Jose Antonio Vazquez
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Tema 1 Performances Quiz on 7. Performance, created by Jose Antonio Vazquez on 08/11/2018.

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Jose Antonio Vazquez
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7. Performance

Question 1 of 26

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51) For a turboprop powered aeroplane, a 2200 m long runway at the destination aerodrome is expected to be "wet". The "dry runway" landing distance, should not exceed:

Select one of the following:

  • 1540 m.

  • 1147 m.

  • 1339 m.

  • 1771 m.

Explanation

Question 2 of 26

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65) An aeroplane executes a steady glide at the speed for minimum glide angle. If the forward speed is kept constant, what is the effect of a lower mass?
Rate of descent / Glide angle / CL/CD ratio

Select one of the following:

  • decreases / constant / decreases

  • increases / increases / constant

  • increases / constant / increases

  • increases / increases / decreases

Explanation

Question 3 of 26

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66) Which of the following statements is correct?

Select one of the following:

  • Induced drag decreases with increasing speed.

  • Induced drag increases with increasing speed.

  • Induced drag is independant of the speed.

  • Induced drag decreases with increasing angle of attack.

Explanation

Question 4 of 26

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67) A flight is planned with a turbojet aeroplane to an aerodrome with a landing distance available of 2400 m. Which of the following is the maximum landing distance for a dry runway?

Select one of the following:

  • 1 440 m.

  • 1 250 m.

  • 1 090 m.

  • 1 655 m.

Explanation

Question 5 of 26

1

68) How does the thrust of fixed propeller vary during take- off run ? The thrust

Select one of the following:

  • increases slightly while the aeroplane speed builds up.

  • varies with mass changes only.

  • has no change during take-off and climb.

  • decreases slightly while the aeroplane speed builds up.

Explanation

Question 6 of 26

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69) Which of the following statements is correct?

Select one of the following:

  • VR is the speed at which, during rotation, the nose wheel comes off the runway.

  • VR is the speed at which the pilot should start to rotate the aeroplane.

  • VR should not be higher than V1.

  • VR should not be higher than 1.05 VMCG.

Explanation

Question 7 of 26

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70) Field length is balanced when

Select one of the following:

  • one engine acceleration from V1 to VLOF plus flare distance between VLOF and 35 feet are equal.

  • take-off distance equals accelerate-stop distance.

  • calculated V2 is less than 110% VMCA and V1, VR, VMCG.

  • all engine acceleration to V1 and braking distance for rejected take-off are equal.

Explanation

Question 8 of 26

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72) Which of the following answers is true?

Select one of the following:

  • V1>VR

  • V1 < VMCG

  • V1<=VR

  • V1 > Vlof

Explanation

Question 9 of 26

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166) Which of the equations below expresses approximately the unaccelerated percentage climb gradient for small climb angles?

Select one of the following:

  • Climb Gradient = ((Thrust - Drag)/Weight) x 100

  • Climb Gradient = ((Thrust + Drag)/Lift) x 100

  • Climb Gradient = ((Thrust - Mass)/Lift) x 100

  • Cimb Gradient = (Lift/Weight) x 100

Explanation

Question 10 of 26

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62) On a long distance flight the gross mass decreases continuously as a consequence of the fuel consumption. The result is:

Select one of the following:

  • The speed must be increased to compensate the lower mass.

  • The specific range increases and the optimum altitude decreases.

  • The specific range decreases and the optimum altitude increases.

  • The specific range and the optimum altitude increases.

Explanation

Question 11 of 26

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41) The Density Altitude

Select one of the following:

  • is used to calculate the FL above the Transition Altitude.

  • is used to determine the aeroplane performance.

  • is equal to the pressure altitude.

  • is used to establish minimum clearance of 2.000 feet over mountains.

Explanation

Question 12 of 26

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30) The climb gradient of an aircraft after take-off is 6% in standard atmosphere, no wind, at 0 ft pressure altitude. Using the following corrections:
"± 0,2 % / 1 000 ft field elevation"
"± 0,1 % / °C from standard temperature" " - 1 % with wing anti-ice"
" - 0,5% with engine anti-ice"
The climb gradient after take-off from an airport situated at 1 000 ft, 17° C; QNH 1013,25 hPa, with wing and engine anti-ice operating for a functional check is :

Select one of the following:

  • 3,9 %

  • 4,3 %

  • 4,7 %

  • 4,9 %

Explanation

Question 13 of 26

1

31) Which one of the following statements concerning drift- down is correct?

