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Clinical Pathology (101-200) MCQs- Year 4 PMU

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Clinical Pathology (201-300) MCQs- Year 4 PMU

Question 1 of 100

1

In chronic lympholeukemia in the liver can be seen

Select one or more of the following:

  • myeloblasts

  • mature lymphocytes and single lymphoblasts

  • focal leukemic infiltrates in the portal spaces

  • leukemic infiltrates in the sinusoids

Explanation

Question 2 of 100

1

Chronic myeloleukemia causes the following changes in liver

Select one or more of the following:

  • effaced lobular structure

  • hypertrophy and hyperplasia of hepatocytes

  • atrophy of hepatocytes

  • leukemic infiltrates in the sinusoids

Explanation

Question 3 of 100

1

In chronic myeloleukemia we observe the following

Select one or more of the following:

  • long remissions even without treatment

  • extreme hepato-splenomegaly

  • anemia, hemorrhages, infections

  • splenic infarctions

Explanation

Question 4 of 100

1

Which are the clinical phases of chronic myeloleukemia?

Select one or more of the following:

  • chronic stable phase

  • accelerated phase

  • blast crisis

  • none of the above

Explanation

Question 5 of 100

1

In Hodgkin lymphoma, mixed cellularity type

Select one or more of the following:

  • there can be seen numerous eosinophils

  • we can observe areas with necrosis

  • intact histological lymph node structure

  • giant bi-nucleated cells, called ‘mirror image"

Explanation

Question 6 of 100

1

Plasmocytoma has the following features:

Select one or more of the following:

  • Reed-Sternberg tumor cells

  • Jelly-like raspberry red osteolytic bone lesion

  • The tumor cells have a large vacuolar nucleus with prominent nucleolus

  • The tumor cells have a round eccentric nucleus with a pale halo around it

Explanation

Question 7 of 100

1

Which of the following are examples of pathological processes in the oral cavity that can have an effect of internal organs?

Select one or more of the following:

  • scarlet fever

  • peritonsilar abscess

  • epulis

  • oral squamous cell carcinoma

Explanation

Question 8 of 100

1

Which avitaminosis can be associated with changes in the oral cavity?

Select one or more of the following:

  • vit. B6

  • vit. B12

  • vit. D

  • none of the above

Explanation

Question 9 of 100

1

Vitamin B12 deficiency can cause the following changes in the oral cavity

Select one or more of the following:

  • Glossomegaly

  • Hunter’s tongue ( atrophic glossitis)

  • Geographic tongue

  • Fibrinous gingivitis

Explanation

Question 10 of 100

1

What type of examination you will suggest to your patient if you diagnose him/her with atrophic glossitis (Hunter’s tongue)?

Select one or more of the following:

  • colonoscopy

  • dermatoscopy

  • gastroscopy

  • hysteroscopy

Explanation

Question 11 of 100

1

If a patient with atrophic glossitis is examined with gastroscopy, what can be the findings in gastric mucosa?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Menetrier’s disease

  • Atrophic autoimmune gastritis

  • Acute fibrinous gastritsis

  • None of the above

Explanation

Question 12 of 100

1

The risk of which disease does atrophic autoimmune gastritis carry?

Select one or more of the following:

  • acute gastritis

  • atrophy of the colonic mucosa

  • rectal cancer

  • gastric cancer

Explanation

Question 13 of 100

1

What are the usual changes in leukoplakia?

Select one or more of the following:

  • the epithelium is hyperkeratotic

  • acanthosis in the epithelium

  • chronic inflammation

  • dysplasia in the epithelium can be observed

Explanation

Question 14 of 100

1

What can we observe in leukoplakia?

