Dean Lampman
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Wastewater Public Utilities Quiz on Advanced Wastewater Study Guide, created by Dean Lampman on 01/03/2019.

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Advanced Wastewater Study Guide

Question 1 of 200

1

What does it mean when a belt filter press is washing out?

Select one of the following:

  • Water is overrunning the sides of the belt

  • Sludge is squeezing out from between the belt

  • The unit is being cleaned

  • The effluent line is clogged

Explanation

Question 2 of 200

1

In the five-stage bardenpho process, what occurs after the microorganisms pass from the first anoxic zone into the first aeration basin?

Select one of the following:

  • WAS is pumped from the aeration basin back to the head of the plant

  • A percentage of the mixed liquor is returned to the first anoxic zone

  • All of the mixed liquor passes directly into the second anoxic zone

  • All of the mixed liquor passes directly into the secondary clarifier

Explanation

Question 3 of 200

1

What kind of problems arise in the clarifier when the sludge is overstabilized?

Select one of the following:

  • Sludge settles too slowly and is hard to keep in the clarifier

  • Sludge settles too quickly causing high effluent turbidity due to pin floc

  • Sludge settles too slowly and may turn septic in the return sludge system

Explanation

Question 4 of 200

1

First stage BOD is also known by what term?

Select one of the following:

  • Nitrogenous BOD

  • Carbonaceous BOD

  • Metabolic BOD

  • Oxidation

Explanation

Question 5 of 200

1

What term is used to describe the liquid that leaves a centrifugal thickener through the effluent line?

Select one of the following:

  • Concentrate

  • Elutriation

  • Centrate

  • Precipitate

Explanation

Question 6 of 200

1

Why are primary clarifiers not very effective for removing BOD?

Select one of the following:

  • Most BOD is soluble and cannot be removed by sedimentation

  • Most BOD is insoluble, but not heavy enough to settle

  • Primary clarifiers cannot handle high organic loads

  • None of these answers

Explanation

Question 7 of 200

1

When denitrification is occurring, the microorganisms use methanol as a carbon food source. Where do they obtain the oxygen necessary to metabolize the methanol when there is no free oxygen present?

Select one of the following:

  • The microorganisms do not need oxygen to metabolize

  • From the nitrate ion

  • From the ammonia-nitrogen

  • From the gaseous nitrogen

Explanation

Question 8 of 200

1

Which modification of the activated sludge process is best suited for nitrification?

Select one of the following:

  • Complete mix

  • Extended Aeration

  • Step Feed

  • Contact Stabilization

Explanation

Question 9 of 200

1

Microorganisms that are in an anaerobic environment are then transferred to a proper environment containing food and oxygen where they take in excess amounts of phosphorus. What is this intake of excess phosphorus called?

Select one of the following:

  • Endogenous respiration

  • Luxury uptake

  • Anaerobic respiration

  • Absorption

Explanation

Question 10 of 200

1

What is the term used for water that is contained within the cell mass of sludge?

Select one of the following:

  • Bound water

  • Hard water

  • Molecular Water

  • Free Water

Explanation

Question 11 of 200

1

Which of the following has an ammonia odor?

Select one of the following:

  • Mercaptans

  • Indole

  • Skatole

  • Hydrogen Sulfide

Explanation

Question 12 of 200

1

What can be said about belt speed in a gravity belt filter thickener?

Select one of the following:

  • A. As belt speeds increases, the belt area in contact with the influent sludge increases

  • B. As belt speed increases, the belt area in contact with the influent sludge decreases

  • C. Belt speed should be as slow as possible without washing out the belt

  • Both A and C

Explanation

Question 13 of 200

1

In what order are the basins arranged in the five-stage Bardenpho process?

Select one of the following:

  • Anaerobic, anoxic, aeration, anoxic, aeration

  • Anoxic, anaerobic, aeration, anoxic, aeration

  • Aeration, anoxic, anaerobic, aeration, anoxic

  • Aeration, anaerobic, anoxic, aeration, anoxic

Explanation

Question 14 of 200

1

What type of thickener would work best when treating primary sludge?

