Anesthesiology 2019 Exam (NOTHING 2015 ONWARDS)

Question 1 of 200

1

The canogram below is a sign that your patient has just had:

Select one of the following:

a return of spontaneous circulation (ROSC) after cardiac arrest
Malignant hyperthermia
a severe bronchospasm
pulmonary embolism

Explanation

Question 2 of 200

1

The leading cause of cardiac arrest in children is:

Select one of the following:

trauma
congenital heart failure
respiratory problem
circulatory problem

Explanation

Question 3 of 200

1

The leading cause of cardiac arrest in adults is

Select one of the following:

congenital heart failure
trauma
abnormal heart rhythm
respiratory problem

Explanation

Question 4 of 200

1

Brain stem reflexes include:

Select one of the following:

vestibule ocular response
pupillary
cough
all of the above

Explanation

Question 5 of 200

1

Which of the following investigations is the most important to perform immediately after hospital admission in a patient with clinical signs of stroke?

Select one of the following:

Ultrasound of the carotid artery
cerebral angiography
cerebral CT
EEG

Explanation

Question 6 of 200

1

Acute Kidney injuryt is associated with

Select one of the following:

hyperkalemia
alkalosis
hypophosphatemia
hypocalcemia

Explanation

Question 7 of 200

1

The typical pattern of hyperdynamic septic shock is

Select one of the following:

Low CVP/ high CO / low SVR
Low CVP / low CO / high SVR
High CVP / low CO / low SVR
high CVP / low CO/ high SVR

Explanation

Question 8 of 200

1

Which equation describes Cardiac output (CO)

Select one of the following:

HR X SV
Preload X Afterload
HR x Preload
HR x CVP

Explanation

Question 9 of 200

1

ARDS is characterized by all except:

Select one of the following:

Non-cardiogenic lung edema
increased respiratory system compliance
acute inflammatory reaction in the lungs, increased permeability of pulmonary vascular endothelium
Hypoxemia

Explanation

Question 10 of 200

1

Early phase septic shock is characterized by

Select one of the following:

Increased capillary permeability
Vasoconstriction
A low cardiac output
A high capillary artery occlusion pressure (PCWP, PAOP)

Explanation

Question 11 of 200

1

The initial MAP target values for the treatment of shock should be:

Select one of the following:

MAP 50 mmHg
MAP 65 mmHg
MAP 80 mmHG
MAP 100mmHg

Explanation

Question 12 of 200

1

Risk of misdiagnosis of brain death according to circulatory criteria is possible in circumstances EXCEPT:

Select one of the following:

hypothermia
hyperthermia

Explanation

Question 13 of 200

1

Gold standard for the diagnosis of death using confirmatory investigation is:

Select one of the following:

evoked potentials
arterial angiography
EEG
Transcranial Doppler

Explanation

Question 14 of 200

1

Calculate cerebral perfusion pressure (CPP) based on the following data: HR 75, BP 120/80 (MAP 65), CVP 15, ICP 15, Respiratory rate 25, Minute volume 10 l/min

Select one of the following:

105
60
50
35

Explanation

Question 15 of 200

1

Categories of ARDS:

Select one of the following:

mild: 300 <pO2 /FiO2 ≤ 400 (previously called ALI – acute lung injury)
Moderate: 100 <pO2 /FiO2 ≤ 200
Severe: pO2 /FiO2 ≤ 150
Very severe: pO2 /FiO2 ≤ 500

Explanation

Question 16 of 200

1

Noninvasive mechanical ventilation (NIV) can be considered in patient:

Select one of the following:

not fully conscious
hemodynamically stable
non-cooperative
unable to take adequate tidal volumes

Explanation

Question 17 of 200

1

65-year-old man with acute STEMI MI undergoes emergent cardiac catherization followed by PCI. A pulmonary artery cathartic is inserted for hemodynamic monitoring. Which of the following hemodynamic subsets satisfies the criteria for cardiogenic shock in this patient?

Select one of the following:

Pulmonary Artery Occlusion Pressure (PAOP) < 18mmhG; Cardiac Index > 2.21/min/m2
PAOP > 18mmHg; CI >2.2/min/m2
PAOP < 18mmHg; CI <2.2/min/m2
PAOP > 18mmHg; CI <2.2/min/m2

Explanation

Question 18 of 200

1

Which is the TRUE STATEMENT about insulin therapy in septic patient.

Select one of the following:

Septic patients are often hypoglycemic
the optimal management is to maintain glucose < 180mg/dL
insulin should not be given IV
the best and safest route of insulin administration is subcutaneous supply

Explanation

Question 19 of 200

1

Vasopressors during septic shock resuscitation

Select one of the following:

lowest mortality was achieved when vasopressors were initiated 6-12 hours after or after at least 1 liter of fluid was given during first hour
first choice vasopressor was based SSC recommendations is Norepinephrine
First choice vasopressor based SSC recommendation is Vasopressin
Dopamine can be considered in patients with high risk of tachyarrhythmia’s

Explanation

Question 20 of 200

1

Beside score – quick SOFA (qSOFA) includes the indicators described below with THE EXCEPTION of:

Select one of the following:

increased respiratory rate
alteration in cognition
fever
low blood pressure

Explanation

Question 21 of 200

1

What does DO2 refer to?

Select one of the following:

amount of oxygen in blood
amount of O2 delivered to tissues of the body per minute
cardiac output only
arterial partial pressure of oxygen

Explanation

Question 22 of 200

1

All of following are examples of distributive shock EXCEPT:

Select one of the following:

drugs that cause vasodilation
hemorrhage
sepsis
anaphylaxis-vasodilation

Explanation

Question 23 of 200

1

Once the patient is defibrillated and high quality CPR is in progress, the first drug you would expect to give would be

Select one of the following:

lidocaine
morphine
adrenaline (epinephrine)
magnesium sulfate

Explanation

Question 24 of 200

1

You are working in emergency department. Your 69-years old patient who is being treated for chest pain. He has an IV in place and is on the bedside monitor. He is awaiting the arrival of the Cath Lab Team. Suddenly the patient loses consciousness. You look up at the monitor and see ventricular fibrillation. You are not sure whether you feel a pulse or not. You should immediately

Select one of the following:

ventilate using bag-valve-mask ventilation (BVM)
precordial thumb
defibrillate at 200 joules or manufacturer guidelines
have another colleague to double check the presence of the pulse

Explanation

Question 25 of 200

1

Indicate A FALSE STATEMENT describing the principles of mechanical lung ventilation in the ARDS:

Select one of the following:

selecting the lowest FiO2 at which is it possible to SpO2 99-95%
Tidal volume 10 ml/kg
Plateu pressure in the airways <30 cm H20
increased respiratory frequency up to pH >7.30

Explanation

Question 26 of 200

1

Indicate A FALSE STATEMENT describing the effect of inotropic drugs

Select one of the following:

levosimedan increases cardiac contractility by sensitizing his myofilaments to calcium
dopamine is a selective B1 receptor agonist
dobutamine increases heart rate and increases O2 mycardial O2 consumption
adrenaline infusion is accompanies by an increase in serum lactate

Explanation

Question 27 of 200

1

According to international definition pain is:

Select one of the following:

an acute sensory experience associated with local tissue damage
actual or potential tissue damage associated with unpleased experience
an unpleasant sensory and emotional experience associated wit actual or potential tissue damage
an unpleasant sensory or emotional experience described in terms of tissue damage

Explanation

Question 28 of 200

1

The PCA analgetic therapy means:

Select one of the following:

peridural continuous analgesia
pain control analgesia
perioperative control of pain
Patient controlled analgesia

Explanation

Question 29 of 200

1

What is not typical for the chronic pain syndrome:

Select one of the following:

disease on its own
cause usually defined
oft learned syndrome
increase of activity indicated

Explanation

Question 30 of 200

1

In the learned chronic pain syndrome typical behavior called “five Ds” concerns following symptoms EXCEPT:

Select one of the following:

disability
dysphagia
drug misuse
dependency

Explanation

Question 31 of 200

1

Basic goal after the recognition of sepsis is to administer the antimicrobials within:

Select one of the following:

1 hour
3 hours
6 hours
12 hours

Explanation

Question 32 of 200

1

In the sepsis Six algorithm of severe sepsis treatment, Step 1 is:

Select one of the following:

1000 ml crystalloids infusion
intravenous antibiotics
100% oxygen via mask
dopamine I.V.

