feet

  • 2000 feet

Explanation

Question 88 of 178

1

After being arrested for a domestic Violence charge, and then being released, within ___ hours of arrest, a person can be charged with a Domestic Abuse Enhancer if he or she commits another crime (such as a battery, disorderly conduct etc.)

Select one of the following:

  • 12 hours

  • 24 hours

  • 48 hours

  • 72 hours

Explanation

Question 89 of 178

1

This agency is responsible for implementing state and federal laws that protect and enhance Wisconsin’s natural resources. Their enforcement authority includes wildlife, fish, boating, snowmobiling, all-terrain vehicles (ATV’s), environmental, water regulation and zoning, and forestry laws. Members from this agency serve as peace officers in Wisconsin’s state parks and forests. What agency is this?

Select one of the following:

  • Global Warming Bureau

  • Public Integrity Bureau

  • Go Green” Rangers

  • Wisconsin Department of Natural Resources (DNR)

Explanation

Question 90 of 178

1

This agency investigates alleged violations of state statutes when committed by public employees acting in their official capacity, as well as violations committed by any government entity at the state or local level. Investigations include complaints of misconduct in public office, private interest in a public contract, open records and open meetings violations, elections violations and ethics violations. What agency is this?

Select one of the following:

  • Wisconsin Statewide Information Center (WSIC)

  • Investigative Services Bureau

  • Public Integrity Bureau

  • Gaming Enforcement Bureau

Explanation

Question 91 of 178

1

This agency has criminal law enforcement responsibilities relating to pari-mutuel betting, the Wisconsin lottery, Indian gaming, charitable gaming, bingo and illegal gambling. The Department of Revenue’s Lottery Division and the Department of Administration’s Gaming Division are required by statute to report all suspected criminal activity to DCI. What agency is this?

Select one of the following:

  • Gaming Enforcement Bureau

  • Aerial Surveillance

  • Casino Crimes Information Department

  • Wisconsin Statewide Information Center (WSIC)

Explanation

Question 92 of 178

1

This office works to help stem the flow of drugs into and within Wisconsin. Special agents provide investigative assistance to local law enforcement; initiate independent drug investigations; and work closely with local, state and federal law enforcement agencies. The bureau provides assistance in complex, multi-jurisdictional cases, and has the capability of moving personnel from one region of the state to another to be utilized in an undercover capacity. What agency is this?

Select one of the following:

  • Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA)

  • Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco, Firearms and Explosives (ATF)

  • Narcotics Bureau

  • U.S. Customs and Border Protection (CBP)

Explanation

Question 93 of 178

1

This agency is dedicated to preventing terrorism, reducing violent crime, and protecting our Nation. Agents enforce federal criminal laws and regulate the firearms and explosives industries. They investigate and work to reduce crime involving firearms and explosives, acts of arson, and illegal trafficking of alcohol and tobacco products. What agency is this?

Select one of the following:

  • Department of Homeland Security (DHS)

  • Arson Bureau/State Fire Marshal’s Office

  • Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA)

  • Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco, Firearms and Explosives (ATF)

Explanation

Question 94 of 178

1

This agency is known to be the oldest federal law enforcement agency. This particular agency is the enforcement arm of the federal courts. It houses federal detainees, the majority of them in state and local jails. This agency manages the federal witness protection program and the asset forfeiture program. What agency is this?

Select one of the following:

  • United States Marshals Service

  • Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI)

  • United States Secret Service

  • Department of Homeland Security (DHS)

Explanation

Question 95 of 178

1

The mission of this agency is to enforce the controlled substances laws and regulations of the United States. It was formed in the mid-1970s to address narcotic enforcement problems in this country. The agency’s jurisdiction is limited to narcotics enforcement. Agents work with local law enforcement in coordinating drug investigations. What agency is this?

Select one of the following:

  • U.S. Customs and Border Protection (CBP)

  • Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco, Firearms and Explosives (ATF)

  • Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA)

  • Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI)

Explanation

Question 96 of 178

1

This agency is the leading agency for the enforcement of federal laws. Part of its mission is to provide federal leadership in preventing and controlling crime. Several agencies within the department provide services to local law enforcement. What agency is this?

Select one of the following:

  • Department of Homeland Security (DHS)

  • United States Secret Service

  • U.S Customs and Border Protection (CBP)

  • U.S. Department of Justice

Explanation

Question 97 of 178

1

Special agents investigate fires and explosions that are of incendiary origin. Wisconsin fire chiefs are required to report fires of a suspicious nature to this agency. This agency will assist local authorities with fire scene examinations to determine the cause and origin of the fire. A certified liquid accelerant detection canine works with special agents. What agency is this?