Select one of the following:

  • Centrifuge

  • Gravity

  • Flotation

  • All of the above

Explanation

Question 15 of 200

1

Where should screen be located?

Select one of the following:

  • As close as possible to where the waste is being produced

  • As far as possible from where the sludge is being produced

  • As close to the plant influent as possible

  • At the aerator influent

Explanation

Question 16 of 200

1

When calculating how much activated sludge is being wasted, what must always be accounted for?

Select one of the following:

  • Solids lost in effluent

  • Solids in influent

  • DO in Aerator

  • Solids lost in effluent and solids in influent

Explanation

Question 17 of 200

1

What effect would increasing the return sludge aeration time have on the SVI?

Select one of the following:

  • Decrease

  • Increase

  • No change

  • Increase then decrease

Explanation

Question 18 of 200

1

When chlorine is added to water containing ammonia, the ammonia reacts with the hypochlorous acid and forms:

Select one of the following:

  • Nitrogen gas

  • Alkalinity

  • Chloramines

  • Nitrates

Explanation

Question 19 of 200

1

If air input to the aerator has not been increased and there is a significant increase in DO residual, what does this indicate and which process control adjustment should be made?

Select one of the following:

  • Increased MLVSS/increase wasting and increase RAS

  • Toxic shock load/increase wasting and decrease RAS

  • Toxic shock load/increase wasting and increase RAS

  • Increased MLVSS/decrease wasting and decrease RAS

Explanation

Question 20 of 200

1

How deep should sludge be when using a sand drying bed?

Select one of the following:

  • 6-12 inches

  • 1-3 inches

  • 12-18 inches

  • 2-4 feet

Explanation

Question 21 of 200

1

When wastewater has a pH on the low side of 6.5, what property will the wastewater's solid particles have?

Select one of the following:

  • High settleability

  • Low settleability

  • Negative ionic charges

  • Positive ionic charges

Explanation

Question 22 of 200

1

What may be added to wastewater when nutrient levels are too low to support the microorganisms?

Select one of the following:

  • Nitrogen and phosphorus

  • Ammonia and phosphoric acid

  • Sodium acetate

  • All of these

Explanation

Question 23 of 200

1

If the pH of wastewater drops low enough to inhibit nitrification, what has occurred and what should be done to fix the problem?

Select one of the following:

  • Too much alkalinity / Recarbonate to achieve proper pH

  • Not enough alkalinity / Add lime to achieve proper pH

  • Low DO / Increase air rate

  • High DO / Decrease air rate

Explanation

Question 24 of 200

1

At what DO would sulfate be reduced to sulfide?

Select one of the following:

  • 0 mg/L

  • 1.0 mg/l

  • 2.0 mg/l

  • >2.0 mg/l

Explanation

Question 25 of 200

1

While operating a vacuum filter, the operator finds that the sludge cakes are too wet. What would be the best course of action?

Select one of the following:

  • Decrease vacuum

  • Decrease chemical conditioning

  • Decrease influent flow

  • Decrease drum speed

Explanation

Question 26 of 200

1

What conditions can cause forming?

Select one of the following:

  • High MCRT values

  • High MLSS

  • High concentration of filaments

  • All of these

Explanation

Question 27 of 200

1

The DO should be kept at _______ in the first anaerobic and anoxic zones when using the Bardenpho process?

Select one of the following:

  • 2.0 mg/l

  • 1.5 mg/l

  • 0.5 mg/l

  • 0 mg/l

Explanation

Question 28 of 200

1

When treating high organic loads, what process control adjustment should be made?

Select one of the following:

  • Decrease RAS

  • Increase RAS

  • Increase wasting

  • Decrease DO

Explanation

Question 29 of 200

1

What can cause belt blinding when operating a belt filter press?

Select one of the following:

  • Polymer undressing

  • Polymer overdosing

  • Loose belts

  • Belt speed too high

Explanation

Question 30 of 200

1

Why is the amount of food available to the microorganisms allowed to decrease during aerobic digestion?

Select one of the following:

  • To cause denitrification

  • To cause nitrification

  • To encourage endogenous respiration

  • To decrease turbidity

Explanation

Question 31 of 200

1

Why must special care be taken to avoid agitation of the wastewater during the denitrification process?