Explanation

Question 33 of 200

1

ET CO2 is increased in the following conditions EXCEPT:

Select one of the following:

Hyperthermia
COPD
Malignant Hyperthermia
Hyperventilation

Explanation

Question 34 of 200

1

45 year old man was admitted to the emergency department after a traffic accident. Physically examination: conscious, in a logical touch, suffering, heart rate of 120/min, blood pressure 80/50mmHg, major bleeding due to amputation of the right lower limb, VAS is 10. In CT: without head injury. What is the most appropriate anesthetic agent during transport the patient to operating theater?

Select one of the following:

Propofol
Etomidate
Ketamine
Thiopental

Explanation

Question 35 of 200

1

Which of the following anesthetics is safe in patients with a history of malignant hyperthermia?

Select one of the following:

Propofol
Sewofluran
Succinylcholine
Depolarizing relaxant drugs

Explanation

Question 36 of 200

1

How to do assess ASA classification in the following patients?
I – 34 years old man with good control of diabetes mellitus
II – 86 years old with hypertension without treatment and creatinine level 1.2 mg/dL
III – 45 year old man with the diagnosis of brain death

Select one of the following:

I-1, II-2, III-5
I-2, II-3, II-5
I-2, II-3, III-6
I-2, II-4, III-5

Explanation

Question 37 of 200

1

Epidural anesthesia is contraindicated EXCEPT:

Select one of the following:

non-availibity of patient’s consent
local infection or sepsis at the puncture site
during child birth
Thrombocytopenia

Explanation

Question 38 of 200

1

Hypotension is least likely to occur following induction with which of the following anesthetics agents?

Select one of the following:

Ketamine
Propofol
Thiopental
Midazolam

Explanation

Question 39 of 200

1

Which of the following local anesthetics can cause most likely an allergic reaction?

Select one of the following:

procaine
lidocaine
Bupivacaine
Ropivacaine

Explanation

Question 40 of 200

1

Regarding to succinylcholine the following statements are true EXCEPT:

Select one of the following:

it is depolarizing relaxant drug
succinylcholine has short duration due to plasma cholinesterase
side effects include malignant hyperthermia, muscle pains, acute rhabdomyolysis with high blood levels of potassium
it is a medication used as a part of general anesthesia for long-term paralysis to help with tracheal intubation

Explanation

Question 41 of 200

1

Regarding CVP find FALSE STATEMENT:

Select one of the following:

mean pressure in VCS or RA
it is increased in hypovolemia
measurement performed with central venous catheter
to estimate the filling of vascular bed and preload of the right heart

Explanation

Question 42 of 200

1

Find TRUE STATEMENT regarding pulsoximetry

Select one of the following:

SpO2 90% = 75mmHg
Falsely high SpO2 during CO inhalation
Normal value: SpO2 ≤96%
Falsely high SpO2 during hyperbilirubinemia

Explanation

Question 43 of 200

1

CVP is typically elevated in all EXCEPT

Select one of the following:

congestive heart failure
cardial tamponade
hypervolemia
Sepsis

Explanation

Question 44 of 200

1

Interpret the following blood gas: PaO2 78mmHg, PaCO2 29mmHg, pH 7.29, HCO3 14, BE -10

Select one of the following:

respiratory alkalosis
respiratory acidosis
metabolic acidosis
metabolic alkalosis

Explanation

Question 45 of 200

1

The patient with confirmed sudden cardiac arrest presents PEA on ECF tracing. You should:

Select one of the following:

administer 3mg of atropine each 2-5min of CPR
debibrilate the patient with 360J energy
administer 1mg of adrenaline each 2-5 mins of CPR
perform cardioversion with 150J energy

Explanation

Question 46 of 200

1

The best indicator of adequate fluid resuscitation in the trauma patient is:

Select one of the following:

Arterial pH
Blood pressure
core temperature
serum lactate level

Explanation

Question 47 of 200

1

A 24-year-old man is brought to the emergency department following a car accident. He is unconscious and has an obvious fractured right femur, as well as a taut abdomen. His BP is 92/58 and pulse 110. Prior to going to CT, radiology, and then surgery, the anesthesiologist request that a PA catheter be inserted. This is done, and the following values are obtained:
SvO2 = 54%
Cl = 2.5/L/min/m2
PAOP = 3 mmHg

Select one of the following:

left ventricular failure
fluid overload
sepsis
hypovolemia

Explanation

Question 48 of 200

1

A 40-year old woman is undergoing an internal fixation of her tibia under general anesthesia. While the surgeon is inserting the implant she develops sudden hypotension and her EtCO2 shows
a sudden drop from 40 mmHg to 22 mmHg. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Select one of the following:

Anesthetic – induced myocardial depression
Hypothermia
pulmonary embolism
massive hemorrhage

Explanation

Question 49 of 200

1

Which one of the following findings would be contraindication to spontaneous breathing?

Select one of the following:

FiO2 0.4
PEEP 5
GCS 4
Minute volume 10 L/min

Explanation

Question 50 of 200

1

You are in the library when a gentleman who was standing at the desk collapses. He falls to the ground and does not appear to be breathing. You ask the clerk to call for help and to get the AED. Because the man is not responding and does not appear to be breaking normally you should immediately

Select one of the following:

Do nothing until the AED arrives
start compressions at least 100 per minute but no more than 120 per minute
open the airway, deliver 4 breaths and await to the arrival of the AED
Deliver 2 breaths followed by 15 compressions

Explanation

Question 51 of 200

1

the FALSE STATEMENT concerning cardiogenic shock is:

Select one of the following:

is characterized by low cardiac output
is characterized by a low systemic vascular resistance
may be caused by papillary muscle rupture
is inability of the heart to maintain the circulation

Explanation

Question 52 of 200

1

Subarachnoid anaesthesia is contraindicated in:

Select one of the following:

Obstetiric patients
transurethral resection of bladder tumors
total hip replacement
thrombocytopenia

Explanation

Question 53 of 200

1

Amiodarone is indicated for the treatment of:

Select one of the following:

hypertension
arrhythmia
hyperthyroidisms
seizure

Explanation

Question 54 of 200

1

The patient is admitted with cardiogenic shock and oliguric acute kidney injury. Hemodynamics parameters reveal the following:
BP 105/60 mmHg, Sinus rhythm (108/min), Cl 1.8 (CO2.4), CVP 23 mmhG, PCWP 25mmHg, SVRI 2088 (SVR 1566). Which one of the following interventions would you anticipate?

