Hannah Hailey
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Hannah Hailey
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Com/Nav CDC test 1

Question 1 of 100

1

The AFI that governs the current wing organization and operation is

Select one of the following:

  • 53-3

  • 39-1

  • 21-166

  • 21-101

Explanation

Question 2 of 100

1

Who is responsible for directing the maintenance effort using available resources and participating in the development and execution of the monthly, weekly flying and maintenance schedules/plans?

Select one of the following:

  • Pro super

  • MOO

  • QA

  • Wing commander

Explanation

Question 3 of 100

1

What flight in the maintenance squadron primarily performs off-equipment maintenance of avionics components and electronic warfare systems?

Select one of the following:

  • TMDE flight

  • Avionics flight

  • Accessory flight

  • Maintenance support flight

Explanation

Question 4 of 100

1

Informational publications that include procedures for implementing Air Force policies are called

Select one of the following:

  • indexes

  • pamphlets

  • directories

  • supplements

Explanation

Question 5 of 100

1

If you need to tie together all maintenance actions on a specific job, which MDC system data element do you use?

Select one of the following:

  • Work unit code

  • Work center code

  • Job control number

  • Identification number

Explanation

Question 6 of 100

1

The number entered in the TAG NUMBER block of AFTO Form 349 comes from

Select one of the following:

  • a WUC manual

  • AFTO Form 350

  • the manufacturer's data plate

  • the illustrated parts breakdown

Explanation

Question 7 of 100

1

What block of AFTO Form 349 is checked to indicate actions that affect the historical records of an end-item?

Select one of the following:

  • UNITS

  • SCH CODE

  • TYPE MAINT

  • RECORDS ACTION

Explanation

Question 8 of 100

1

The IMDS is event oriented and user friendly, which means that it

Select one of the following:

  • accepts any input

  • requires no password

  • restricts unauthorized access

  • checks keyboard entries for compatability

Explanation

Question 9 of 100

1

Which is not a function of the G081 Automated Maintenance Information System?

Select one of the following:

  • Mission scheduling

  • Maintenance scheduling

  • Personnel leave scheduling

  • Personnel training management

Explanation

Question 10 of 100

1

One of the basic principles of supply discipline is to

Select one of the following:

  • use supplies to fulfill any purpose

  • know all equipment items on hand

  • stock excess property until needed

  • effectively safeguard and preserve property

Explanation

Question 11 of 100

1

One way you can be relieved of property responsibility is to

Select one of the following:

  • turn the property in to supply

  • have the property declared surplus

  • have the property declared unserviceable

  • call the base equipment management office

Explanation

Question 12 of 100

1

How does the deficiency reporting system reduce total ownership cost?

Select one of the following:

  • Through process standardization

  • Identifies system deficiencies early in its life cycle

  • Allows investigative findings to be applied to reappearances

  • Provides feedback to the warfighters and other users in the field

Explanation

Question 13 of 100

1

The TO numbering system is explained in detail in TO

Select one of the following:

  • 0-4-2

  • 0-1-01

  • 00-5-1

  • 00-5-18

Explanation

Question 14 of 100

1

Which Air Force technical manuals contain data for the operation and servicing of aircraft equipment?

Select one of the following:

  • Job guides

  • Aircraft TOs

  • Commercial manuals

  • Other equipment TOs

Explanation

Question 15 of 100

1

Which index lists all Air Force MPTOs?

Select one of the following:

  • TO 0-1-1

  • TO 0-1-02

  • TO 00-1-02

  • TO 00-1-20

Explanation

Question 16 of 100

1

Before an AFTO Form 22 is submitted, the submitter’s supervisor assesses it in terms of mission impact, personnel and system safety, and

Select one of the following:

  • budget constraints

  • time required to implement

  • urgency of need for change

  • approving official's workload

Explanation

Question 17 of 100

1

A GS manual provides

Select one of the following:

  • general overview of the aircraft.

  • detailed schematics of systems wiring.

  • fault descriptions and fault isolation procedures.

  • detailed procedures for on-aircraft maintenance.