Select one or more of the following:

  • parakeratosis

  • dysplasia

  • carcinoma in situ

  • diabetes

Explanation

Question 15 of 100

1

Which of the following 15 true of pleomorphic adenoma of the parotid gland

Select one or more of the following:

  • it is a benign tumor

  • it contains hyperplastic fatty tissue

  • it is firm and lobulated

  • it is painful and inflamed

Explanation

Question 16 of 100

1

In chronic tonsillitis we can observe the following

Select one or more of the following:

  • purulent exudate

  • hypertrophic tonsillitis

  • atrophic tonsillitis

  • it is a predisposing factor for the formation of epulis

Explanation

Question 17 of 100

1

The typical histological picture of epulis includes

Select one or more of the following:

  • Langhans giant multinuclear cells

  • Fresh heamorrhages and hemosiderin

  • Osteoclast-type multinuclear giant cells

  • It is a true tumor

Explanation

Question 18 of 100

1

Adamantinoma (amelloblastoma) is

Select one or more of the following:

  • a true tumor

  • an odontogenic tumor

  • when compressed the sound is described as flapping wings

  • when it is compressed the sound is described as eggshell cracking

Explanation

Question 19 of 100

1

Why is it necessary to comment on the presence or absence of H.pylori in gastric biopsies?

Select one or more of the following:

  • H. pylori is a risk factor for MALT lymphoma

  • H. pylori is a risk factor for duodenal cancer

  • H. pylori causes chronic gastritis

  • H. pylori is a severe fungal infection

Explanation

Question 20 of 100

1

Which of the following are possible complications of chronic gastric ulcer?

Select one or more of the following:

  • penetration into the diaphragm

  • perforation

  • pyloric stenosis

  • massive hemorrhage

Explanation

Question 21 of 100

1

Which special stain help us determine the presence of H. pylori in gastric biopsies?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Van Gieson

  • Giemsa

  • Congo Red

  • Immunohistochemistry

Explanation

Question 22 of 100

1

The following changes can be observed in acute duodenal ulcer

Select one or more of the following:

  • fibrinoid necrosis at the ulcer base

  • inflammatory infiltrate with lymphocytes and plasma cells

  • ulceration penetrating through muscularis mucosae, reaching muscularis propria

  • it often undergoes malignant transformation

Explanation

Question 23 of 100

1

What histological types of gastric cancer do you recognize?

Select one or more of the following:

  • adenocarcinoma

  • signet-ring cell carcinoma

  • squamous cell carcinoma

  • mucinous adenocarcinoma

Explanation

Question 24 of 100

1

In phlegmonous appendicitis we can observe the following

Select one or more of the following:

  • peri-appendicitis

  • lymphocytic infiltration in the mucosa

  • neutrophilic infiltration throughout the thickness of the wall of the appendix

  • constriction of the blood vessels of the serosa

Explanation

Question 25 of 100

1

Phlegmonous appendicitis is characterized by

Select one or more of the following:

  • purulent exudate in the lumen

  • hypoplasia of the lymph follicles

  • hyperplastic activated lymph follicles

  • hyperemic blood vessels of the serosa

Explanation

Question 26 of 100

1

Gangrenous appendicitis is characterized by

Select one or more of the following:

  • lymphocytic infiltration of the mucosa

  • thrombosis of blood vessels

  • necrosis of the wall of the appendix

  • severe inflammation through the wall of the appendix

Explanation

Question 27 of 100

1

What are the causes which may lead to micro-nodular liver cirrhosis?

Select one or more of the following:

  • acute viral hepatitis

  • chronic viral hepatitis

  • cardiogenic shock

  • chronic alcoholism

Explanation

Question 28 of 100

1

Which of the types of necrosis are found in chronic active hepatitis?

Select one or more of the following:

  • piece-meal necrosis

  • adjacent necrosis

  • bridging necrosis

  • caseous necrosis

Explanation

Question 29 of 100

1

Why the level of calcium in the blood has prognostic value in acute pancreatitis?

Select one or more of the following:

  • calcium is deposited in the bones

  • calcium levels in the blood lower with the progression of steato-necrosis

  • calcium reacts with fatty acids to form soaps

  • it has no prognostic value

Explanation

Question 30 of 100

1

Some of the gross features of acute pancreatitis are

Select one or more of the following:

  • enlarged liver

  • steatonecrosis of the fatty tissue around and inside the pancreas

  • hemorrhages in the tissues of the pancreas

  • fibrosis in the tissues of the pancreas

Explanation

Question 31 of 100

1

What histological changes can be observed in chronic hepatitis?