Select one of the following:

Dopamine at 2mcg/kg/min
captoprin 6.5 mg q6h
metoprolol 25mmHg
Dobutamine 5mcg/kg/min

Explanation

Question 55 of 200

1

Calculate the PaO2: FiO2 ratio passed on the following data:
FiO2 1.0, PEEP 10, PaO2 65mmHg, pH 7.34 mmHg, PaCO2 45mmHg, SpO2 90%

Select one of the following:

100
95
65
35

Explanation

Question 56 of 200

1

The inotropic drug of the first choice for septic shock is:

Select one of the following:

dopamine
dobutamine
epinephrine
dopexamine

Explanation

Question 57 of 200

1

Pneumothorax as a complication occurs more often during cannulation of:

Select one of the following:

jugular internal vein
jubgular external vain
Subclavian vein
Femoral Vein

Explanation

Question 58 of 200

1

What is the correct treatment of an adult patient with VF:

Select one of the following:

administer 500ug of digoxin IV
administration of 1mg of adrenaline after each defribrillation
administration of 3mg of atropine after each two loops of CPR
performing the first debribilliation with energy 150-200J (biphasic)

Explanation

Question 59 of 200

1

According to ERC guidelines for resuscitation 2010 (adults):
“Atropin is no longer recommended for routine use in asystole or pulseless electrical activity (PEA).
a) this sentence is false
b) forst part is true, and second part is false
c) atropine is not mentioned in the newest ERC Guidelines for Resuscitation 2010 (adults)
d) this sentence is true

Select one of the following:

a
b
c
d

Explanation

Question 60 of 200

1

The correct ratio of compression of chest to breaths in cardiac arrest in neonates is:
a) 15:2
b) 30:2
c) 3:1
d) 5:1

Select one of the following:

a
b
c
d

Explanation

Question 61 of 200

1

12) Tuohy needle is used to perform:
a) epidural anesthesia
b) spinal anesthesia
c) arterial puncture
d) central vein puncture

Select one of the following:

a
b
c
d

Explanation

Question 62 of 200

1

Spinal anesthesia results from the injection of a local anesthetic drug directly:
a) outside the dura
b) into spinal cord
c) to the nerve roots
d) into cerebrospinal fluid

Select one of the following:

a
b
c
d

Explanation

Question 63 of 200

1

The spinal needle can only be inserted below the second lumbar and above the first sacral vertebrae:
a) this sentence is true
b) this sentence is fasle
c) first part is true and, second is false
d) first part is false and, second is true

Select one of the following:

a
b
c
d

Explanation

Question 64 of 200

1

A patient with systemic disease that is a constant threat to life- is according to ASA classification:
a) I
b) II
c) III
d) IV

Select one of the following:

a
b
c
d

Explanation

Question 65 of 200

1

ANESTHESIOLOGY EXAM 2016/2017

Select one of the following:

READY
NOT READY

Explanation

Question 66 of 200

1

1. A 16-year-old girl has intermittent bifrontal and occipital headaches, which she describes as “squeezing, bandlike, or vinelike” that are worse when she is at school. She has undergone counseling at school for depression and anxiety. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
a. Temporal arteritis
b. Migraine headache
c. Malingering
d. Tension-type headache

Select one of the following:

a
b
c
d

Explanation

Question 67 of 200

1

2. A 55-year-old man has severe pain on gentle touching of the arm. Six months ago, the median n. was damage during creation of an arteriovenous fistula for dialysis. Which of the following terms best describes this phenomenon?
a. Hypesthesia
b. Hyperalgesia
c. Allodynia
d. Hypersensitivity

Select one of the following:

a
b
c
d

Explanation

Question 68 of 200

1

The placebo effect is mediated by:
a. Opioid mechanism
b. Oxytocin mechanism
c. Cannabinoid mechanism
d. All of them

Select one of the following:

a
b
c
d

Explanation

Question 69 of 200

1

According to international definition, pain is:
a. An unpleasant sensory or emotional experience described in terms of tissue damage
b. Actual or potential tissue damage associated with unpleasant experience
c. An acute sensory experience associated with local tissue damage
d. An unpleasant sensory and emotional experience associated with actual or potential tissue damage

Select one of the following:

a
b
c
d

Explanation

Question 70 of 200

1

The latest full definition of sepsis is as follows:

Select one of the following:

sepsis is a life-threatening organ failure caused by an incorrect response of the body to blood infection. Organ insufficiency is recognized on the basis of the SOFA score> 4
sepsis is a life threatening organ failure caused by an incorrect response of the body to infection. Organ failure is diagnosed based on a sudden change in SOFA> 2 due to infection.
sepsis is a life-threatening syndrome shaped by factors associated with the pathogen itself as well as factors related to the patient's body (eg. gender, race, and other genetic factors, age, coexisting disease, environment)
sepsis is a life-threatening organ failure diagnosed on the basis of a change in the SOFA scale> 4

Explanation

Question 71 of 200

1

Patient with COPD: CO2 48 mm Hg, HCO3 - 28 mm Hg, pH 7.35

Select one of the following:

compensated respiratory acidosis
compensated respiratory alkalosis
compensated metabolic acidosis
compensated metabolic alkalosis

Explanation

Question 72 of 200

1

To qSOFA belong all EXCEPT:

Select one of the following:

temperature above 38 or below 36
breath above 22 / min
systolic pressure below 100
disturbances of consciousness

Explanation

Question 73 of 200

1

65-year-old man. It shows the symptoms of cardiogenic shock. You're connecting a swann-Ganz catheter and what you see.

Select one of the following:

Pcwp > 18, CI > 2.1
Pcwp < 18, CI > 2.1
Pcwp > 18, CI < 2.1
Pcwp < 18, CI < 2.1

Explanation

Question 74 of 200

1

In sepsis, increased fibrin formation may impair the following:

Select one of the following:

Loss of vascular capillary barrier function leading to extensive swelling of
expandable and blood-vessel tissues and 5 -stage vascular resistence
formation of thrombosis in incisions, perturbation disorders, organ ischaemia, organ damage and development of multiple organ failure syndrome
severe adhi leukocyte to vasomotor vessels with increased migration of leukocytes into tissues

Explanation

Question 75 of 200

1

Pathophysiological changes observed in sepsis are:

Select one of the following:

vascular endothelial dysfunction leading to increased vascular permeability and extensive tissue swelling
haemostasis disorders, reduced energy production in the mitochondria
circulatory insufficiency and hypotension
a, b, c

Explanation

Question 76 of 200

1

The term hypoxemia means a reduced content of oxygen in arterial blood. The causes of hypoxemia may be as follows:

Select one of the following:

impaired blood oxygenation (low PaO2 value)
low Hb levels (anemia)
reduced availability of haemoglobin for oxygen (carbon monoxide poisoning)
a, b, c

Explanation

Question 77 of 200

1

Measuring the concentration of pro-calcitonin in patients treated in the intensive care unit is useful:

Select one of the following:

in the diagnosis of severe fungal infections
in the diagnosis of severe viral infections
in the diagnosis and monitoring of the treatment of thin bacterial infections
in the diagnosis and monitoring of treatment of severe coagulation disorders (eg disseminated intravascular coagulation)

Explanation

Question 78 of 200

1

Cardiogenic shock (WK) from septic shock (WS) differs mainly:

Select one of the following:

Patients with cardiogenic shock have greater tachycardia
Patients with septic shock are more likely to have severe lactic acidosis
The diastolic pressure is very low in patients with cardiogenic shock
The septic shock patients are usually characterized by increased vasodilatation

Explanation

Question 79 of 200

1

If there are difficulties in ventilating the patient and the presence of a foreign body has been ruled out, which of the following may be helpful in providing ventilation to the mask?

Select one of the following:

Head bending and raising the chin
Oral pharyngeal tube
nasopharyngeal tube
All of the above

Explanation

Question 80 of 200

1

Indicates a FALSE statement:

Select one of the following:

In systemic bacterial infections, procalcitonia is produced in all parenchymal devices and excreted into the bloodstream, which provide a high concentration.
In severe viral infections, procalcitonin is produced in all parenchymal vessels and excreted into the bloodstream, where it reaches a high concentration
outside of procalcitonin can grow after major surgery, reaching the highest values 24-48 hours. after treatment. PCT returns to normal values within a few days that they do not have
Continuity testing

Explanation

Question 81 of 200

1

Treatment of life-threatening hyperkalaemia includes:
1. Magnesium IV
2. Calcium IV
3. IV glucose infusion with insulin
4. Lidocaine IV

Select one of the following:

1,2,3
1, 3
2, 3
3, 4

Explanation

Question 82 of 200

1

Which of the painkillers can be used in the treatment of postoperative pain in children?