Select one of the following:

  • Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco, Firearms and Explosives (ATF)

  • Arson Bureau/State Fire Marshal’s Office

  • Wisconsin Department of Natural Resources (DNR)

  • Investigative Services Bureau

Explanation

Question 98 of 178

1

This agency investigates crimes that are statewide in nature. Upon request, special agents work closely with local officials to investigate and prosecute crimes involving arson, financial crimes, illegal gaming, computer crimes, identity theft, drug trafficking, government corruption, crimes against children, homicides and multi-jurisdictional theft or fraud. This agency also performs special investigations requested by the Governor, the Attorney General or the Legislature. What agency is this?

Select one of the following:

  • Federal Bureau of Investigation

  • Wisconsin Department of Justice/Division of Criminal Investigation

  • Gaming Enforcement Bureau

  • Investigative Services Bureau

Explanation

Question 99 of 178

1

This agency protects the president and vice president, their families, heads of state, and other designated individuals; and investigates threats against these protectees. This agency also investigates violations of laws relating to counterfeiting of obligations and securities of the United States; financial crimes that include access device fraud, financial institution fraud, identity theft, computer fraud; and computer-based attacks on our nation’s financial, banking, and telecommunications infrastructure. What agency is this?

Select one of the following:

  • United States Marshals Service

  • Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI)

  • U.S. Department of Justice

  • United States Secret Service

Explanation

Question 100 of 178

1

Which of the following is true and correct of the Sheriff’s Role/Responsibilities?

Select one of the following:

  • Take the charge and custody of the jail maintained by the county and the persons in the jail, and keep the persons in the jail personally or by a deputy or jailer.

  • Keep a true and exact register of all prisoners committed to any jail under the sheriff's charge, in a book for that purpose, which shall contain the names of all persons who are committed to any such jail, their residence, the time when committed and cause of commitment, and the authority by which they were committed; and if for a criminal offense, a description of the person; and when any prisoner is liberated, state the time when and the authority by which the prisoner was liberated; and if any person escapes, state the particulars of the time and manner of such escape.

  • Attend upon the circuit court held in the sheriff's county during its session, and at the request of the court file with the clerk thereof a list of deputies for attendance on the court. Personally, or by the undersheriff or deputies, serve or execute all processes, writs, precepts and orders issued or made by lawful authority and delivered to the sheriff.

  • Deliver on demand to the sheriff's successor in office, when the sheriff's successor has qualified according to law, the jail and other property of the county and all prisoners in the jail, and all books, records, writs, processes, orders and other papers belonging to the sheriff's office and in the possession of the sheriff, undersheriff, jailer or deputies.

  • All the above

Explanation

Question 101 of 178

1

Wisconsin statutes provide a method for cities, towns and villages to create police departments. The law requires that municipalities with a population of _____ or more must provide police protection services. These services can be provided by creating a municipal police department, creating a joint department or contracting for services with another police agency.

Select one of the following:

  • 2500

  • 5,000

  • 10,000

  • 50,000

Explanation

Question 102 of 178

1

Who is the Chief Law Enforcement Officer of the state?

Select one of the following:

  • Mayor

  • Senator

  • Attorney General

  • Sherriff

Explanation

Question 103 of 178

1

Who is the Chief Law Enforcement Officer of the County?

Select one of the following:

  • Chief of Police

  • Senator

  • Attorney General

  • Sherriff

Explanation

Question 104 of 178

1

This policing strategy is a philosophy of policing that combines traditional aspects of law enforcement with prevention measures, problem-solving, community engagement, and community partnerships. The goal of this policing is to bring the police and the public it serves closer together to identify and address crime issues. Instead of merely responding to emergency calls and arresting criminals, law enforcement officers get involved in finding out what causes crime and disorder, and attempt to creatively solve problems in their assigned communities. What policing strategy is this?

Select one of the following:

  • Community Policing

  • Broken Window Policy

  • Intelligence-Led Policing

  • Problem-Oriented Policing

Explanation

Question 105 of 178

1

This agency may respond to bank robberies, certain kidnappings and hostage situations. They play a lead role in the nation’s counter and anti-terrorism efforts. Part of this agency mission is to provide criminal justice services to local law enforcement agencies. This agency maintains the Integrated Automated Fingerprint Identification System, known as IAFIS, which is a national fingerprint repository. What agency is this?