Select one of the following:

  • To avoid allowing free oxygen to enter the wastewater

  • To maintain aerobic conditions

  • To avoid disturbing the microorganisms

  • To decrease turbiditiy

Explanation

Question 32 of 200

1

Organisms that can only use molecular oxygen are called?

Select one of the following:

  • Anaerobes

  • Facultative

  • Obligate aerobes

  • Strict anaerobes

Explanation

Question 33 of 200

1

When is produced during nitrification that may reduce buffering capacity of the alkalinity and cause a subsequent lowering of the pH?

Select one of the following:

  • Hydrogen ions

  • Hydroxyl ions

  • Carbon dioxide

  • Acid

Explanation

Question 34 of 200

1

What term describes organisms that use inorganic materials for energy and growth?

Select one of the following:

  • Heterotrophic

  • Eutrophic

  • Autotrophic

  • Anaerobes

Explanation

Question 35 of 200

1

Emergency basins and storage tanks should be kept:

Select one of the following:

  • Full at all times

  • Filled half way

  • Empty or almost empty

  • Full during high flows

Explanation

Question 36 of 200

1

What may be indicated by a low respiration rate value?

Select one of the following:

  • Low F/M ration

  • High MLVSS

  • Short MCRT

  • Low F/M Ratio and High MLVSS

Explanation

Question 37 of 200

1

How much chlorine is required to oxidize 1 mg/L of ammonia-nitrogen to nitrogen gas?

Select one of the following:

  • 4 mg/L

  • 10 mg/L

  • 12 mg/L

  • 14 mg/L

Explanation

Question 38 of 200

1

Why does pH increase in most aeration systems?

Select one of the following:

  • Alkalinity is increased

  • Carbon dioxide is stripped from the wastewater

  • Microorganism activity increases

  • DO is increased

Explanation

Question 39 of 200

1

What chemical may be used to increase DO when mechanical aeration is insufficient?

Select one of the following:

  • Ammonia

  • Phosphorus

  • Nitrogen

  • Hydrogen peroxide

Explanation

Question 40 of 200

1

What kind of problems may arise in the clarifier when sludge is understabilized?

Select one of the following:

  • Sludge settles too slowly and is hard to keep in the clarifier

  • Sludge settles too quickly causing high effluent turbidity due to pin flocs

  • Sludge settles too slowly and may turn septic in the return sludge system

  • Sludge settles too slowly and is hard to keep in the clarifier and Sludge settles too slowly and may turn septic in the return sludge system

Explanation

Question 41 of 200

1

If a drop in pH occurs in an aerobic digester due to nitrification, what process control adjustment can be made to supress the growth of nitrifying bacteria?

Select one of the following:

  • Increase air rate and detention time

  • Decrease air rate and detention time

  • Decrease influent flow and increase detention time

  • Increase influent flow and air rate

Explanation

Question 42 of 200

1

If ammonia-nitrogen levels are too high, what process control adjustments can be made to correct this?

Select one of the following:

  • Decrease DO

  • Decrease MCRT

  • Increase DO

  • Increase WAS

Explanation

Question 43 of 200

1

For every milligram of ammonia - nitrogen converted to nitrate - nitrogen, how much alkalinity is consumed?

Select one of the following:

  • 7.1 mg as CaCO3

  • 4.5 mg as CaCO3

  • 4.0 mg as CaCO3

  • 2.5 mg as CaCO3

Explanation

Question 44 of 200

1

At which temperature would the generation of H2S form?

Select one of the following:

  • < 40° F

  • 65° F

  • 75° F

  • > 85° F

Explanation

Question 45 of 200

1

At which pH is all sulfide present only in the gaseous H2S form?

Select one of the following:

  • > 9

  • 8.3

  • 7.5

  • 4.5

Explanation

Question 46 of 200

1

When sludge becomes too thick it may become resistant to pumping and cause:

Select one of the following:

  • Bound water

  • Coning

  • Bulking

  • Pin Floc

Explanation

Question 47 of 200

1

What chemicals can be used to condition sludge for dewatering?