Select one of the following:

Paracetamol
morphine
acetylsalicylic acid
A and B

Explanation

Question 83 of 200

1

It is not true that: The dose of adrenalin in the treatment of anaphylactic shock:

Select one of the following:

It should be given only if there is no response to an earlier intravenous GCS supply
In adults with spontaneous circulation, it is injected into the lateral surface of the thigh
. It can be repeated every 5-15 minutes if there is no improvement or the blood pressure is still too low.
For adults with spontaneous circulation, the recommended dose is 0.5 mg

Explanation

Question 84 of 200

1

In the course of resuscitation, the indication to be given adrenalin is:

Select one of the following:

Any form of cardiac arrest
Only asystole
Only VT
only the PEA

Explanation

Question 85 of 200

1

The indication for defibrillation is:

Select one of the following:

Asystole
Ventricular fibrillation
Electrical activity without the presence of pulse on the carotid arteries, occurring in the form of tachycardia with narrow QRS syndromes
Any cardiac arrest, regardless of the electrical activity of the heart

Explanation

Question 86 of 200

1

Recommendations for the treatment of patients with carcinogenic shock include all of the below listed EXCEPT

Select one of the following:

ECG and echocardiographic examinations should be performed immediately on vomiting patients suspected of having cardiogenic shock
ECG monitoring and invasive blood pressure monitoring are recommended
intravenous inotropic drug (dobutamine) may be considered to increase cardiac output
in the first-line treatment, in the absence of symptoms of acute inflammation, urgent administration of fluids IV (saline or Ringer's solution,> 2000ml / 15-30min) is recommended

Explanation

Question 87 of 200

1

Sepsis may develop:

Select one of the following:

after tattooing
urinary tract infection (UTI)
from the mosquito bite
all of the above

Explanation

Question 88 of 200

1

The aim of CRRT therapy (continuously renal replacement therapy) is:

Select one of the following:

fluid homeostasis, volumic control
elimination of cytokines
metabolism control
all mentioned

Explanation

Question 89 of 200

1

During ALS, persons performing external cardiac massage should change to ensure the best quality of pressure

Select one of the following:

after each cycle of chest compressions
every 2 minutes
if the rescuer is tired
at the behest of the team leader

Explanation

Question 90 of 200

1

Continuous monitoring of ET CO2 during CPR (cardiopulmonary resuscitation):

Select one of the following:

confirms and monitors the position of the tracheal tube
is used only in the case of a public airway device
may be an indicator of the quality of CPR and ROSC
correct answers a and c

Explanation

Question 91 of 200

1

Adrenaline is:

Select one of the following:

the first-line drug in septic shock
during resuscitation we give 1mg IV every 2 minutes
by activating peripheral beta 1 receptors, it causes vasodilatation
has a positive inotropic, chronotropic, bathmotropic and non-tropic effect

Explanation

Question 92 of 200

1

In cardiac arrest in the VF / VT mechanism without heart rate monitored by the patient and witnesses

Select one of the following:

Precordial thump may be effective while waiting for the defibrillator to be used?
In special cases, defibrillations may be performed in a sequence of three consecutive discharges when the defibrillator is immediately available
we give adrenaline after the third defibrillation
all correct

Explanation

Question 93 of 200

1

Amiodaron in sudden cardiac arrest

Select one of the following:

we always use 300 mg iv
we give after 3 defibrillations
we use when lidocaine is not available
. in recurrent PEA we give again after 5 defibrillations

Explanation

Question 94 of 200

1

For the reversible causes of cardiac arrest, do not:

Select one of the following:

hyperoxia
hyperkaliernk
hyperthermia
thromboembolic lesions of coronary vessels

Explanation

Question 95 of 200

1

The cerebral blood flow (CBF) and brain oxygen supply depend on the brain's perfusion pressure(CPP), which we pour out:

Select one of the following:

CPP = CVP + ICP
CPP = MAP- ICP
CPP = CVP- ICP
CPP = PCWP-I CP

Explanation

Question 96 of 200

1

In the treatment of increased intracranial pressure > 20mmHg does not include:

Select one of the following:

recuperation of the patient in a semi-sitting position
osmotic treatment with mannitol
deepening analgosedation
Hypoventilation

Explanation

Question 97 of 200

1

A patient's COPD test usually shows

Select one of the following:

Hypocrisy
hypercapnia
Hypoxia
Hypoxia and hypocapnia

Explanation

Question 98 of 200

1

Depression of the circulatory system during the induction of intravenous anaesthesia is mainly caused by:

Select one of the following:

Propofol
Fentanyl
Atropine
Reccuronium

Explanation

Question 99 of 200

1

Local aesthetic agents are compounds of:

Select one of the following:

acid
alkaline
all of the above
none of the above

Explanation

Question 100 of 200

1

Under epidural anesthesia, the extent of the anesthesia obtained depends mainly on:

Select one of the following:

The position of the patient during the administration of the local anasthetic
Anesthetic concentrations
The volume of the anesthetic agent given
Adjuqants administered together with the drug for local anesthesia

Explanation

Question 101 of 200

1

Consequences regarding subarachnoid anaesthesia include:

Select one of the following:

Urinary retention
Post-operative headaches
They extend the sympathetic blockade
All of the above

Explanation

Question 102 of 200

1

We observe the monitoring of tissue perfusion by assessing:

Select one of the following:

Diuresis hourly
The level of arterial lactate
Skin warmth
All listed

Explanation

Question 103 of 200

1

In the treatment of pain, the administration of analgesics is standard:

Select one of the following:

After transporting the patient to the recovery rooms
Anticipating the appearance of pain
After the patient reports discomfort and pain
With pain that cause blood pressure to rise

Explanation

Question 104 of 200

1

Subarachnoid spinal anaesthesia is possible at the level of the spine

Select one of the following:

Th12 - L1
L1- L2
L3-L4
S1-S2

Explanation

Question 105 of 200

1

For the treatment of sepsis, immediate surgical control of the outbreak is always recommended, with the exception of:

Select one of the following:

intra-abdominal abscesses
pleural empyema
acute pancreatitis
inflammation of the follicle and biliary tract

Explanation

Question 106 of 200

1

In the ICU patient with suspected pre-hospital pulmonary infections, the following diagnostic tests should be performed:

Select one of the following:

chest x-ray
) microbiological culture of bronchial tree and blood secretion and examination for legionella infection in the direction of chlamydia and mycoplasma from blood, for pneumococcal infection with blood or urine, sputum test or throat swab for viral infection by PCR in justified cases
blood biochemistry including markers of inflammation (leukocytosis, PCT, CRP)
all the answers are true

Explanation

Question 107 of 200

1

Prevention of pneumonia in mechanically ventilated patients (VAP) is carried out through:

Select one of the following:

elevating the head of the bed at an angle of 30-50 degrees
vacuum suction and pressure control in the intubation / tracheotomy tube balloon
decolonizing the oral cavity with disinfectants
all the answers are true

Explanation

Question 108 of 200

1

You collect an interview and examine a patient admitted to the emergency care system of your hospital diagnosed with STEMI. The patient is monitored (NIBP, EKG, SpO2), has peripheral venous access, receives oxygen therapy, awaits surgery, in the hemodynamic laboratory. During the examination, the patient loses consciousness, and on the cardiomonitator you can see the VF record. Give the order of handling.

Select one of the following:

you alert the duty team, you implement external heart massage, you defibrillate as soon as possible
you implement external cardiac massage, as soon as you perform intubations, and then defibrillation
you alert the duty team, you implement external heart massage, as soon as you give 1mg of adrenaline
you alert the duty team, implement the external cardiac massage, as soon as you perform intubations

Explanation

Question 109 of 200

1

A 68-year-old patient with a ruptured abdominal aortic aneurysm HR 120/min, BP 80/40, SpO2 95% without passive oxygen therapy requires immediate laparotomy. What drug do you choose to induce anaesthesia?

