Jose Antonio Vazquez
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Tema 1 Performances Quiz on 1. Performance, created by Jose Antonio Vazquez on 01/11/2018.

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Jose Antonio Vazquez
Created by Jose Antonio Vazquez over 5 years ago
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1. Performance

Question 1 of 20

1

109) Maximum and minimum values of V1 are limited by :

Select one of the following:

  • VR and VMCG

  • V2 and VMCA

  • VR and VMCA

  • V2 and VMCG

Explanation

Question 2 of 20

1

99) During the certification flight testing of a twin engine turbojet aeroplane, the real take-off distances are equal to:
- 1547 m with all engines running
- 1720 m with failure of critical engine at V1, with all other things remaining unchanged.
The take-off distance adopted for the certification file is:

Select one of the following:

  • 1547 m.

  • 1720 m.

  • 1779 m.

  • 1978m.

Explanation

Question 3 of 20

1

The minimum value of V2 must exceed "air minimum control speed" by:

Select one of the following:

  • 15%

  • 20%

  • 30%

  • 10%

Explanation

Question 4 of 20

1

102) With regard to a take-off from a wet runway, which of the following statements is correct?

Select one of the following:

  • Screen height cannot be reduced.

  • The screen height can be lowered to reduce the mass penalties.

  • When the runway is wet, the V1 reduction is sufficient to maintain the same margins on the runway length.

  • In case of a reverser inoperative the wet runway performance information can still be used.

Explanation

Question 5 of 20

1

103) On a reciprocating engined aeroplane, to maintain a given angle of attack, configuration and altitude at higher gross mass

Select one of the following:

  • an increase in airspeed is required but power setting does not change.

  • requires an increase in power and decrease in the airspeed.

  • an increase in airspeed and power is required.

  • a higher coefficient of drag is required.

Explanation

Question 6 of 20

1

104) The first segment of the take-off flight path ends

Select one of the following:

  • at completion of gear retraction.

  • at completion of flap retraction.

  • at reaching V2.

  • at 35 ft above the runway.

Explanation

Question 7 of 20

1

105) Which of the following factors favours the selection of a low flap setting for the take-off?

Select one of the following:

  • High field elevation, no obstacles in the climb-out path, low ambient temperature and short runway.

  • Low field elevation, no obstacles in the climb-out path, short runway and a low ambient temperature.

  • High field elevation, distant obstacles in the climb-out path, long runway and a high ambient temperature.

  • Low field elevation, close-in obstacles in the climb-out path, long runway and a high ambient temperature.

Explanation

Question 8 of 20

1

106) Balanced V1 is selected

Select one of the following:

  • for a runway length limited take-off with a clearway to give the highest mass.

  • if it is equal to V2.

  • if the accelerate stop distance is equal to the one engine out take-off distance.

  • for a runway length limited take-off with a stopway to give the highest mass.

Explanation

Question 9 of 20

1

108) For jet-engined aeroplanes, what is the effect of increased altitude on specific range?

Select one of the following:

  • Does not change.

  • Increases only if there is no wind.

  • Increases.

  • Decreases.

Explanation

Question 10 of 20

1

96) The speed for best rate of climb is called:

Select one of the following:

  • VO.

  • VY.

  • VX.

  • V2.

Explanation

Question 11 of 20

1

110) Two identical aeroplanes at different masses are descending at idle thrust. Which of the following statements correctly describes their descent characteristics ?

Select one of the following:

  • At a given angle of attack, both the vertical and the forward speed are greater for the heavier aeroplane.

  • There is no difference between the descent characteristics of the two aeroplanes.

  • At a given angle of attack the heavier aeroplane will always glide further than the lighter aeroplane.

  • At a given angle of attack the lighter aeroplane will always glide further than the heavier aeroplane.

Explanation

Question 12 of 20

1

111) ETOPS flight is a twin engine jet aeroplane flight conducted over a route, where no suitable airport is within an area of

Select one of the following:

  • 75 minutes flying time at the approved one engine out cruise speed.

  • 60 minutes flying time in still air at the approved one engine out cruise speed.

  • 60 minutes flying time in still air at the normal cruising speed.

  • 30 minutes flying time at the normal cruising speed.

Explanation

Question 13 of 20

1

112) For a take-off from a contaminated runway, which of the following statements is correct?

Select one of the following:

  • Dry snow is not considered to affect the take-off performance.

  • A slush covered runway must be cleared before take-off, even if the performance data for contaminated runway is available.

  • The performance data for take-off must be determined in general by means of calculation, only a few values are verified by flight tests.

  • The greater the depth of contamination at constant take-off mass, the more V1 has to be decreased to compensate for decreasing friction.

Explanation

Question 14 of 20

1

113) If the thrust available exceeds the thrust required for level flight

Select one of the following:

  • the aeroplane accelerates if the altitude is maintained.

  • the aeroplane descends if the airspeed is maintained.

  • the aeroplane decelerates if it is in the region of reversed command.

  • the aeroplane decelerates if the altitude is maintained.

Explanation

Question 15 of 20

1

114) Which statement regarding the relationship between traffic load and range is correct?

Select one of the following:

  • The maximum landing mass is basically equal to the maximum zero fuel mass.

  • The maximum traffic load is not limited by the reserve fuel quantity.

  • The traffic load can be limited by the desired range.

  • The maximum zero fuel mass limits the maximum quantity of fuel.

Explanation

Question 16 of 20

1

115) The induced drag of an aeroplane

Select one of the following:

  • is independent of the airspeed.

  • increases with increasing airspeed.

  • decreases with increasing airspeed.

  • decreases with increasing gross weight.

Explanation

Question 17 of 20

1

116) Which statement, in relation to the climb limited take-off mass of a jet aeroplane, is correct?

Select one of the following:

  • 50% of a head wind is taken into account when determining the climb limited take-off mass.

  • On high elevation airports equipped with long runways the aeroplane will always be climb limited.

  • The climb limited take-off mass decreases with increasing OAT.

  • The climb limited take-off mass is determined at the speed for best rate of climb.

Explanation

Question 18 of 20

1

117) How is V2 affected if T/O flaps 20° is chosen instead of T/O flaps 10°?

Select one of the following:

  • V2 increases in proportion to the angle at which the flaps are set.

  • V2 has no connection with T/O flap setting, as it is a function of runway length only.

  • V2 decreases if not restricted by VMCA.

  • V2 has the same value in both cases.

Explanation

Question 19 of 20

1

118) Which of the jet engine ratings below is not a certified rating?

Select one of the following:

  • Go-Around Thrust

  • Maximum Take-off Thrust

  • Maximum Cruise Thrust

  • Maximum Continuous Thrust

Explanation

Question 20 of 20

1

107) Which statement regarding the influence of a runway down-slope is correct for a balanced take-off? Down- slope...

Select one of the following:

  • increases V1 and reduces the accelerate stop distance required (ASDR).

  • reduces V1 and increases the accelerate stop distance required (ASDR).

  • increases V1 and increases the take-off distance required (TODR).

  • reduces V1 and reduces take-off distance required (TODR).

Explanation