Explanation

Question 18 of 100

1

The ACPINS provides a standardized system that performs all of the tasks listed below except

Select one of the following:

  • manage software

  • develop software

  • identify software

  • distribute software

Explanation

Question 19 of 100

1

How many CPIN identifier fields are there?

Select one of the following:

  • Three

  • Four

  • Five

  • Six

Explanation

Question 20 of 100

1

Which security classification guide section would list the transmit frequency of an electronic warfare system?

Select one of the following:

  • Hardware

  • Operational data

  • Performance and capabilities

  • Funding, procurement, and production

Explanation

Question 21 of 100

1

What structural areas allow maintenance personnel to inspect or service aircraft components?

Select one of the following:

  • Doors

  • Nacelles

  • Windows

  • Plates and skins

Explanation

Question 22 of 100

1

Which is not an offensive avionics system?

Select one of the following:

  • Built-in test system

  • Controls and displays

  • Central computing complex

  • Navigation and weapons delivery

Explanation

Question 23 of 100

1

What is the minimum safe distance from an UHF antenna when the associated transmitter is radiating power?

Select one of the following:

  • 1 foot

  • 3 feet

  • 5 feet

  • 10 feet

Explanation

Question 24 of 100

1

Which is a condition that results from frequent exposure to small overdoses of noise?

Select one of the following:

  • Frequent nausea

  • Temporary weight gain

  • Permanent hearing loss

  • Small overdose have little or no effect

Explanation

Question 25 of 100

1

Which inspection is more extensive than the hourly postflight or basic postflight inspections and covers certain parts, areas, and systems of the aircraft that require less frequent inspection?

Select one of the following:

  • Minor

  • Major

  • Phase

  • Periodic

Explanation

Question 26 of 100

1

The AFTO Form 781-series would not be used to document aircraft

Select one of the following:

  • inspections

  • flight records

  • configurations

  • component repair

Explanation

Question 27 of 100

1

Who is responsible for the validity and legibility of all COMSEC required entries?

Select one of the following:

  • Aircrew

  • Pro super

  • Crewchief

  • Comm/Nav technician

Explanation

Question 28 of 100

1

To “flag” a condition on an aircraft that could cause damage or injury if ignored, use

Select one of the following:

  • AFTO Form 244

  • AFTO Form 781K

  • AF Form 1492

  • AF Form 979

Explanation

Question 29 of 100

1

Which is not a flight line precaution used to protect ESDS components?

Select one of the following:

  • Using protective tote boxes

  • Covering LRU connector plugs

  • Touching the ends of aircraft wiring to the LRU case prior to installation

  • Touching the LRU case with your hands prior to removal from the aircraft

Explanation

Question 30 of 100

1

Which is not a type of connector coupling?

Select one of the following:

  • Friction

  • Bayonet

  • Insertion

  • Threaded

Explanation

Question 31 of 100

1

Utilizing exact dimensions for stripping wire ensures

Select one of the following:

  • connectors will mate properly

  • solder will adhere properly

  • RF will not be impeded

  • proper connection

Explanation

Question 32 of 100

1

One purpose of crimper positioners is to

Select one of the following:

  • align crimper handles to pin contact.

  • put pin contacts in the proper position.

  • put the turret head in line with pin contact.

  • adjust the pressure applied to the connector pins.

Explanation

Question 33 of 100

1

As a flight line technician, you can repair up to

Select one of the following:

  • 20 percent of the inner shield circumference of an EMP hardened cable

  • 20 percent of the outer shield circumference of an EMP hardened cable

  • 25 percent of the inner shield circumference of an EMP hardened cable

  • 25 percent of the outer shield circumference of an EMP hardened cable

Explanation

Question 34 of 100

1

The circuit used in an AM transmitter to bring the oscillator frequency up to the designed frequency required for carrier wave operation is

Select one of the following:

  • a buffer amplifier

  • an audio amplifier

  • a power amplifier

  • a frequency multiplier

Explanation

Question 35 of 100

1

In an FM transmitter, the frequency of the oscillator is controlled by the

Select one of the following:

  • reactance modulator

  • power amplifier circuit

  • frequency multiplier circuit

  • frequency discriminator circuit

Explanation

Question 36 of 100

1

In single sideband transmitter, the balanced modulator’s output consists of

Select one of the following:

  • the carrier, upper sideband, and lower sideband

  • the upper and lower sidebands

  • lower sideband only

  • upper sideband only

Explanation

Question 37 of 100

1

The purpose of the limiter circuit in an FM receiver is to

Select one of the following:

  • add amplitude variations to the intermediate frequency signal

  • remove amplitude variations from the intermediate frequency signal

  • remove frequency variations from the intermediate frequency signal

  • rectify the audio frequency signal from the intermediate frequency section

Explanation

Question 38 of 100

1

A receiving radio antenna receives radio frequency signals by

Select one of the following:

  • accepting and amplifying the minute current

  • removing the radio frequency carrier wave

  • converting energy to magnetic and electrical fields of force

  • electromagnetic fields impressing a voltage across the antenna thus causing current to flow

Explanation

Question 39 of 100

1

The primary reason the high-frequency radio uses single sideband modulation is

Select one of the following:

  • that fidelity is greatly increased

  • the transmitter output power is 10 watts

  • the system can use a very wide-band pass

  • that it provides many channels to operate on

Explanation

Question 40 of 100

1

You are using a learned preset for the ARC–190 high-frequency radio system. For this application, the transmit tune time is less than

Select one of the following:

  • 5 milliseconds

  • 25 milliseconds

  • 35 milliseconds

  • 50 milliseconds

Explanation

Question 41 of 100

1

Which very-high frequency radio system uses two antennas?

Select one of the following:

  • FM homing

  • AM communications

  • FM communications

  • AM direction-finder

Explanation

Question 42 of 100

1

The Have Quick II frequency-hopping pattern and rate is programmed by the

Select one of the following:

  • time-of-day

  • word-of-day

  • net number used

  • universal time coordinated

Explanation

Question 43 of 100

1

What LRU provides primary control of the ARC–210 radio system?

Select one of the following:

  • Radio set control

  • Remote tuning panel

  • Receiver/transmitter

  • Remote volume control

Explanation

Question 44 of 100

1

How do you swap the active and standby frequencies of the ARC–210 radio system using the remote tuning panel?

Select one of the following:

  • Pressing the outer knob

  • Pressing the inner knob

  • Rotating the outer knob

  • Rotating the inner knob

Explanation

Question 45 of 100

1

Which one of the following is not an operating mode of the PRC–90 emergency radio?

Select one of the following:

  • Morse code.

  • Two-way voice communication.

  • Three-way voice communications.

  • Variable audio modulation between 1000 and 300 Hz.

Explanation

Question 46 of 100

1

When activated, the emergency locator transmitter continuously transmits on frequencies

Select one of the following:

  • 8.0 and 121.5 MHz

  • 243.0 and 282.8 MHz

  • 254.5 and 282.8 MHz

  • 121.5 and 243.0 MHz

Explanation

Question 47 of 100

1

The purpose of the +17 to +29 VDC on the CALL control line of the C–6567 is to

Select one of the following:

  • reduce the level of CALL audio output.

  • disable the mic amplifier during CALL operation.

  • activate the AGC circuits in the headset amplifiers.

  • energize the CALL switch on the front panel of the C–6624.

Explanation

Question 48 of 100

1

The major difference between the U–92A/U and the U–94A/U jack is the

Select one of the following:

  • U–92A/U jack has a PTT button.

  • U–94A/U jack has a PTT button.

  • U–94A/U is located on the pilot’s throttle grip.

  • U–92A/U requires an additional wire for the talk switch.

Explanation

Question 49 of 100

1

The forward external interphone receptacle in the airborne digital interphone system (ADIS) system allows the operator to transmit on a radio, even though the other two external receptacles cannot, because it is connected to the

Select one of the following:

  • pilot’s interphone audio control panel (IACP).

  • pilot’s intercom control panel (ICP).

  • boom operator’s forward IACP.

  • boom operator’s forward ICP.