Select one of the following:

  • United States Marshals Service

  • Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI)

  • Department of Homeland Security (DHS)

  • Investigative Services Bureau

Explanation

Question 106 of 178

1

This policing strategy is a theory that says by controlling minor disorders serious crimes can be reduced. The argument for this strategy is that if low-level quality-of-life offenses are tolerated in a community, more serious crime will follow. For example, a neighborhood that is not cared for gives criminals the impression that the residents of the community do not care about the quality of life in their neighborhood. It signals them that they are free to roam through the neighborhood and steal, litter, and vandalize. The unkempt houses opens up the community for more disorders, such as public drunkenness and loitering that if not dealt with will lead to more serious crimes. What policing strategy is this?

Select one of the following:

  • Problem-Oriented Policing

  • Intelligence-Led Policing

  • Broken Windows Policing

  • Community Policing

Explanation

Question 107 of 178

1

This policing involves the identification and analysis of specific crime and disorder problems in order to develop effective response strategies in conjunction with ongoing assessment. This strategy places more emphasis on research and analysis as well as crime prevention and the engagement of public and private organization in the reduction of community problems. What policing strategy is this?

Select one of the following:

  • Intelligence-Led Policing

  • Computer statistics or comparative statistics (COMPSTAT) policing

  • Broken Windows Policing

  • Problem-Oriented Policing

Explanation

Question 108 of 178

1

This policing have grown in popularity ever since the terrorist attacks on 9/11. It focuses on agencies gathering intelligence and sharing that information within their agencies and with other local, state and federal agencies. It is part homeland security, but also a method of tracking down and taking down organized crime. For example, one county might have two convenience store robberies. A bordering county might have had four. In this style of policing, these agencies would share information to help catch the criminal. Instead of being reactive, the agency can use this data in a proactive way and anticipate where the criminal will strike next. What policing strategy is this?

Select one of the following:

  • Intelligence-Led Policing

  • Chicago’s Alternative Policing Strategy (CAPS)

  • Computer statistics or comparative statistics (COMPSTAT) policing

  • Problem-Oriented Policing

Explanation

Question 109 of 178

1

This policing is the name given to the New York City Police Department’s accountability process and has since been replicated in many other departments. This style of policing process collects, analyzes, and maps crime data and other essential police performance measures on a regular basis and holds police managers accountable for their performance as measured by this data. What policing strategy is this?

Select one of the following:

  • Intelligence-Led Policing

  • Computer statistics or Comparative Statistics Policing (COMPSTAT)

  • Chicago’s Alternative Policing Strategy (CAPS)

  • Broken Windows Policing

Explanation

Question 110 of 178

1

Under this Policing Strategy, law enforcement, other government agencies and the community work together to identify and solve problems of crime and disorder to improve the quality of life in neighborhoods. The key features of this policing are crime control and prevention, organizational continuity, community involvement, beat profiling/action planning, training, computerized crime analysis, communication and marketing, evaluation, and strategic planning. What policing strategy is this?

Select one of the following:

  • Computer Statistics or comparative statistics (COMPSTAT) policing

  • Community Policing

  • Problem-Oriented Policing

  • Chicago’s Alternative Policing (CAPS)

Explanation

Question 111 of 178

1

Reconstructionists use special equipment along with their technical knowledge and skill to determine what caused fatal and serious injury crashes. Reconstructionists often contribute expert testimony during legal proceedings concerning crashes. Some of their findings are used by engineers to design safer highways. Reconstructionists will also produce maps and diagrams of homicides and other crime scenes for evidence at trials. What agency is this under?

Select one of the following:

  • State Patrol

  • Investigative Service Bureau

  • Department of Justice

  • Sherriff's Office

Explanation

Question 112 of 178

1

Two officers were dispatched to a “retail theft” call for service at a local Walmart. The suspect was still at the store and placed in temporary custody by Walmart security. After officers arrived on scene, one of the officers began using profanity towards the suspect. This once calm and orderly scene turned into chaos. Instead of de-escalating the situation, this same officer continued to escalate it, agitating the suspect. What concept would be best for this situation?

Select one of the following:

  • Subject-Override

  • Immediate Supervision Intervention

  • Officer-Override

  • None of the above

Explanation

Question 113 of 178

1

Believing the Flight-or-Flight Fallacy, falling prey to presumed compliance, using police jargon, indulging in actions that provoke other people, reacting to “hot buttons”, and times constraints. Which communication barrier is this?

Select one of the following:

  • Physical barriers

  • Officer-generated barriers

  • Interpersonal barriers

Explanation

Question 114 of 178

1

This barrier involves telephones, radios, security glass, intercoms, squad cars, email communication (due to shift work, etc.), and environmental factors. What communication barrier is this?

Select one of the following:

  • Officer-generated barriers

  • Physical barriers

  • Interpersonal barriers

Explanation

Question 115 of 178

1

Cultural barriers, Gender or sexual differences, Generational or aged differences, Physical disabilities, and mental medical problems, Substance abuse, Developmental or cognitive barriers, and Mental disorders. What communication barrier is this?