Select one or more of the following:

  • chronic cholecystitis

  • inflammatory infiltrates

  • massive necrosis of hepatocytes

  • fibrotic septa

Explanation

Question 32 of 100

1

Chronic cholecystitis is characterized by the following

Select one or more of the following:

  • often it is accompanied by cholelithiasis

  • it has no association with cholelithiasis

  • can cause adhesions

  • it is caused by viral infection

Explanation

Question 33 of 100

1

Which of the following can be complications caused by chronic cholecystitis?

Select one or more of the following:

  • peritonitis

  • obstruction of d. choledochus

  • cholestasis

  • pancreatitis

Explanation

Question 34 of 100

1

After consuming poisonous mushrooms, a patient shows signs of acute liver failure with progressive reduction of the size of the liver. What process has developed in the liver?

Select one or more of the following:

  • acute viral hepatitis

  • massive hepatic necrosis

  • hepatocellular carcinoma

  • none of the above

Explanation

Question 35 of 100

1

After consuming poisonous mushrooms, a patient shows signs of acute liver failure with progressive reduction of the size of the liver. Besides liver failure, what other complication can worsen the patient’s clinical condition?

Select one or more of the following:

  • left sided heart failure

  • right sided heart failure

  • pyelonephritis

  • acute renal failure

Explanation

Question 36 of 100

1

Which of the following can occur after a streptococcal tonsillitis?

Select one or more of the following:

  • post-infectious cholecystitis

  • post-infectious glomerulonephritis

  • minimal change disease of the kidneys

  • acute rheumatism

Explanation

Question 37 of 100

1

Which types of glomerulonephritis are clinically presented by nephritic syndrome

Select one or more of the following:

  • diffuse endocapillary glomerulonephritis

  • rapidly progressing glomerulonephritis

  • minimal change disease

  • membranous glomerulonephritis

Explanation

Question 38 of 100

1

Which types of glomerulonephritis are clinically presented by nephrotic syndrome

Select one or more of the following:

  • diffuse endocapillary glomerulonephritis

  • rapidly progressing glomerulonephritis

  • minimal change disease

  • membranous glomerulonephritis

Explanation

Question 39 of 100

1

What findings can be observed in glomerulonephritis?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Klebsiella

  • E.coli

  • Streptococcus

  • The urine is sterile

Explanation

Question 40 of 100

1

Which type of glomerulonephritis is ‘crescentic’?

Select one or more of the following:

  • minimal change disease

  • rapidly progressing glomerulonepbhritis

  • membranous glomerulonephritis

  • diffuse endocapillary glomerulonephritis

Explanation

Question 41 of 100

1

‘Big white kidney’ can be observed in the following cases

Select one or more of the following:

  • rapidly progressing glomerulonephritis

  • amyloidosis of the kidney

  • minimal change disease

  • nephrosclerosis glomerulonephritica

Explanation

Question 42 of 100

1

Which of the following histological changes are associated with tubal pregnancy?

Select one or more of the following:

  • chorionic villi and decidual changes of the endometrium

  • monstrous trophoblast, hydropic chorionic villi

  • hematoma in fallopian tube, chronic villi invading the muscle layer of the tube, decidual changes of the endometrium

  • cervical intraepithelial lesion, third grade

Explanation

Question 43 of 100

1

Which of the following histological changes are associated with mola hydatidosa?

Select one or more of the following:

  • chronic villi and decidual changes of the endometrium

  • monstrous trophoblast, hydropic chorionic villi without fetal blood capillaries

  • hematoma in the fallopian tube, chorionic villi invading the muscle layer of the tube, decidual changes of the endometrium

  • cervical intraepithelial lesion, third grade

Explanation

Question 44 of 100

1

Which of the following histological changes are associated with abortion (miscarriage)?