Select one of the following:

ketamine
propofol
thiopental
midazolam

Explanation

Question 110 of 200

1

The inotropically positive drug of the first choice in the treatment of septic shock is

Select one of the following:

dopamin
dobutamine
adrenaline
dopexamine

Explanation

Question 111 of 200

1

The leading cause of cardiac arrest in children is:

Select one of the following:

Respiratory problem
Circulatory problem
Congenital heart failure
Trauma

Explanation

Question 112 of 200

1

The capnogram below is a sign of:

Select one of the following:

Return of spontaneous circulation after stopping
Bronchial spasm
Malignant hyperthermia
Pulmonary embolism

Explanation

Question 113 of 200

1

Indicate a false statement about central venous pressure (CVP)

Select one of the following:

This is the average pressure measured in the left atrium
The CVP measurement is performed using a zonal central catheter
It evaluates the vascular vessel fill and the assessment of the pre-load of the right ventricle
Valid values 0-5 mmHg

Explanation

Question 114 of 200

1

Which of the following clinical conditions does not cause a shift in the haemoglobin dissociation curve to the left?

Select one of the following:

Acidosis
alkalosis
hypothermia
A reduced level of 2,3 DPG (2,3 diphosphoglycerate)

Explanation

Question 115 of 200

1

The trunk reactions evaluated in the second stage of recognition of the brainstem death in Poland are listed below with the exception

Select one of the following:

Lack of cerebrovascular reflex
Lack of corneal reflex
Lack of temperature sensation
Lack of motor reactions to a painful stimulus

Explanation

Question 116 of 200

1

In an adult patient with SCC with clinical features of brain death, in order to find a permanent and irreversible cessation of brain function (brain death) one should:

Select one of the following:

after at least a 6-hour pre-observation period, two series of clinical trials should be performed with an interval of 12 hours
after at least a 24 - hour observation period, two series of clinical trials should be performed with an interval of 6 hours
in this case, brain death must be confirmed in EEG or cerebral artery angiography
after a minimum of 12 hours of preliminary observation, two series of clinical trials should be performed 24 hours apart

Explanation

Question 117 of 200

1

After defibrillation, continuing CPR (cardiopulmonary resuscitation) the first drug that can be administered is:

Select one of the following:

lidocaine
morphine
adrenaline
magnesium sulphate

Explanation

Question 118 of 200

1

Before diagnosing brain death, exclude EXCEPT

Select one of the following:

the use of neuroleptics
malignant hyperthermia
primary hypothermia
inverting metabolic disorders

Explanation

Question 119 of 200

1

A 55-year-old man after successful CPR is admitted to the ICU. No data from the interview. The patient intubated, ventilated mechanic FIO2 O.6, creaks and croaking over the pulmonary fields. Due to the persistent hypotension with symptoms of hypo perfusion, a catheter was introduced into the pulmonary artery with the following values
SvO2 = 45%
CI = 2.2 L / min / M2
PAOP = 19 mm H
The most likely cause of this condition is:

Select one of the following:

Left ventricular failure
Isolation with fluid
sepsis
aspiration pneumonia

Explanation

Question 120 of 200

1

You are called to the Hospital Rescue Department to an 18-year-old man brought by the Emergency Service Team after a traffic accident. The patient is unconscious, has a cool, pale, sweaty skin, cyanosis of lips and respiratory effort is visible 30 shallow breaths / min, the pulse on the radial artery is present, filamentous about 120min. The cervical veins are over-filled, the trachea is moved to the right. The thorax cage moves asymmetrically, with a lack of breathing noise on the left. The most probable diagnosis is

Select one of the following:

cardiac tamponade
pneumothorax
massive pleural hematoma
closed pneumothorax

Explanation

Question 121 of 200

1

The following clinical conditions are associated with hypokalaemia, EXCEPT

Select one of the following:

diuretic therapy
intensive treatment of acidosis
salbutamol therapy
Rhabdomyolysis

Explanation

Question 122 of 200

1

Continuous renal replacement therapy (CRRT) it is used to:

Select one of the following:

maintaining correct volition and maintaining fluid balance
filtering cytokines
regulating metabolism
all the answers are correct

Explanation

Question 123 of 200

1

During rescue compressions the change occurs:

Select one of the following:

Every 30 seconds
As the order of the team leader
Every 2 minutes
How will a person get tired?

Explanation

Question 124 of 200

1

What dose of lidocaine in cardiac arrest:

Select one of the following:

1 mg / kg
1.5mg / kg
150mg
1 mg UV

Explanation

Question 125 of 200

1

as you can not see the arches of the palate, what is the degree on the Mallapati scale?

Select one of the following:

1
2
3
4

Explanation

Question 126 of 200

1

The level of lactate typical for shock is:

Select one of the following:

> 0.5
> 1
> 2
> 3

Explanation

Question 127 of 200

1

How to calculate CO:

Select one of the following:

HR × BP
HR x SVR
BO x SVR
HR x SV

Explanation

Question 128 of 200

1

What drug we can give the earliest after defibrillation in the skin and...

Select one of the following:

adrenalin
morphine
lidocaine
NaHCO3

Explanation

Question 129 of 200

1

Calculate cerebral blood flow, all parameters given: CV, HR, saturation, pressure, MAP 65, intracranial pressure 20

Select one of the following:

100
60
45
20

Explanation

Question 130 of 200

1

pH = 7.22; PaCO2 = 55; HCO3- = 25

What is it?

Select one of the following:

Non compensated respiratory acidosis.
Non compensated respiratory alkalosis.
Non compensated metabolic acidosis.
Non compensated metabolic alkalosis.

Explanation

Question 131 of 200

1

The latest complete definition of septic shock is as follows

Select one of the following:

Septic shock is defined as sepsis in which circulatory and cellular / metabolic disorders are so high that they significantly increase mortality. Patients in septic shock are diagnosed based on an occurrence
1) clinical symptoms of sepsis
2) persistent hypotension requiring vasopressor treatment to support MAP> 65 mmHg and serum lactate> 2mmol / L
Septic shock is defined as sepsis in which circulatory and cellular / metabolic disorders are so high that they significantly increase mortality. Patients in septic shock are diagnosed based on an occurrence
1) clinical symptoms of sepsis
2) hypotension requiring treatment with vasopressors to support MAP> 65 mmHg
Septic shock is defined as sepsis in which circulatory and cellular / metabolic disorders are so high that they significantly increase mortality. Patients in septic shock are diagnosed based on an occurrence
1) hypotension requiring treatment with vasopressin to support MAP> 85 mmHg and
2) serum lactate> 2.5mmol / L
Septic shock is defined as sepsis in which circulatory and cellular / metabolic disorders are so high that they significantly increase mortality. Patients in septic shock are diagnosed based on an occurrence
1) clinical symptoms of sepsis
2) persistent hypotension requiring treatment with vasopressors for maintenance
systolic pressures> 100mmHg and serum lactate> 2.5mmol / L

Explanation

Question 132 of 200

1

In the study of placebo effect the highest decrease of pain intensity was observed in:
a. Open (expected) injection of analgetic
b. Hidden (unexpected) injection of analgetic
c. No difference between both interventions
d. Hidden injection was effective in neuropathic pain only

Select one of the following:

A
B
C
D

Explanation

Question 133 of 200

1

What kind of treatment is not used in the postoperative pain theory:
a. Epidural blockade
b. Intrapleural blockade?
c. Spinal blockade
d. Neurolytic blockade

Select one of the following:

A
B
C
D

Explanation

Question 134 of 200

1

Which of the following agents is an inotrope?
a. Metoprolol
b. Milrinone
c. Diltiazem
d. Ramipril

Select one of the following:

A
B
C
D

Explanation

Question 135 of 200

1

1. The patient is admitted with cardiogenic shock and oliguric acute kidney injury. Hemodynamics reveal the following: BP 105/60 mmHg, sinus rhythm 108/min, CI 1.8 (CO 2.4), CVP 23 mmHg, PCWP 25 mmHg, SVRI 2088 (SVR 1566). The most appropriate management is administration of:
a. Captopril 6.5 mg q6h
b. Dobutamine at 5 mcg/kg/min
c. Metoprolol 25 mg BID
d. Dopamine at 2 mcg/kg/min