Select one of the following:

  • Interpersonal Barriers

  • Physical Barriers

  • Officer-generated Barriers

Explanation

Question 116 of 178

1

Approximately how many inches away from your mouth should you hold the mic while talking, so that your transmissions does not become muffled?

Select one of the following:

  • 1-2 inches away

  • 2-3 inches away

  • 3-4 inches away

  • 4-5 inches away

Explanation

Question 117 of 178

1

When using the microphone or hand held radio, what degree angle should it be in?

Select one of the following:

  • 15 degree angle

  • 30 degree angle

  • 45 degree angle

  • 90 degree angle

Explanation

Question 118 of 178

1

General broadcasts are used to broadcast general information such as missing persons, suspect descriptions, stolen vehicles, etc. It will generally have you say something similar to, “Units, standby for a broadcast.” How long should you wait for officers to prepare to copy the information down before beginning the broadcast?

Select one of the following:

  • 5-10 seconds

  • 10-20 seconds

  • 20-30 seconds

  • 30-40 seconds

Explanation

Question 119 of 178

1

How many hours are legally required for a Law Enforcement officer to wait until he or she can interrogate a suspect for the same crime, after it was already invoked silence? The suspect has been arrested but not charged.

Select one of the following:

  • 12 hours

  • 48 hours

  • 2 hours

  • 14 days

Explanation

Question 120 of 178

1

A suspected has been arrested and charged for armed robbery. During interviewing, the suspect asserted his right to council. He was later bailed out and released from custody. Law
enforcement officers want to re-interview him for the same charge. How long should they wait before making contact per law?

Select one of the following:

  • 48 hours

  • Never, unless his or her attorney contacts you

  • 30 days

  • 14 days

Explanation

Question 121 of 178

1

Under what conditions should you Mirandize a person to avoid future consequences?

Select one of the following:

  • While being detained

  • After being arrested

  • Custodial Interrogation

  • Consensual encounter in the public

Explanation

Question 122 of 178

1

A suspect has been arrested for armed robbery, but NOT charged. During interviewing, the suspect asserted his right to council. He was later bailed out and released from custody. Law enforcement officers want to re-interview him for the same charge. How long should they wait before making contact per law?

Select one of the following:

  • 48 hours

  • Never, unless his or her attorney contacts you

  • 30 days

  • 14 days

Explanation

Question 123 of 178

1

If responding to a large scene, such as a fire emergency, how should you park your squad?

Select one of the following:

  • Park over a hill so that you can get better view of the scene

  • Park in a way that you can keep repositioning your squad depending on circumstances that changes throughout the scene; making sure that your vehicle is appropriately parked at or near the scene

  • Park in a way that only Emergency Responders can get through

  • Park in front of the scene, protecting the public from danger

Explanation

Question 124 of 178

1

In 1989, the United States Supreme Court found that law enforcement officers’ use of force against subjects was a type of seizure, and therefore, under the Constitution had to be “objectively reasonable.” The case was Graham v. Connor, and it is one of two landmark cases in law enforcement use of force. Which amendment does law enforcement use of force mostly pertains to?

Select one of the following:

  • 1st Amendment

  • 4th Amendment

  • 8th Amendment

  • 14th Amendment

Explanation

Question 125 of 178

1

Officer Majeed responded to a “suspicious person” calls for service at a gas station. When the officer made contact and identified the suspect, the suspect came back as having an arrest warrant from the county. Officer Majeed attempted to place the suspect under arrest, but the suspect began actively resisting, attempting to run away. Officer Majeed performed a classroom model vertical stun on the suspect, giving the officer enough time to place handcuffs on him. What technique is this?

Select one of the following:

  • A dynamic application of a trained technique

  • A technique not trained, but justifiable under the circumstances

  • A trained technique

  • Deadly Force

Explanation

Question 126 of 178

1

Officer Lucky responded to a “suspicious person” calls for service at a Walgreens store. When the officer made contact and identified the suspect, the suspect came back as having an arrest warrant for attempted-homicide. Officer Lucky attempted to place the suspect under arrest, but the suspect became assaultive towards the officer, attempting to punch and bite him. Officer Lucky pulled out his baton and directed a strike aimed at the suspect’s elbow. The suspect ducked and the baton strike hit his head instead. What technique is this?