Select one or more of the following:

  • chronic villi and decidual changes of the endometrium

  • monstrous trophoblast, hydropic chorionic villi without fetal blood capillaries

  • hematoma in the fallopian tube, chorionic villi invading the muscle layer of the tube, decidual changes of the endometrium

  • cervical intraepithelial lesion, third grade

Explanation

Question 45 of 100

1

Specify the associated clinical symptoms in dysplasia and carcinoma in situ of the uterine cervix

Select one or more of the following:

  • no clinical symptoms

  • scarce contact bleeding

  • fever

  • enlarged inguinal lymph nodes

Explanation

Question 46 of 100

1

Why if curettage from a suspected pregnancy shows only decidual changes, the gynecologist should be notified immediately?

Select one or more of the following:

  • there is an increased risk for endometrial carcinoma

  • there is an increased risk of associated mola hydatidosa

  • there is an increased risk of associated intraepithelial lesion of the cervix

  • there is a high risk of associated tubal pregnancy

Explanation

Question 47 of 100

1

Mola hydatidosa has the following characteristics

Select one or more of the following:

  • grossly it resembles grape-like structures

  • chronic villi have fetal capillaries

  • chronic villi are with hydropic edema

  • chronic villi lack fetal blood vessels

Explanation

Question 48 of 100

1

Examples of ovarian cysts are

Select one or more of the following:

  • follicular cyst

  • cystadenoma papilliferum

  • mature teratoma (dermoid cyst)

  • colloid cyst

Explanation

Question 49 of 100

1

Which hormones play a role in breast diseases?

Select one or more of the following:

  • somatotropin

  • oxytocin

  • estrogen

  • progesterone

Explanation

Question 50 of 100

1

How does the breast cancer metastasize?

Select one or more of the following:

  • primarily via lymphogenic spread

  • distantly via hematogenous spread

  • fibro-epithelial spread

  • apocrine spread

Explanation

Question 51 of 100

1

Select the epithelial ovarian tumors

Select one or more of the following:

  • Granulosa cell tumor

  • Thecoma

  • Brenner’s tumor

  • Androblastoma

Explanation

Question 52 of 100

1

Which of the following are epithelial ovarian tumors?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Thecoma

  • Serous cystadenoma

  • Dysgerminoma

  • Brenner’s tumor

Explanation

Question 53 of 100

1

Which of the following are sex-cord stromal ovarian tumors?

Select one or more of the following:

  • granulosa cell tumor

  • thecoma

  • dysgerminoma

  • androblastoma

Explanation

Question 54 of 100

1

Which of the following ovarian tumors are benign?

Select one or more of the following:

  • papillary cystadenoma

  • papillary cystadenocarcinoma

  • dysgerminoma

  • thecoma

Explanation

Question 55 of 100

1

Which of the following ovarian tumors are malignant?

Select one or more of the following:

  • serous cystadenoma

  • endodermal yolk sac tumor

  • thecoma

  • mucinous cystadenocarcinoma

Explanation

Question 56 of 100

1

In fibro-cystic breast disease we find the following

Select one or more of the following:

  • solitary nodule

  • multiple nodules

  • cysts

  • papillary proliferaations

Explanation

Question 57 of 100

1

In fibroadenoma of the breast we find

Select one or more of the following:

  • multiple nodules

  • cysts

  • solitary nodule

  • proliferated mammary ducts and stroma

Explanation

Question 58 of 100

1

Benign prostate hyperplasia is seen most commonly in

Select one or more of the following:

  • median lobe

  • subcapsular prostate tissue

  • lateral lobes

  • periurethral prostate tissue

Explanation

Question 59 of 100

1

Prostate carcinoma is usually seen in

Select one or more of the following:

  • lateral lobes

  • posterior lobe

  • periurethral prostate tissue

  • subcapsular prostate tissue

Explanation

Question 60 of 100

1

Which two markers are valuable for the diagnosis of prostate carcinoma?