Select one of the following:

A
B
C
D

Explanation

Question 136 of 200

1

Clopidogrel is classified as an:
a. Inhibitor of platelets’ aggregation
b. Factor Xa inhibitor
c. Vit. K antagonist
d. Anti-hypertensive

Select one of the following:

A
B
C
D

Explanation

Question 137 of 200

1

Dabigatran (Pradaxa) is classified as an:
a. Factor Xa inhibitor
b. Direct thrombin inhibitor
c. Inhibitor of platelets’ aggregation
d. Vit. K antagonist - warfarin

Select one of the following:

A
B
C
D

Explanation

Question 138 of 200

1

Which of the following information is TRUE about naloxone?
a. Naloxone is a pure opioid antagonist that competitively binds to u-opioid receptors
b. Naloxone has a short duration of activity about 30 to 90 minutes
c. No tolerance or dependence is associated with naloxone use
d. All information are true

Select one of the following:

A
B
C
D

Explanation

Question 139 of 200

1

In the Sepsis Six algorithm of severe sepsis treatment, Step 1 is:
a. 1000 mL crystalloids infusion
b. 100% oxygen via mask
c. Intravenous antibiotics
d. Dopamine IV

Select one of the following:

A
B
C
D

Explanation

Question 140 of 200

1

A patient with a spinal abscess is admitted to the ICU in septic shock and requires pressors. Which of the following agents would be most efficacious for increasing cardiac output while increasing mean arterial pressure (MAP)?
a. Digoxin
b. Phenylephrine
c. Dopamine
d. Norepinephrine (Noradrenaline)

Select one of the following:

A
B
C
D

Explanation

Question 141 of 200

1

Atypical bacterial pathogens that are associated with community-acquired pneumonia (CAP) include:
a. Chlamydia pneumoniae
b. Haemophilus influenzae
c. Streptococcus pneumoniae
d. Moraxella catarrhalis

Select one of the following:

A
B
C
D

Explanation

Question 142 of 200

1

CVP monitoring:
a. Indicated hypovolemia when CVP is low
b. Allows assessment of preload of the heart
c. May not reflect left heart filling pressures in patients with COPD
d. All are true

Select one of the following:

A
B
C
D

Explanation

Question 143 of 200

1

Which ONE of the following statements about vasoactive drugs is FALSE:
a. Adrenaline (epinephrine) has alpha and beta receptor agonist activity
b. Noradrenaline (Norepinephrine) is a vasoconstrictor
c. Dopamine has a specific renal protective action in critical care patients at risk of renal failure
d. Dobutamine is a systemic and pulmonary vasodilator

Select one of the following:

A
B
C
D

Explanation

Question 144 of 200

1

Which ONE of the following statements about PCWP (PAOP) is TRUE:
a. Measurement involves passage of pulmonary artery catheter across the interarterial septum
b. Is typically raised in ARDS
c. Is typically raised in septic shock
d. Is a reflection of left atrial pressure

Select one of the following:

A
B
C
D

Explanation

Question 145 of 200

1

Quantitative measurement of cardiac output can be made using all methods except:
a. An esophageal Doppler probe
b. Thermodilution techniques
c. Mixed venous saturation (SvO2) and heart rate
d. The Fick principle

Select one of the following:

A
B
C
D

Explanation

Question 146 of 200

1

Which ONE of the following statements about cardiogenic shock is FALSE:
a. Is characterized by inability of the heart to maintain the circulation
b. Is characterized by a low systemic vascular resistance
c. Can be caused by papillary muscle rupture
d. Is characterized by low cardiac output

Select one of the following:

A
B
C
D

Explanation

Question 147 of 200

1

The following are risk factors for pulmonary embolism except:
a. Immobilization after surgery
b. Clinically suspected DVT
c. Malignancy
d. Heart LBBB

Select one of the following:

A
B
C
D

Explanation

Question 148 of 200

1

Factors influencing preload are all except:
a. Atrial contraction
b. Systemic vascular resistance
c. Heart valves diseases
d. Intrathoracic pressure

Select one of the following:

A
B
C
D

Explanation

Question 149 of 200

1

Positive end-expiratory pressure can contribute to:
a. Increase in systemic venous return
b. FRC increase (prevention of airway collapse)
c. Decrease in airway pressure
d. Increase in work of breathing

Select one of the following:

A
B
C
D

Explanation

Question 150 of 200

1

Infant CPR should be considered for what age?
a. Under 6 months
b. Under 12 months
c. Under 18 months
d. Under 24 months

Select one of the following:

A
B
C
D

Explanation

Question 151 of 200

1

1. Criteria regarding apnea testing during brain death examination requires:
a. Hypoxemia below a specified PaO2 must be achieved to assure that no CNS hypoxia-sensing centers are active
b. A specified degree or change in blood pH (acidemia)must be achieved to confirm medullary respiratory center inactivation
c. Arterial PaCO2 must reach or exceed a specified level above baseline

Select one of the following:

A
B
C

Explanation

Question 152 of 200

1

The diagnosis of brain death:
a. Is primarily clinical and no other tests are required if the full clinical examination, including each of two assessments of brain stem reflexes and apnea tests, is conclusively performed - (Glasgow Coma Scale of 3, lack of brainstem derived reflexes, apnea test)
b. Ancillary instrumental tests are needed only in patients in persistent vegetative state
c. Always needs confirmation by ancillary instrumental tests (EEG, evoked potentials, cerebral angiography, transcranial Doppler, perfusion scintigraphy)

Select one of the following:

A
B
C

Explanation

Question 153 of 200

1

These are circulatory criteria for death except:
a. Loss of consciousness
b. Apnea
c. Loss of pulse on big arteries (carotid, femoral)
d. Stiffness

Select one of the following:

A
B
C
D

Explanation

Question 154 of 200

1

These are criteria for brain death except:
a. Loss of consciousness
b. Loss of all neurological reflexes
c. Loss of brainstem reflexes
d. Loss of capacity to breathe

Select one of the following:

A
B
C
D

Explanation

Question 155 of 200

1

During diagnosis of brain death the following brainstem reflexes are examined except:
a. Nasocranial
b. Oculocephalic
c. Vestibulo-ocular
d. Corneal

Select one of the following:

A
B
C
D

Explanation

Question 156 of 200

1

Identify the formula for minute volume:
a. Tidal volume X respiratory rate
b. Cardiac output X respiratory rate
c. Forced vital capacity X respiratory rate
d. Functional residual capacity – tidal volume

Select one of the following:

A
B
C
D

Explanation

Question 157 of 200

1

Administration of an agonist for which of the following autonomic receptors would be expected to cause airway resistance to decrease?
a. Histaminic
b. Cholinergic
c. Alpha-adrenergic
d. Beta-adrenergic

Select one of the following:

A
B
C
D

Explanation

Question 158 of 200

1

Immediately following intubation, the patient has an end tidal CO2 reading of 1 mmHg. This finding is consistent with:
a. Pulmonary embolism
b. Right mainstem bronchus intubation
c. Esophageal intubation
d. Correct placement of endotracheal tube

Select one of the following:

A
B
C
D

Explanation

Question 159 of 200

1

What is the PRIMARY purpose of preoxygenation (denitrogenation) prior to anesthetic induction?
a. Improving matching of ventilation and perfusion
b. Increasing oxygen reserve in the functional residual capacity
c. Increasing contribution of second gas effect to rate of induction
d. Maximizing arterial oxygen content

Select one of the following:

A
B
C
D

Explanation

Question 160 of 200

1

Two hours after a laparoscopic cholecystectomy, and obese 45-year-old woman is receiving intravenous patient-controlled analgesia with morphine. Her SpO2 is 92% on room air. Which of the following is the most likely cause?
a. Absorption of carbon dioxide from the abdomen
b. Increased dead space
c. Impaired oxygen diffusion
d. Hypoventilation