Select one of the following:

  • The up and under technique

  • A dynamic application of a trained technique

  • A technique not trained, but justifiable under the circumstances

  • A trained technique

Explanation

Question 127 of 178

1

Officer Conner responded to a “suspicious person” calls for service at Walmart. When the officer made contact and identified the suspect, the suspect came back as having an arrest warrant for attempted-homicide. Officer Conner attempted to place the suspect under arrest, but the suspect became assaultive towards the officer, slamming the officer on the ground. The suspect got on top of the officer and began choking him. Officer Conner was unable to get to his firearm and other equipment on his duty belt. Officer Conner began losing conscious and feared that he would soon die. Fearing for his life, Officer Conner pulled out an ink pen from his shirt pocket and directed it into the suspect eyes. What technique is this?

Select one of the following:

  • A technique not trained, but justifiable under the circumstances

  • A trained technique

  • Tactical ink pen maneuver

  • A dynamic application of a trained technique

Explanation

Question 128 of 178

1

This level is the best position for escorting a subject. It is also the position you will use to make contact with a driver in an approach vehicle contact. What level/position is this?

Select one of the following:

  • 1

  • 2

  • 2 ½

  • 3

Explanation

Question 129 of 178

1

Officer Robillard just graduated the police academy and is responding to his first “shots fired” call. After arriving on scene, this officer started displaying signs of anxiety, nervousness, confusion, and indecisiveness. Instead of reverting back to his training that he received from the academy, he froze. What level of awareness (Color) is this?

Select one of the following:

  • Yellow

  • Red

  • White

  • Black

Explanation

Question 130 of 178

1

When you do this type of talk, you should project a non-threatening presence and speak in a normal conversational tone. What control talk is this?
Examples of this control talk:
 “Hi, I’m Officer Smith, what’s your name?”
 “Do you live around here?”
 “Can I help you find something?”

Select one of the following:

  • Light Control Talk

  • Persuasion

  • Search Talk

  • Heavy Control Talk

Explanation

Question 131 of 178

1

Your physical presence, your tone of voice, and your words all must convey intensity and commitment. What control talk is this?
Examples of this control of talk:
 “Drop the knife! Drop the knife or I’ll shoot!”
 “Leave now. If you do not leave, you will be arrested.”

Select one of the following:

  • Heavy Control Talk

  • Search Talk

  • Light Control Talk

  • Persuasion

Explanation

Question 132 of 178

1

This control talk is more directive. Although you are giving orders, it is assertive rather than aggressive. What control talk is this?
Examples of this control talk:
 “Stop right where you are.”
 “Show me your hands.”
 “Step out of the car.”

Select one of the following:

  • Persuasion

  • Light Control Talk

  • Heavy Control Talk

  • Search Talk

Explanation

Question 133 of 178

1

This control talk is intended to gain compliance from a subject while still maintaining a relatively non-threatening tone. What control talk is this?
Examples of this control talk:
 “Sir, would you mind stepping over here?”
 “Ma’am, please come over here and talk to me.”
 “Sir, it would be best if you went on your way now.”

Select one of the following:

  • Search Talk

  • Heavy Control Talk

  • Light Control Talk

  • Persuasion

Explanation

Question 134 of 178

1

What is an ECD? What does the acronym stand for?

Select one of the following:

  • Electric Containment Department

  • Elusive Control Doppler

  • Electric Control Device

  • Electric Charged Device

Explanation

Question 135 of 178

1

What level should you be in to perform a Secure-the-Head Decentralization?

Select one of the following:

  • 1

  • 2

  • 2 ½

  • 3

Explanation

Question 136 of 178

1

What level should you be in to perform a Pull-In/Push-Down Decentralization?

Select one of the following:

  • 1

  • 2

  • 2 ½

  • 3

Explanation

Question 137 of 178

1

In this case, the U.S. Supreme Court established the standard that any law enforcement use of force must be objectively reasonable. In addition, the Court said that reasonableness should be judged under the totality of the circumstances from the perspective of a reasonable officer at the scene with similar training and experience. What case law is this?

Select one of the following:

  • Terry v. Ohio

  • Miranda v. Arizona

  • Graham v. Connor

  • Mapp v. Ohio

Explanation

Question 138 of 178

1

What does the acronym GUN stand for?

Select one of the following:

  • Gun, Under, Notice

  • Grab, Undue, Neutralize

  • Gun, Undue, Neutralize

  • Grab, Under, Notice

Explanation

Question 139 of 178

1

What part of the pistol should you NOT oil or lube?

Select one of the following:

  • The outside of the barrel

  • The firing pin hole

  • The slide rails, where the slide attaches to the receiver

  • The Hammer linkage or trigger bar

  • Recoil spring/rod assembly

Explanation

Question 140 of 178

1

If you fire a number of rounds during a gunfight and there is a lull (pause or break) in the action, you may decide to reload so you have a full magazine in your weapon if the gunfight resumes. There is a round still in the chamber. This type of reload usually occurs while behind cover. What type of reload is this?