Select one of the following:

  • The drift-down procedure requires a minimum descent angle after an engine failure at cruising altitude.

  • The drift-down procedure requires a minimum obstacle clearance of 35 ft.

  • An engine failure at high cruising altitude will always result in a drift-down, because it is not permitted to fly the same altitude with one engine inoperative as with all engines operating.

  • When determining the obstacle clearance during drift-down, fuel dumping may be taken into account.

Explanation

Question 14 of 26

1

32) Two identical turbojet aeroplanes (whose specific fuel consumption is assumed to be constant) are in a holding pattern at the same altitude. The mass of the first one is 95 000 kg and its hourly fuel consumption is equal to 3100 kg/h. Since the mass of the second one is 105 000 kg, its hourly fuel consumption is:

Select one of the following:

  • 3787 kg/h

  • 3426 kg/h

  • 3259 kg/h

  • 3602 kg/h

Explanation

Question 15 of 26

1

33) As long as an aeroplane is in a positive climb

Select one of the following:

  • VX is always below VY.

  • VX is sometimes below and sometimes above VY depending on altitude.

  • VX is always above VY.

  • VY is always above VMO.

Explanation

Question 16 of 26

1

34) What is the advantage of balancing V1, even in the event of a climb limited take-off?

Select one of the following:

  • The safety margin with respect to the runway length is greatest.

  • The take-off distance required with one engine out at V1 is the shortest.

  • The accelerate stop distance required is the shortest.

  • The climb limited take-off mass is the highest.

Explanation

Question 17 of 26

1

35) What happens to the drag of a jet aeroplane if, during the initial climb after take off, constant IAS is maintained?
(Assume a constant mass.)

Select one of the following:

  • The drag decreases.

  • The drag increases initially and decreases thereafter.

  • The drag remains almost constant.

  • The drag increases considerably.

Explanation

Question 18 of 26

1

36) The point where Drag coefficient/Lift coefficient is a minimum is

Select one of the following:

  • at stalling speed (VS).

  • on the "back side" of the drag curve.

  • the point where a tangent from the origin touches the drag curve.

  • the lowest point of the drag curve.

Explanation

Question 19 of 26

1

37) The speed VR

Select one of the following:

  • must be higher than VLOF.

  • must be equal to or lower than V1.

  • is the speed at which rotation to the lift-off angle of attack is initiated.

  • must be higher than V2.

Explanation

Question 20 of 26

1

38) At a given mass, the stalling speed of a twin engine aircraft is 100 kt in the landing configuration. The minimum speed a pilot must maintain in short final is:

Select one of the following:

  • 130 kt

  • 115 kt

  • 125 kt

  • 120 kt

Explanation

Question 21 of 26

1

53) When the outside air temperature increases, then

Select one of the following:

  • the field length limited take-off mass decreases but the climb limited take-off mass increases.

  • the field length limited take-off mass increases but the climb limited take-off mass decreases.

  • the field length limited take-off mass and the climb limited take-off mass decreases.

  • the field length limited take-off mass and the climb limited take-off mass increases.

Explanation

Question 22 of 26

1

40) For take-off obstacle clearance calculations, obstacles in the first segment may be avoided

Select one of the following:

  • by banking not more than 15° between 50 ft and 400 ft above the runway elevation.

  • by banking as much as needed if aeroplane is more than 50 ft above runway elevation.

  • only by using standard turns.

  • by standard turns - but only after passing 1500 ft.

Explanation

Question 23 of 26

1

74) A jet aeroplane is climbing at constant Mach number below the tropopause. Which of the following statements is correct?

Select one of the following:

  • IAS decreases and TAS decreases.

  • IAS increases and TAS increases.

  • IAS decreases and TAS increases.

  • IAS increases and TAS decreases.

Explanation

Question 24 of 26

1

42) Which of the following factors leads to the maximum flight time of a glide?

Select one of the following:

  • High mass.

  • Low mass.

  • Headwind.

  • T ailwind.

Explanation

Question 25 of 26

1

43) A constant headwind

Select one of the following:

  • increases the descent distance over ground.

  • increases the angle of the descent flight path.

  • increases the angle of descent.

  • increases the rate of descent.

Explanation

Question 26 of 26

1

44) The second segment begins

Select one of the following:

  • when landing gear is fully retracted.

  • when flap retraction begins.

  • when flaps are selected up.

  • when acceleration starts from V2 to the speed for flap retraction.

Explanation

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