Select one of the following:

A
B
C
X

Explanation

Question 161 of 200

1

Use of a laryngeal mask airway during general anesthesia is most appropriate for which of the following patients?
a. A patient undergoing cesarean delivery who cannot be intubated after induction of anesthesia
b. A patient who has trachoesophageal fistula
c. A patient who has a peak inspiratory pressure greater than 30 cmH2O
d. A patient who requires emergency appendectomy 2 hours after eating

Select one of the following:

A
B
C
D

Explanation

Question 162 of 200

1

A patient has received atropine 1% eye drops after eye surgery. How many milligrams of atropine are in one drop of a 1% solution? 1 mL = 20 drops.
a. 0.05 mg
b. 0.1 mg
c. 0.5 mg
d. 1 mg

Select one of the following:

A
B
C
D

Explanation

Question 163 of 200

1

Which ONE of the following statements about postintubation croup is FALSE:
a. Almost always appears within 3 doses after intubation
b. Is associated with repeated intubation attempts
c. Is associated with early childhood
d. The only effective treatment is urgent trachestomy

Select one of the following:

A
B
C
D

Explanation

Question 164 of 200

1

Which ONE of the following statements about pediatric patients is FALSE:
a. Fluid deficits in infants are usually replaced with 5% glucose
b. Infants respond to dehydration with decreased blood pressure but without tachycardia
c. The cardiac output of neonates and infants is dependent on heart rate, since stroke volume is relatively fixed
d. Postoperative hypothermia in pediatric patients is associated with delayed awakening and respiratory depression

Select one of the following:

A
B
C
D

Explanation

Question 165 of 200

1

Risk Factors for bronchial aspiration like oesophageal hiatus , diabetes with stomach atony, obesities , pregnancy :
a. are indications to RSI ( Rapid sequence induction )
b. are absolute contraindication to general anaesthesia
c. do not constitute major aesthetic problem , because some of them are physiology .
d. do not present a problem if the patient is fasting for six hours before anaesthesia .

Select one of the following:

A
B
C
D

Explanation

Question 166 of 200

1

intravascular volume changes , electrolyte disturbances , anaemia are typical problem for the patient with :
a. Diabetes
b. Liver failure
c. Chronic renal failure
d. Hyperthyrodism

Select one of the following:

A
B
C
D

Explanation

Question 167 of 200

1

calcium homeostasis malfunction in sarcoplasmic reticulum of skeletal muscle , related to some anaesthetic usage can lead to :
a. Propofol syndrome .
b. Malignant hyperthermia .
c. Pheochromocytoma .
d. Takotsubo cardiomyopathy .

Select one of the following:

A
B
C
D

Explanation

Question 168 of 200

1

Capnography is used as
1. an indicator of adequacy of ventilation .
2. disconnection indicator .
3. an indicator of correct placement of tracheal tube .
4. an indicator of cardiac output .
a. All answers are true .
b. 4 is false .
c. 2 and 4 are false .
d. 1 is true .

Select one of the following:

A
B
C
D

Explanation

Question 169 of 200

1

how many fluids should be infused in the first hour of treatment of septic shock in children :
a. fluids are not important for this kind of treatment
b. 10 ml/kg/h
c. 20 ml/kg/h
d. 10-20 ml/kg / 20 min ( up to 60 ml/kg/h)

Select one of the following:

A
B
C
D

Explanation

Question 170 of 200

1

Which kind of approach of epidural block can be used in children :
a. thoracic and lumbar
b. cervical , thoracic and lumbar
c. thoracic , lumbar and sacral
d. only sacral

Select one of the following:

A
B
C
D

Explanation

Question 171 of 200

1

Hemodynamically stable 70 kg , 40 year old man with adult respiratory distress syndrome is being mechanically ventilated with the following settings :
Tidal volume 500 ml , Respiratory rate 12/ min. FiO2 0.80 , I:E ratio 1:2 positive , end- expiratory pressure 5 cmH2O
Analysis of arterial blood gases shows PaO2 50 mmHG , PaCO2 40 mmHG , and pH 7,42 , Which of the following changes in ventilators settings is most appropriate :
a. increase FiO2
b. increase positive end-expiratory pressure
c. increase tidal volume
d. increase ventilatory rate

Select one of the following:

A
B
C
D

Explanation

Question 172 of 200

1

Vasoconstrictors decrease the rate of vascular absorption which allows more anaesthetic to reach the nerve membrane and improved the depth of anaesthesia :
a. 1:200000 ( dosage 5 µg/ml ) epinephrin appear to be the best vasoconstrictor .
b. 1:20000 ( dosage 5 µg/ml ) epinephrin appear to be the best vasoconstrictor .
c. 1:200000000( dosage 5 µg/ml ) epinephrin appear to be the best vasoconstrictor .
d. 1:200 ( dosage 5 µg/ml ) epinephrin appear to be the best vasoconstrictor .

Select one of the following:

A
B
C
D

Explanation

Question 173 of 200

1

Vascular disease, Asymptomatic myocardial ischemia , Neuropathic sensation disturbances, Gastric atony , Chronic renal failure is common problems in patient with
a. Thyroid disorder .
b. Adrenal cortical disease .
c. Diabetes .
d. Addison disease .

Select one of the following:

A
B
C
D

Explanation

Question 174 of 200

1

The aim of early goal directed therapy in severe septic shock is to reach urine output ( ml/kg/h) values :
a. > 0.1
b. > 0.5
c. > 1.0
d. > 2.0

Select one of the following:

A
B
C
D

Explanation

Question 175 of 200

1

The dosage of hydrocortisone for septic shock is :
a. 100-200 mg iv daily
b. 200-300 mg iv daily
c. 200-300 mg 3 x day
d. 2000-3000 mg daily

Select one of the following:

A
B
C
D

Explanation

Question 176 of 200

1

The false is the statement about positive end-expiratory pressure ( PEEP )
a. PEEP increases functional residual capacity .
b. Hepatic and renal blood flow is increased with higher levels of PEEP .
c. PEEP application increases intrathoracic pressure diminishing venous return to the right heart .
d. An observed increase in lung compliance suggest alveolar recruitment .

Select one of the following:

A
B
C
D

Explanation

Question 177 of 200

1

Effective methode to decrease an elevated PaCO2 may include all of the following Except :
a. increase tidal volume
b. increase frequency
c. decrease circuit dead space
d. increase PEEP

Select one of the following:

A
B
C
D

Explanation

Question 178 of 200

1

High central venous pressure , low blood pressure and acute circulatory failure are founding in following condition except :
a. Tension pneumothorax .
b. Pulmonary embolism .
c. Venous air embolism .
d. Haemorrhage .

Select one of the following:

A
B
C
D

Explanation

Question 179 of 200

1

Lung compliance is increased in :
a. The presence of intra-alveolar fluid .
b. ARDS .
c. Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis .
d. Emphysema .

Select one of the following:

A
B
C
D

Explanation

Question 180 of 200

1

1. Decreased ETCO2 can be noted in :
a. Hyperthermia .
b. Muscular activity .
c. Partial airway obstruction .
d. Hypoperfusion .

Select one of the following:

A
B
C
D

Explanation

Question 181 of 200

1

Sellick manuver during rapid sequence induction ( RSI ) is :
a. 3 - 5 min pre-oxygenation .
b. Anaesthetics and Succinylcholine ( ev . rocuronium ) iv. injection .
c. Cricoid pressure to occlude oesophagus .
d. Combitube insertion .

Select one of the following:

A
B
C
D

Explanation

Question 182 of 200

1

False is the sentence determining Sevoflurane properties :
a. Sevoflurane decreases intracranial pressure .
b. During the maintenance of anaesthesia increasing the concentration of the sevoflurane produce dose dependent decrease in blood pressure .
c. Sevoflurane produces more profund respiratory depression at high MAC .
d. The use may be a cause of malignant hyperthermia .