Select one of the following:

  • In-Battery Reload

  • Out-Of-Battery Reload

  • Mid-Battery Reload

  • Malfunction

Explanation

Question 141 of 178

1

This type of reload occurs after all of the remaining rounds from your magazine and chamber have been fired. After shooting off the last round from the magazine and pistol, the slide stop automatically activates, preventing the slide from closing. The picture below is an image of how a pistol looks after firing the last round from the magazine and pistol (Be advised: The state test will NOT show an image. This is for studying purposes only). What reload type is this?

Select one of the following:

  • Malfunction

  • In-Battery Reload

  • Mid-Battery Reload

  • Out-Of-Battery Reload

Explanation

Question 142 of 178

1

For a semi-automatic pistol to fire repeatedly, four actions must take place. Which one of the following is NOT apart of the firing cycle?

Select one of the following:

  • Fire

  • Extract

  • Explosion

  • Eject

  • Feed

Explanation

Question 143 of 178

1

In an approach vehicle contact, how far away should you park your squad behind the subject vehicle?

Select one of the following:

  • Approximately 5 – 10 feet

  • Approximately 10 – 15 feet

  • Approximately 15 – 20 feet

  • Approximately 20 – 25 feet

Explanation

Question 144 of 178

1

In a high-risk traffic stop, how far away should you and other officers position the squads from the subject’s vehicle?

Select one of the following:

  • Approximately 15 feet

  • Approximately 25 feet

  • Approximately 50 feet

  • Approximately 100 feet

Explanation

Question 145 of 178

1

When making contact with the driver of the vehicle, what Basic Contact Model should you follow that you learned in Professional Communication Skills?

Select one of the following:

  • Opening Information-Gathering Resolution (OIR)

  • Disturbance Resolution Model

  • Tactical Deployment

  • Light Control Talk

Explanation

Question 146 of 178

1

If you have already decided what action you are going to take, you should let the driver know at this time. For example, Officer Ward have decided to issue a citation for a red signal violation. What step of OIR is this?
Example:
“Sir, I will be issuing you a citation. Please wait here in your car and I’ll be back with you as soon as I’ve finished the paperwork.”

Select one of the following:

  • Opening

  • Information Gathering

  • Resolution

  • All of the above

Explanation

Question 147 of 178

1

In the case of a vehicle contact, the beginning consists of you identifying yourself and your agency and explaining the reason for the stop. What step of OIR is this?
Example:
“Good afternoon, Sir. I’m Officer Domagalski of the Milwaukee Police Department. I stopped you because I saw your vehicle go through a red light at Main and First Street.

Select one of the following:

  • Opening

  • Information Gathering

  • Resolution

  • All of the above

Explanation

Question 148 of 178

1

In this phase of the contact, you ask questions to understand the context of the behavior that prompted your stop, to identify the individuals involved, and to fill in any other information you need to get. For a vehicle contact, give the driver the opportunity to explain his or her actions. What step in OIR is this?
Example:
“Sir, was there some reason that you didn’t stop for that red light?”

Select one of the following:

  • Opening

  • Information Gathering

  • Resolution

  • All of the above

Explanation

Question 149 of 178

1

In this position, the squad car is angled slightly toward the roadway rather than being parallel to the subject vehicle. The angle places a portion of the car (and engine block) between the officer and the subject vehicle. One disadvantage of this position is that the squad car’s headlights may blind oncoming drivers, particularly at night, and especially if the headlights flash between high and low beams. At the same time because the squad car is angled, its emergency lights are less visible from the rear and its headlights and take-down lights are less able to illuminate the subject vehicle. What position is this?

Select one of the following:

  • Offset

  • Curve

  • In-Line

  • Angle-Left

Explanation

Question 150 of 178

1

In this position, the subject vehicle is stopped on the shoulder or next to the curb, and the squad car is adjusted to the left so that the left rear corner of the subject vehicle is even with the center of the squad. The purpose for this position rather than parking directly behind the subject vehicle is to provide the officer with a safety lane for walking up to and contacting the driver, if the officer chooses the left-hand approach. The disadvantage of this position is that the squad car does protrude into the traffic lane. That either makes the lane unusable by other traffic, or, if the lane is wide enough, may encourage other traffic to “squeeze by” putting the officer at risk of injury. What position is this?