Select one or more of the following:

  • PSA

  • HER2

  • PAP

  • Estrogen receptors

Explanation

Question 61 of 100

1

What pathogenetic mechanism can be used for the therapy of prostate carcinoma?

Select one of the following:

  • hormonal therapy - anti-testosterone drugs

  • hormonal therapy - anti-progesterone drugs

  • treatment with monoclonal antibodies

Explanation

Question 62 of 100

1

Which of the following types of cancer metastasize to bone?

Select one or more of the following:

  • ovarian cancer

  • renal cancer

  • breast cancer

  • thyroid gland cancer

Explanation

Question 63 of 100

1

Bone metastases are observed in which

Select one or more of the following:

  • gastric cancer

  • ovarian cancer

  • prostate cancer

  • breast cancer

Explanation

Question 64 of 100

1

Which of the following statements are true for Grave’s disease

Select one or more of the following:

  • it is the most common cause for hypothyroidism

  • exophthalmos in some patients

  • pretibial myxedema

  • usually most patients are euthyroid

Explanation

Question 65 of 100

1

The following is true for Grave’s disease

Select one or more of the following:

  • it causes hyperthyroidism

  • autoantibodies against TSH-receptors

  • affects more men than women

  • thyroid stimulating IgG is the cause

Explanation

Question 66 of 100

1

Histologically in Grave’s disease we can find

Select one or more of the following:

  • nodular colloid goiter

  • signs of thyroid hyperfunction

  • small thyroid follicles with small amounts of diluted colloid

  • many resorbtive vacuoles in the thyroid follicles

Explanation

Question 67 of 100

1

In nodular toxic goiter we can observe the following

Select one or more of the following:

  • exophthalmos

  • there are found autoantibodies against TSH-receptors

  • pretibial myxedema

  • colloid nodular goiter

Explanation

Question 68 of 100

1

Which of the following are renal complications of diabetes?

Select one or more of the following:

  • arteriolo-hyalinosis of vas afferens and vas efferens

  • chronic pyelonephritis

  • diffuse and segmental glomerulosclerosis

  • diabetic retinopathy

Explanation

Question 69 of 100

1

In goiter we observe

Select one or more of the following:

  • cystically dilated thyroid follicles

  • histological accommodation of the epithelium lining the follicles

  • papillary folds of the epithelium of the follicles

  • diluted, scarce colloid

Explanation

Question 70 of 100

1

Hashimoto’s thyroiditis is characterized by

Select one or more of the following:

  • the thyroid follicles are dilated, filled with large amounts of concentrated colloid

  • atypical looking cells called oncocytes

  • the thyroid follicles are replaced by lymph follicles

  • these lymphoid follicles have pale germinal centers

Explanation

Question 71 of 100

1

Pneumococcus usually causes infections of the CNS in

Select one or more of the following:

  • newboms

  • adults

  • teenagers

  • toddlers

Explanation

Question 72 of 100

1

Haemophylus influenze is the most common etiological agent for infections of the CNS in

Select one or more of the following:

  • newborns

  • adults

  • teenagers

  • toddlers

Explanation

Question 73 of 100

1

Escherichia coli is the most common etiological agent from infections of the CNS in

Select one or more of the following:

  • newborns

  • adults

  • teenagers

  • toddlers

Explanation

Question 74 of 100

1

Neisseria meningitidis is the most common etiological agent from infections of the CNS in

Select one or more of the following:

  • newborns

  • adults

  • teenagers

  • toddlers

Explanation

Question 75 of 100

1

Which of the following statements are true for tumors of the CNS?

Select one or more of the following:

  • metastatic tumors to the brain are more common than the primary

  • primary tumors of the CNS often metastasize outside the CNS

  • primary tumors of the CNS almost never metastasize outside the CNS

  • most important factor for the outcome is the tumor location

Explanation

Question 76 of 100

1

Which are the purposes of pathological autopsy?