Select one of the following:

  • Ferric chloride

  • Polymer

  • Lime

  • All of these

Explanation

Question 48 of 200

1

What is a selector?

Select one of the following:

  • A device used to divert wastewater to various tanks

  • A valve that regulates that flow of influent to the clarifier

  • A computerized system that automatically controls the distribution of influent

  • Compartments within a reactor that each favor the growth of certain organisms over others

Explanation

Question 49 of 200

1

What is the term for the process of removing odors by absorption?

Select one of the following:

  • Stripping

  • Scrubbing

  • Sponging

  • Scouring

Explanation

Question 50 of 200

1

How does thermal sludge conditioning aid in dewatering?

Select one of the following:

  • By precipitating the sludge

  • By release bound water

  • By destroying microorganisms

  • By floating the sludge

Explanation

Question 51 of 200

1

Where is the BEST point of application when breakpoint chlorination for nitrogen removal?

Select one of the following:

  • After the filters

  • Between the secondary clarifiers and filters

  • At the plant influent

  • In the aeration basin

Explanation

Question 52 of 200

1

What is one probable cause of low OUR values?

Select one of the following:

  • High F/M ratio

  • Low MCRT

  • Toxic shock load

  • Young sludge

Explanation

Question 53 of 200

1

What is the recommended level of DO for proper nitrification?

Select one of the following:

  • 0.5 mg/L - 1.0 mg/L

  • 1.0 mg/L - 1.5 mg/L

  • 1.5 mg/L - 2.0 mg/L

  • 2.0 mg/L - 4.0 mg/L

Explanation

Question 54 of 200

1

What is the best way to remove limestone buildup in pipes and pumps?

Select one of the following:

  • Acid

  • Hot water

  • Caustic soda

  • Alum

Explanation

Question 55 of 200

1

What is the typical DO range in pure oxygen system?

Select one of the following:

  • 4-10 mg/L

  • 1-5 mg/L

  • 2-4 mg/L

  • 1-10 mg/L

Explanation

Question 56 of 200

1

What is substrate

Select one of the following:

  • A chemical used by an organism to support its growth

  • The effluent from a centrifuge

  • A clear liquid left over after sludge is dewatered

  • A type of sludge residual

Explanation

Question 57 of 200

1

In the 5 stage Bardenpho process, what occurs in the first stage?

Select one of the following:

  • Microorganisms enter the aeration basin where they take in large amounts of phosphorus

  • Microorganisms enter the first anoxic zone where they begin denitrification

  • Microorganisms enter the anaerobic zone where they release their phosphorus

  • Microorganisms enter the first anoxic zone where they release their phosphorus

Explanation

Question 58 of 200

1

What happens when pressurized air saturated liquid is released at atmospheric pressure during flotation sludge thickening?

Select one of the following:

  • Sludge floats to the surface

  • Sludge settles

  • Denitrification

  • Nitrification

Explanation

Question 59 of 200

1

Which microorganisms may predominate when nitrogen and phosphorus levels are low?

Select one of the following:

  • Filamentous

  • Ciliates

  • Amoebas

  • Rotifers

Explanation

Question 60 of 200

1

Which microorganisms can cause bulking and foaming?

Select one of the following:

  • Filamentous

  • Rotifers

  • Ciliates

  • Protozoa

Explanation

Question 61 of 200

1

Polymers that have a positive charge are called?

Select one of the following:

  • Cationic

  • Anionic

  • Nonionic

  • Polyionic

Explanation

Question 62 of 200

1

What is the optimal pH when using alum to remove phosphorus?

Select one of the following:

  • 6.0

  • 8.0

  • 10.0

  • 11.0

Explanation

Question 63 of 200

1

The difference in pressure above and below the media of a gravity filter is called?

Select one of the following:

  • Head loss

  • Pressure differential

  • Flow rate

  • Concentration polarization

Explanation

Question 64 of 200

1

What term describes the condition where an oxygen deficient condition exists, but chemically bound oxygen such as nitrate is present?

Select one of the following:

  • Anaerobic

  • Aerobic

  • Anoxic

  • Endogenous

Explanation

Question 65 of 200

1

What is an indication of alum sulfate (Alum) overdosing?