Explanation

Question 50 of 100

1

If you need to store 12 cryptographic keys, then how many KYK–13 devices will you require?

Select one of the following:

  • 1

  • 2

  • 4

  • 6

Explanation

Question 51 of 100

1

Why does the KYK–13 parity light flash on and off continuously?

Select one of the following:

  • Because battery power is low.

  • Because stored key is no longer valid.

  • Because the unit is performing BIT.

  • Because key transfer was prevented.

Explanation

Question 52 of 100

1

What KY–58 line replaceable unit (LRU) has the primary function of transmitting and receiving secure voice messages?

Select one of the following:

  • Z–AHQ adapter.

  • RCU control panel.

  • KYK–13 fill device.

  • TSEC secure voice processor.

Explanation

Question 53 of 100

1

Parallels of latitude are parallel to the

Select one of the following:

  • equator

  • polar axis

  • Greenwich meridian

  • international time line

Explanation

Question 54 of 100

1

Which global positioning system unit in the ARN–151 produces the intermediate frequency signal?

Select one of the following:

  • Antenna

  • Receiver

  • Indicator control

  • Antenna controller

Explanation

Question 55 of 100

1

In the tactical air navigation (TACAN) receiver transmitter (RT) adapter, TO/FROM information is developed by combining magnetic bearing with

Select one of the following:

  • course deviation

  • magnetic heading

  • relative bearing

  • relative heading

Explanation

Question 56 of 100

1

If an aircraft is flying inbound on the 90° radial of a very-high frequency omnirange (VOR) station, then what will be the outbound radial when the aircraft passes the station?

Select one of the following:

  • 90°.

  • 180°.

  • 270°.

  • 360°.

Explanation

Question 57 of 100

1

When the IDENT-OUT-MIC switch is in the MIC position, identification, friend or foe (IFF) identification of position (I/P) replies are triggered every time which radio system is keyed?

Select one of the following:

  • HF

  • LHF

  • UHF

  • VHF

Explanation

Question 58 of 100

1

How long in μs does it take an RF wave to travel a radar mile?

Select one of the following:

  • 12.4μs.

  • 9.3μs.

  • 6.2μs.

  • 3.1μs.

Explanation

Question 59 of 100

1

Which component in a pulse-modulation radar system shapes the radio frequency energy into a narrow beam?

Select one of the following:

  • Antenna

  • Indicator

  • Transmitter

  • Synchronizer

Explanation

Question 60 of 100

1

Which of the following are types of power loss in radio frequency lines?

Select one of the following:

  • Copper, dielectric, and radiation

  • Current, dielectric, and emission

  • Dielectric, radiation, and current

  • Radiation, copper, and conduction

Explanation

Question 61 of 100

1

Which component in the AN/APN–59 radar system furnishes both pitch and roll drive signals to the antenna stabilization motors?

Select one of the following:

  • AM–853B.

  • CN–221A.

  • AS–653C.

  • RT–289G.

Explanation

Question 62 of 100

1

During the CARA radar altitude indicator’s bright lighting conditions, the ambient light sensor serves to

Select one of the following:

  • set the display brightness to dim

  • override the dimmer control knob

  • allow the user to brighten the display only

  • allow the user to both dim or brighten the display

Explanation

Question 63 of 100

1

Which radar application sends data to compute time-to-go parameters?

Select one of the following:

  • Search radar

  • Weather radar

  • Bombing radar

  • Synthetic aperture radar

Explanation

Question 64 of 100

1

The elapsed time indicator of the R/T indicates the time power has been

Select one of the following:

  • applied to the R/T

  • removed from the R/T

  • applied to digital data processor

  • removed from digital data processor

Explanation

Question 65 of 100

1

What is the range in MHz of signals that the low pass filter passes?

Select one of the following:

  • 240 – 304 MHz

  • 480 – 608 MHz

  • 960 – 1215 MHz

  • 1920 – 2430 MHz

Explanation

Question 66 of 100

1

If the JTIDS entrant is attempting to achieve fine synchronization by transmitting a round trip time interrogation, then what process is being used?