Select one or more of the following:

  • to accuse the clinicians of medical malpractice

  • to establish the cause of death and the definitive diagnosis

  • to help and educate clinicians and to improve their work

  • to help the-relatives of the deceased to convict the doctors

Explanation

Question 77 of 100

1

Which are the conditions for an autopsy to be done?

Select one or more of the following:

  • death occurred in a hospital due to a disease

  • available medical history of the patient

  • presence of the treating doctor

  • all of the listed above

Explanation

Question 78 of 100

1

What are the characteristics of a frozen section?

Select one or more of the following:

  • urgent diagnosis given during an operation

  • the preparation of the tissue samples is done by a paraffin method

  • the preparation of the tissue samples is done on a freezing microtome

  • sometimes the diagnosis is not exactly clear because of the preparation method but information like “malignant tumor”, “benign tumor” or “inflammation” is given to the surgeons to know how to proceed with the operation

Explanation

Question 79 of 100

1

Which fixative is most commonly used?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Bouin solution

  • Absolute alcohol

  • Formalin 10%

  • Salts of heavy metals

Explanation

Question 80 of 100

1

What fixative should be used for a liver biopsy from a baby with a suspected inherited metabolic disease?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Formalin 10

  • 1,5-4% glutaraldehyde

  • Frozen section

  • Zenker’s fixative

Explanation

Question 81 of 100

1

What is the role of immunohistochemical stains?

Select one or more of the following:

  • to give urgent answers about the diagnosis or at least orientation about the pathological process during surgery

  • to determine the histogenesis of the tumor especially in highly undifferentiated malignant tumors

  • to determine the proliferative activity and the hormonal receptors of the tumor that is highly important for the treatment

  • to help determine the cause of death

Explanation

Question 82 of 100

1

Cytokeratin, S-100 protein, Vimentin, Desmin, CD-20 are examples of

Select one of the following:

  • special stains to prove different substances

  • immunohistochemical markers

Explanation

Question 83 of 100

1

In which cases a pathological autopsy is performed?

Select one or more of the following:

  • when there is suspicion for diagnostic or therapeutic malpractice

  • death of a person outside the hospital

  • when there is suspicion of violent death

  • death of a patient in the hospital and when the relatives don’t ask the principal to cancel the autopsy

Explanation

Question 84 of 100

1

Which of the followings is not a part of performing an autopsy

Select one or more of the following:

  • dissection of organ

  • opening the body

  • taking biopsy from organ change

  • extraction of abdominal and thoracic organs

Explanation

Question 85 of 100

1

Size, shape, elasticity, consistency, color and cut surface are characteristics of

Select one or more of the following:

  • microscopic examination of organs

  • gross examination of organs

  • ultramicroscopic examination of organs

  • none of the listed

Explanation

Question 86 of 100

1

Indicate correctly the name of the described test.
The pericardial sac is cut in Y-like section and filled with water, after that, in the presence of a witness, the right ventricle is punctured with a knife

Select one or more of the following:

  • test for thromboembolism

  • test for pneumothorax

  • test for air and gas embolism

  • test for fat embolism

Explanation

Question 87 of 100

1

Indicate correctly the name of the described test.
The pulmonary artery is cut at the place of truncus pulmonalis. Tweezers are inserted and the content of the artery is taken out for examinationion

Select one or more of the following:

  • test for pneumothorax

  • test for air and gas embolism

  • test for thromboembolism

  • test for fat embolism

Explanation

Question 88 of 100

1

Indicate correctly the name of the described test.
A pocket between the skin and the ribs is formed and is filled with water. In the presence of a witness, the thorax is punctured with a thin knife in an intercostal space

Select one or more of the following:

  • test for air and gas embolism

  • test for fat embolism

  • test for thromboembolism

  • test for pneumothorax

Explanation

Question 89 of 100

1

Where is the main accumulation of glycogen in patients with diabetes?