Select one of the following:

  • Offset

  • In-Line

  • Adjusted-Right

  • Angle-Left

Explanation

Question 151 of 178

1

In this position, the squad car is positioned directly behind the subject vehicle. This position is used only when conditions preclude using one of the preferred positions. An example might be a high-traffic city street at rush hour, when either of the preferred positions would increase congestion by blocking a lane. This position provides no safety lane for the officer using a driver side approach—a passenger side approach. What position is this?

Select one of the following:

  • Straight-Aligned

  • Angled-Left

  • Offset

  • In-Line

Explanation

Question 152 of 178

1

If you have a vehicle with multiple subjects in it, you might choose to interview the driver away from the vehicle to minimize complications from the passengers. Or if you have stopped a vehicle for an investigative (“Terry”) stop, you may wish to wait for back-up before contacting the driver, since you suspect him or her of criminal activity. What contact is this?

Select one of the following:

  • High-Risk Contact

  • Non-Approach Contact

  • Approach Contact

  • All of the above

Explanation

Question 153 of 178

1

Most vehicle contacts are this type of contact, meaning that the officer gets out of his or her squad car and walks up to the subject vehicle to talk to the driver. This contact is used when your threat assessment suggests that it would be safe. What contact is this?

Select one of the following:

  • Non-Approach Contact

  • Approach Contact

  • High-Risk Contact

  • All of the above

Explanation

Question 154 of 178

1

In this contact, you do not approach the vehicle until all subjects have been ordered out—at gunpoint—and secured. These contacts require multiple officers functioning in a coordinated effort. Certainly some situations (a vehicle matching the description of the getaway car for armed robbers who just robbed a bank and shot a bank teller) automatically demand to be handled as this contact. What contact is this?

Select one of the following:

  • Approach Contact

  • Non-Approach Contact

  • High-Risk Contact

  • All of the above

Explanation

Question 155 of 178

1

While conducting a traffic stop, what direction should your front wheels be turned?

Select one of the following:

  • Straight-Forward

  • Right

  • Doesn't Matter

  • Left

Explanation

Question 156 of 178

1

Successful interviewing means thinking on your feet, while observing your surroundings and constantly observing the subject being interviewed. What common characteristic of a “Good Interviewer” is this?

Select one of the following:

  • Ability/Good Communication

  • Patient

  • Inquisitive

  • Observant

Explanation

Question 157 of 178

1

Interviewers must look at the big picture to succeed in obtaining incriminating admissions from a suspect. What common characteristic of a “Good Interviewer” is this?

Select one of the following:

  • Problem Solver

  • Energetic

  • Ability/Good communication

  • Inquisitive

Explanation

Question 158 of 178

1

No one makes interviewers put forth the effort to get that confession, it is something that comes from within. What common characteristic of a “Good Interviewer” is this?

Select one of the following:

  • Patient

  • Observant

  • Energetic

  • Problem Solver

Explanation

Question 159 of 178

1

Simply put, most good interviewers want to know what’s going on, have their suspicions raised easily, and are nosy. What common characteristic of a “Good Interviewer” is this?

Select one of the following:

  • Energetic

  • Inquisitive

  • Ability/Good communication

  • Patient

Explanation

Question 160 of 178

1

Good interviewers can talk with people and put them at ease, while eliciting useful information. What common characteristic of a “Good Interviewer” is this?

Select one of the following:

  • Inquisitive

  • Ability/Good Communication

  • Patient

  • Energetic

Explanation

Question 161 of 178

1

What good characteristic of an interviewer should you use to avoid damaging the memory retrieval process of a witnesses, interrupting, using inappropriate sequencing of questions and stopping the statement process too soon?

Select one of the following:

  • Problem Solver

  • Energetic

  • Observant

  • Patient

Explanation

Question 162 of 178

1

Prior to conducting an interview, Officer Kranz selected the location, environment, and administration of the interview. What sequence of Interview is this?

Select one of the following:

  • Planning

  • Engage

  • Evaluation

  • Preparation

Explanation

Question 163 of 178

1

When does the interview process begin?

Select one of the following:

  • As soon as you engage with first witness on scene

  • When the interviewee is at the station, in the interview room

  • As soon as you arrive on scene

  • As soon as you interview the victim

Explanation

Question 164 of 178

1

This stage is when the interviewing officer introduces himself or herself to the interviewee. This stage is also known as “establishing rapport.” Also, in this stage, this is when the officer sets the tone for the forthcoming interview, ensuring that the victim’s/witness’s concerns about the time it will take, any potential future court appearance, intimidation from suspects, and so on are dealt with early on. What sequence of Interview is this?