Select one of the following:

  • active

  • passive

  • dynamic

  • radio silent

Explanation

Question 67 of 100

1

What is the structure of a MIL-STD1553 data word?

Select one of the following:

  • 20 bits long consisting of 1 sync bit, 16 data/command/status bits, and 3 parity bits

  • 20 bits long consisting of 3 sync bits, 16 data/command/status bits, and 1 parity bit

  • 32 bits long consisting of 1 sync bit, 28 data/command/status bits, and 3 parity bits

  • 32 bits long consisting of 3 sync bits, 28 data/command/status bits, and 1 parity bit.

Explanation

Question 68 of 100

1

What part of a computer acts like a sophisticated switchboard operator?

Select one of the following:

  • memory

  • logic unit

  • control unit

  • arithmetic unit

Explanation

Question 69 of 100

1

The resolution of a computer monitor is expressed in the number of pixels that make up the image; therefore, the sharper the image, the

Select one of the following:

  • lower the refresh rate

  • higher the resolution

  • lower the dot color

  • higher the dot pitch

Explanation

Question 70 of 100

1

The power meter is used to measure

Select one of the following:

  • no power

  • any power

  • either absolute or relative power

  • either absolute or manual power

Explanation

Question 71 of 100

1

If you want to measure relative power using a power meter, you would first apply the power level and then press

Select one of the following:

  • MODE.

  • dB REF.

  • RANGE HOLD.

  • SENSOR ZERO.

Explanation

Question 72 of 100

1

Before power is connected to the RFLTS, you must ensure the ON/POWER/OFF switch is in the OFF position and a suitable grounding strap is connected between the grounding lug on the right side of RFTLTS unit 1 and the

Select one of the following:

  • aircraft

  • power unit

  • parking ramp

  • time domain reflectometer

Explanation

Question 73 of 100

1

When using the 1 and 3 milliohm range on the model 4328A millohmeter, how far away from the conducting surface should the probes and cables be placed?

Select one of the following:

  • 10 millimeters

  • 10 centimeters

  • 1 millimeter

  • 1 centimeter

Explanation

Question 74 of 100

1

What basic function of a data bus analyzer provides the ability to introduce an error condition into the data to permit an analysis of how the system will behave?

Select one of the following:

  • Injection

  • Simulation

  • Examination

  • Playback of data

Explanation

Question 75 of 100

1

When the confidence test is performed, which APX–64 transponder R/T module’s gain is increased?

Select one of the following:

  • RF

  • Test

  • Decoder

  • IF amplifier

Explanation

Question 76 of 100

1

When pressing the TEST RPT button on the transponder TS–3977 test set while aiming the antenna at the ground, the test code indication should be

Select one of the following:

  • F

  • O

  • 3

  • 7

Explanation

Question 77 of 100

1

If you turn the Bearing CW/CCW switch on the ARM–184 flightline test set, then the indicator should increase or decrease at an angular rate of

Select one of the following:

  • 5° per second

  • 10° per second

  • 12° per second

  • 15° per second

Explanation

Question 78 of 100

1

Traditional noise jamming techniques designed to block communications channels or radarscope presentations are applications of

Select one of the following:

  • denial

  • deception

  • disruption

  • destruction

Explanation

Question 79 of 100

1

Electronic support data is not used to produce

Select one of the following:

  • signal intelligence

  • ballistic intelligence

  • electronic intelligence

  • communications intelligence

Explanation

Question 80 of 100

1

Normal suppression of enemy air defense targets include radars for

Select one of the following:

  • acquisition, and antiaircraft artillery only.

  • acquisition, antiaircraft artillery, and surface-to-air (SAM) only.

  • acquisition and early warning/ground controlled intercept and SAM only.

  • acquisition, antiaircraft artillery, early warning/ground controlled intercept, and SAM.

Explanation

Question 81 of 100

1

What Air Force aircraft is used to perform the Wild Weasel mission?

Select one of the following:

  • EA–6B

  • EF–111

  • F/A–18

  • F–16CJ

Explanation

Question 82 of 100

1

A repeater jamming technique that copies enemy radar pulses and returns incorrect target information to the enemy radar is an example of

Select one of the following:

  • imitative deception

  • imitative reception

  • simulative deception

  • manipulative deception

Explanation

Question 83 of 100

1

What are electronic warfare (EW) reconnaissance crews called?