Select one or more of the following:

  • in epithelial cells of convoluted tubules and Henle’s loop

  • in epithelial cells of gastrointestinal mucosa

  • in the nuclei and in the cytoplasm of the hepatocytes

  • endothelial cells of the vessels

Explanation

Question 90 of 100

1

The abnormal inclusions in the hepatocytes in alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency are composed of

Select one or more of the following:

  • glycogen

  • lipids

  • bile

  • proteins

Explanation

Question 91 of 100

1

PAS reaction with PAS control is used to distinguish

Select one or more of the following:

  • Cholesterol from other lipids

  • Glycogen from mucus

  • DNA from RNA

  • Denaturated intracellular proteins from accumulated extracellular proteins

Explanation

Question 92 of 100

1

PAS-control is done using

Select one or more of the following:

  • sulfuric acid

  • hydrochloric acid

  • amylase

  • picric acid

Explanation

Question 93 of 100

1

What is the relation between fatty degeneration of the liver and diabetes?

Select one or more of the following:

  • there is no relation between them

  • patients with diabetes have increased intake of lipids to provide more energy

  • the fatty liver in diabetes is caused by increased lipolysis and increased delivery of fatty acids in the liver

  • the fatty liver leads to diabetes mellitus

Explanation

Question 94 of 100

1

What is android type of obesity?

Select one or more of the following:

  • also called “male”or “apple” type, it is the accumulation of lipids in the fatty cells around the shoulders, thorax and waist

  • also called “female” or “pear’’type, it is the accumulation of lipids in the fatty cells around the hips, tights and legs

  • generalized obesity predominantly on the face, shoulders and thorax

  • generalized obesity predominantly in the tights, hips and legs

Explanation

Question 95 of 100

1

What is gynoid type of obesity?

Select one or more of the following:

  • also called “male”or “apple” type, it is the accumulation of lipids in the fatty cells around the shoulders, thorax and waist

  • also called “female”or “pear”type, it is the accumulation of lipids in the fatty cells around the hips, tights and legs

  • generalized obesity predominantly on the face, shoulders and thorax

  • generalized obesity predominantly in the tights, hips and legs

Explanation

Question 96 of 100

1

What is upper type of obesity?

Select one or more of the following:

  • also called “male”or “apple” type, accumulation of lipids in the fatty cells around the shoulders, thorax and waist

  • also called “female”or “pear”type, it is the accumulation of lipids in the fatty cells around the hips, tights and legs

  • generalized obesity predominantly on the face, shoulders and thorax

  • generalized obesity predominantly in the tights, hips and legs

Explanation

Question 97 of 100

1

What is lower type of obesity?

Select one or more of the following:

  • also called “male” or “apple” type, it is the accumulation of lipids in the fatty cells around the shoulders, thorax and waist

  • also called “female”or “pear”’type - accumulation of lipids in the fatty cells around the hips, tights and legs

  • generalized obesity predominantly on the face, shoulders and thorax

  • generalized obesity predominantly in the tights, hips and legs

Explanation

Question 98 of 100

1

Which type of obesity has worse prognosis?

Select one or more of the following:

  • gynoid type

  • male type

  • the obesity doesn’t affect the patient’s health

  • all of the obesity types have the same prognosis

Explanation

Question 99 of 100

1

Haemolytic jaundice is characterized by the following laboratory findings:

Select one or more of the following:

  • increased indirect bilirubin in the serum, hypercholic stools and increased urobilinogen in the urine

  • both types of bilirubin are increased in the serum, normal colour of the stools, both bilirubin and urobilinogen are increased in the urine

  • increased direct bilirubin in the serum, hypoholic or acholic stool, increased bilirubin in the urine

  • none of the above

Explanation

Question 100 of 100

1

Mechanical jaundice is characterized by the following laboratory findings

Select one or more of the following:

  • increased indirect bilirubin in the serum, hypercholic stools and increased urobilinogen in the urine

  • both types of bilirubin are increased in the serum, normal colour of the stools, both bilirubin and urobilinogen are increased in the urine

  • increased direct bilirubin in the serum, hypocholic or acholic stools, increased bilirubin in the urine

  • none of the above

Explanation

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