Select one of the following:

A
B
C
D

Explanation

Question 183 of 200

1

a patient with administrated epidural anaesthesia with 15 ml of 0.5% bupivacaine with adrenaline for hernia surgery , he developed hypotension and respiratory depression within 3 minutes after drug administration , the commonest cause would be :
a. Allergy to drug administrated .
b. Systemic toxicity to drug administrated .
c. Vasovagal shock .
d. Drug has entered subarachnoid space .

Select one of the following:

A
B
C
D

Explanation

Question 184 of 200

1

The false statement about propofol is :
a. Is suspended in an emulsion of soya bean oil .
b. Has a little effect on the cardiovascular system .
c. Impairs ventilatory response to CO2
d. Can give the pain during injection .

Select one of the following:

A
B
C
D

Explanation

Question 185 of 200

1

Concerning analgesic drugs :
a. Paracetamol is an anti-inflammatory drug .
b. Paracetamol cause gastric irritation
c. Metamizol can cause agranulocytosis .
d. Tramadol has anti-emetic properties

Select one of the following:

A
B
C
D

Explanation

Question 186 of 200

1

Drugs given to epidural space include all except :
a. Clonidine
b. ketamine
c. Sufentantil
d. Norepinephrine

Select one of the following:

A
B
C
D

Explanation

Question 187 of 200

1

Which of anaesthetic gas can be used for induction of anaesthesia :
a. Desflurane
b. Isoflurane
c. Sevoflurane
d. Nitric oxide

Select one of the following:

A
B
C
D

Explanation

Question 188 of 200

1

1. A lung-protective ventilation strategies includes:
A. High positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP)
B. Use of volume-controlled ventilation (VCV), which achieves a lower peak airway pressure than pressure-controlled ventilation (PCV) for the same tidal volume
C. A large (10-12 ml/kg) tidal volume to avoid atelectasis
D. Maintenance of strict PaCO2 control to avoid acidosis

Select one of the following:

A
B
C
D

Explanation

Question 189 of 200

1

1. What is the main reason of insertion of central line in children :
a. taking sample of blood for daily analysis
b. the need for parenteral nutrition
c. the measurement of hemodynamic parameters
d. ALL OF ABOVE

Select one of the following:

A
B
C
D

Explanation

Question 190 of 200

1

Opioids :
a. Are contraindicated during regional anaesthesia
b. May cause Apnea
c. Increase the frequency of heart contraction
d. Do have anaesthetic , but not analgesic properties

Select one of the following:

A
B
C
D

Explanation

Question 191 of 200

1

60 year old man , scheduled for CABG surgery , with the symptoms of unstable coronary artery disease , arterial pressure of 140/80 and well controlled diabetes on oral medications , has the risk of anaesthesia in ASA score :
a. ASA 2
b. ASA 3
c. ASA 4
d. ASA 5

Select one of the following:

A
B
C
D

Explanation

Question 192 of 200

1

Which one of the following is most likely to be associated with a high mixed venous oxygen saturation SvO2 :
a. Acute myocardial infarction
b. Acute pulmonary embolism
c. Cardiac temponade
d. Sepsis

Select one of the following:

A
B
C
D

Explanation

Question 193 of 200

1

The agent of reversal of neuromuscular blockade is :
a. dantrolen
b. levosimendan
c. sugammadex
d. nimbex

Select one of the following:

A
B
C
D

Explanation

Question 194 of 200

1

Rank the various Opioids according to their duration action from the longest to the shortest :
a. alfentanil , fentanil , remifentanil , morphine
b. morphine , alfentanil , fentanil , remifentanil
c. morphine , alfentanil , remifentanil , fentanil
d. morphine , fentanil , alfentanil , remifentanil

Select one of the following:

A
B
C
D

Explanation

Question 195 of 200

1

Cardiac arrhythmia is frequent manifestation of hypokalemia , which of the following does not cause hypokalemia :
a. metabolic acidosis
b. magnesium deficit
c. diarrhoea
d. furosemide

Select one of the following:

A
B
C
D

Explanation

Question 196 of 200

1

Factor increasing ETCO2 is :
a. Sepsis
b. exogenous CO2 absorption ( laparoscopy )
c. i.v bicarbonate administration ( transient )
d. all above

Select one of the following:

A
B
C
D

Explanation

Question 197 of 200

1

Indication for giving calcium during CPR ( adults ) are :
(a) hyperkalemia
(b) hypokalemia
(c) hypercalcaemia
(d) overdose of calcium channel-blocking drugs

a. a , b , c ,d
b. a , b , c
c. a , b , d
d. a , d

Select one of the following:

A
B
C
D

Explanation

Question 198 of 200

1

In the sepsis six algorithm of severe sepsis treatment step 3 is :
a. hydrocortisone 300 mg i.v
b. epinephrine 1 mg i.v
c. intravenous antibiotics within the first hour
d. 500 ml of colliods infusion

Select one of the following:

A
B
C
D

Explanation

Question 199 of 200

1

In the sepsis six algorithm of severe sepsis treatment step 6 is :
a. central venous catheterization and CVP monitoring
b. urine output monitoring
c. checking lactate level
d. checking pulseoxymetry

Select one of the following:

A
B
C
D

Explanation

Question 200 of 200

1

the pulmonary artery wedge pressure ( PAWP ) may be used as surrogate of the left atrial pressure and therefore , LVEDP :
a. both parts in the sentence are true
b. both parts in the sentence are false
c. first part of the sentence is true and second is false
d. first part of the sentence is false and second is true

Select one of the following:

A
B
C
D

	Created by Adnan Javed over 5 years ago

Anesthesiology Quiz on Anesthesiology 2019 Exam (NOTHING 2015 ONWARDS), created by Adnan Javed on 31/01/2019.

Anesthesiology 2019 Exam (NOTHING 2015 ONWARDS)

Question 1 of 200

The canogram below is a sign that your patient has just had:

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 2 of 200

The leading cause of cardiac arrest in children is:

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 3 of 200

The leading cause of cardiac arrest in adults is

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 4 of 200

Brain stem reflexes include:

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 5 of 200

Which of the following investigations is the most important to perform immediately after hospital admission in a patient with clinical signs of stroke?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 6 of 200

Acute Kidney injuryt is associated with

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 7 of 200

The typical pattern of hyperdynamic septic shock is

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 8 of 200

Which equation describes Cardiac output (CO)

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 9 of 200

ARDS is characterized by all except:

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 10 of 200

Early phase septic shock is characterized by

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 11 of 200

The initial MAP target values for the treatment of shock should be:

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 12 of 200

Risk of misdiagnosis of brain death according to circulatory criteria is possible in circumstances EXCEPT:

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 13 of 200

Gold standard for the diagnosis of death using confirmatory investigation is:

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 14 of 200

Calculate cerebral perfusion pressure (CPP) based on the following data: HR 75, BP 120/80 (MAP 65), CVP 15, ICP 15, Respiratory rate 25, Minute volume 10 l/min

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 15 of 200

Categories of ARDS:

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 16 of 200

Noninvasive mechanical ventilation (NIV) can be considered in patient:

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 17 of 200

65-year-old man with acute STEMI MI undergoes emergent cardiac catherization followed by PCI. A pulmonary artery cathartic is inserted for hemodynamic monitoring. Which of the following hemodynamic subsets satisfies the criteria for cardiogenic shock in this patient?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 18 of 200

Which is the TRUE STATEMENT about insulin therapy in septic patient.

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 19 of 200

Vasopressors during septic shock resuscitation

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 20 of 200

Beside score – quick SOFA (qSOFA) includes the indicators described below with THE EXCEPTION of:

How to do assess ASA classification in the following patients?
I – 34 years old man with good control of diabetes mellitus
II – 86 years old with hypertension without treatment and creatinine level 1.2 mg/dL
III – 45 year old man with the diagnosis of brain death