Select one of the following:

  • Evaluation

  • Engage and Explain

  • Closure

  • Account Clarification and Challenge

Explanation

Question 165 of 178

1

This stage is when the officer examines whether the aims and objectives for the interview were achieved. The officer reviews the investigation in light of the information obtained during the interview. In this stage, the officer also Reflects upon how well he or she conducted the interview and consider what improvements could be made in the future. What sequence of Interview is this?

Select one of the following:

  • Evaluation

  • Preparation and Planning

  • Account Clarification and Challenge

  • Engage and Explain

Explanation

Question 166 of 178

1

This witness will lie, intentionally omit information, and will generally be deceitful due to his or her relationship (relative or close friend) with the suspect(s). If interviewing such a witness is non-productive, interrogating the witness may be a more appropriate option. What type of witness is this?

Select one of the following:

  • Neutral

  • Traumatized

  • Hostile

  • Friendly

Explanation

Question 167 of 178

1

This type of witness is the most vulnerable and volatile witness and victim who, due to his or her stage of development or relationship with the victim or suspect, is prone to suggestion. What type of witness is this?

Select one of the following:

  • Hostile

  • Interested

  • Vulnerable

  • Child

Explanation

Question 168 of 178

1

This type of witness may be a friend or relative of the victim or suspect. Or it could be someone who might possibly benefit from the crime committed and might exaggerate the facts. What type of witness is this?

Select one of the following:

  • Friendly

  • Vulnerable

  • Interested

  • Traumatized

Explanation

Question 169 of 178

1

This type of witness is the best kind of witness, because these witnesses have no interest in the success or failure of the case—and therefore have no reason to lie. These witnesses will usually tell you whatever they know about the incident without lies or deceit. What type of witness is this?

Select one of the following:

  • Neutral

  • Child

  • Interested

  • Hostile

Explanation

Question 170 of 178

1

These victims/witnesses are often (but not always) the easiest to interview. They are generally willing to meet with you and give you the time necessary to conduct a thorough interview. They are generally willing to tell you everything they know. However, two dangers occur: 1) You may let your guard down and not adequately prepare for the interview; 2) You may have misread the person and for whatever reason, the person is not actually what you thought he or she was. What type of witness is this?

Select one of the following:

  • Friendly

  • Neutral

  • Vulnerable

  • Interested

Explanation

Question 171 of 178

1

This category of witness has particular difficulties. These include the children, the mentally ill, people with learning disabilities, those with physical and/or communicative disabilities, rape victims and so on. Also, you need to consider whether a particular interview needs to be spread out over more than one session or more than one day. What type of witness is this?

Select one of the following:

  • Hostile

  • Vulnerable

  • Traumatized

  • Child

Explanation

Question 172 of 178

1

The general interview techniques should be used with these victims; however, you may have to take more time and should be careful not to increase the victim’s anxiety or fear. You should not take on the role as therapist; rather you should be aware that you can achieve your need for information and evidence while acting in a manner which may be therapeutic to the victim. What type of witness is this?

Select one of the following:

  • Vulnerable

  • Hostile

  • Child

  • Traumatized

Explanation

Question 173 of 178

1

What is a good technique you should use on a Friendly witness?

Select one of the following:

  • Begin talking fast

  • Talk more, listen less

  • Funnel Approach

  • Not give eye contact

Explanation

Question 174 of 178

1

The questioning technique you adopt with a neutral witness will depend on whether or not you are able to move him or her to a friendlier position. If you are successful, what type of questions should you ask the witness?

Select one of the following:

  • Open-ended question

  • Closed-ended questions

  • doesn't really matter

  • all of the above

Explanation

Question 175 of 178

1

The questioning technique you adopt with a neutral witness will depend on whether or not you are able to move him or her to a friendlier position. If you are NOT successful, what type of questions should you ask the witness?

Select one of the following:

  • Open-ended questions

  • Closed-ended questions

  • Doesn’t really matter

  • All the above

Explanation

Question 176 of 178

1

What interview technique should you initially use for a Hostile witness, to simply get him or her to respond to your questions?

Select one of the following:

  • Open-ended questions

  • Closed-ended questions

  • Doesn’t really matter

  • All the above

Explanation

Question 177 of 178

1

After getting the Hostile witness to open up and respond more to your questions, what interview technique should you SLOWLY move to, while also expressing empathy and affirming what he or she told you?

Select one of the following:

  • Open-ended questions

  • Closed-ended questions

  • Doesn’t really matter

  • All of the above

Explanation

Question 178 of 178

1

What characteristics are considered active listening skills?

Select one of the following:

  • Maintaining eye contact

  • Leaning forward to show you are interested in what the person is saying, and paraphrasing the person’s words to ensure that you understood properly

  • Using open-ended questions to encourage the person to keep talking.

  • All of the above

Explanation