Select one of the following:

  • Crows

  • Ferrets

  • Sparks

  • Ravens

Explanation

Question 84 of 100

1

What electronic intelligence (ELINT) equipment is used to determine the location of emitters?

Select one of the following:

  • Pulse analyzer

  • Direction finder

  • Spectrum analyzer

  • Panoramic receiver

Explanation

Question 85 of 100

1

What radar display indicator displays range or velocity?

Select one of the following:

  • A scope

  • B scope

  • Range height

  • Plan position

Explanation

Question 86 of 100

1

The radar warning receiver (RWR) does not provide signal

Select one of the following:

  • relative location

  • identification

  • frequency

  • amplitude

Explanation

Question 87 of 100

1

What infrared (IR) detector device requires a bias current or voltage to operate?

Select one of the following:

  • Photovoltaic

  • Photographic

  • Photoemissive

  • Photoconductive

Explanation

Question 88 of 100

1

What infrared (IR) seeker uses many detectors and each one detects a small portion of a scene?

Select one of the following:

  • Staring

  • Scanning

  • Chopping

  • Spinning

Explanation

Question 89 of 100

1

In what frequency region do the missile approach warning systems (MAWS) operate?

Select one of the following:

  • Radio

  • Gamma

  • Infrared

  • Visible light

Explanation

Question 90 of 100

1

When a photon causes the release of another photon, it is called

Select one of the following:

  • stimulated emission

  • population inversion

  • spontaneous emission

  • population conversion

Explanation

Question 91 of 100

1

What is not a battlefield usage of the laser?

Select one of the following:

  • Target ranging and designation

  • Contrail detection

  • Guided weapon

  • Acquisition

Explanation

Question 92 of 100

1

What technology does the Pilot Alert System (PAS) employ to detect contrail from the #3 engine exhaust?

Select one of the following:

  • Laser

  • Acoustic

  • Microwave

  • Millimeter wave

Explanation

Question 93 of 100

1

The chaff tactic that dispenses large quantities of chaff in a continuous ribbon is called

Select one of the following:

  • area saturation

  • self-protection

  • preplanned burst

  • corridor operation

Explanation

Question 94 of 100

1

A typical flare cartridge is composed of magnesium and tetraflouroethylene and burns at

Select one of the following:

  • 1000 to 1200 °K.

  • 2000 to 2200 °K.

  • 3000 to 3200 °K.

  • 4000 to 4200 °K.

Explanation

Question 95 of 100

1

What indicates the relative signal strength of the received radio frequency (RF) signal?

Select one of the following:

  • Horizontal deflection of the trace.

  • Vertical deflection of the trace.

  • Span per division.

  • Center frequency.

Explanation

Question 96 of 100

1

The four control modes allow you to vary the output

Select one of the following:

  • time only

  • period only

  • frequency only

  • pulse characteristics

Explanation

Question 97 of 100

1

What test equipment is used to check the aircraft expendables (chaff and flare) systems?

Select one of the following:

  • Spectrum analyzer

  • Radar simulator set

  • Countermeasures dispenser tester (CDT)

  • Radiofrequency transmission line test set (RFTLTS)

Explanation

Question 98 of 100

1

What describes in detail how an Electronic Warfare Integrated Reprogramming (EWIR) change affects an Electronic Warfare (EW) system?

Select one of the following:

  • System impact message

  • Reprogramming impact message

  • Time compliance technical order

  • Maintenance instruction message

Explanation

Question 99 of 100

1

Which of the following is an Air Force reprogramming exercise?

Select one of the following:

  • BRAVE BYTE

  • PROUD BYTE

  • SERENE BYTE

  • NEPTUNE BYTE

Explanation

Question 100 of 100

1

What countermeasures dispenser tester (CDT) functional check measures the firing pulse amplitude and pulse duration?

Select one of the following:

  • Fire

  • Misfire

  • Jettison

  • Stay voltage

Explanation