Select one of the following:

  • Low pH

  • Cloudiness caused by high turbidity and suspended solids

  • High pH accompanied by pin floc

  • Low pH and cloudiness caused by high turbidity and suspended solids

Explanation

Question 66 of 200

1

Approximately how many pounds of oxygen are required to nitrify one pound of ammonia-nitrogen?

Select one of the following:

  • 2.5 lbs

  • 3.7 lbs

  • 4.6 lbs

  • 5.0 lbs

Explanation

Question 67 of 200

1

What is the proper term for the substance that may form in digested sludge lines and on the rotating components of centrifuges?

Select one of the following:

  • Centrate

  • Concentrate

  • Struvite

  • Precipitate

Explanation

Question 68 of 200

1

How deep should the sludge blanket be in gravity thickener?

Select one of the following:

  • 1-3 ft

  • 2-5 ft

  • 3-4 ft

  • 5-8 ft

Explanation

Question 69 of 200

1

Which microorganisms prefer lower pH levels around 6.0?

Select one of the following:

  • Phosphorus removal microorganisms

  • Volatile fatty acid removal microorganisms

  • Nitrifiers

  • Phosphorus removal microorganisms and nitrifiers

Explanation

Question 70 of 200

1

What is the lowest concentration of hydrogen sulfide that can be detected by the human nose?

Select one of the following:

  • 1.0 ppb

  • 0.5 ppb

  • 1.5 ppb

  • 2.0 ppb

Explanation

Question 71 of 200

1

High respiration rate values may indication?

Select one of the following:

  • Understabilzed organic matter

  • Overstabilzed organic matter

  • Low MLVSS

  • Low F/M ration

Explanation

Question 72 of 200

1

Which of the following is biodegradable and easily treated?

Select one of the following:

  • Emulsified oils & greases of vegetables and animal origin

  • Oils & greases of mineral origin

  • Heavy metals

  • H2S

Explanation

Question 73 of 200

1

Which of the following may be caused by excessive wasting?

Select one of the following:

  • High MLVSS

  • High MCRT

  • Low F/M ratio

  • High F/M ratio

Explanation

Question 74 of 200

1

Where is the best place to add chlorine when using it to control odors?

Select one of the following:

  • In the collection system ahead of the plant

  • In the primary clarifier

  • In the aerator

  • In the plant effluent

Explanation

Question 75 of 200

1

What process control adjustment should be made when there are a large number of amoeboids and flagellates present?

Select one of the following:

  • Increase wasting

  • Decrease wasting

  • Increase MCRT

  • Decrease DO

Explanation

Question 76 of 200

1

Organisms that can only use bound sources of oxygen are known by what term?

Select one of the following:

  • Obligate aerobes

  • Facultative

  • Anaerobic

Explanation

Question 77 of 200

1

Wasting is done from the RAS and the volatile content in the aerator changes. If the volatile content of the RAS is increasing, what adjustment should be made to the WAS flow rate?

Select one of the following:

  • No change

  • Increase

  • Decrease

  • Stop all wasting

Explanation

Question 78 of 200

1

What is the order in which microorganisms break down compounds containing oxygen?

Select one of the following:

  • Carbon dioxide, molecular oxygen, nitrate, sulfate, oxidized organics

  • Molecular oxygen, oxidized organics, carbon dioxide, nitrate, sulfate

  • Molecular oxygen, nitrate, sulfate, oxidized organics, carbon dioxide

  • Nitrate, molecular oxygen, sulfate, oxidized organics, carbon dioxide

Explanation

Question 79 of 200

1

Wasting is done from the RAS, and the volatile content in the aerator remains constant. If the volatile content of the RAS is decreasing, what should be done to the WAS flow rate?

Select one of the following:

  • No change

  • Increase

  • Decrease

  • Stop all wasting

Explanation

Question 80 of 200

1

Which is an organic gas that has an offensive skunk-like odor?

Select one of the following:

  • Mercaptans

  • Indole

  • Skatole

  • H2S

Explanation

Question 81 of 200

1

When is the best time to measure the sludge blanket depth in a clarifier?

Select one of the following:

  • During minimal flows

  • During maximum flows

  • At night when it's cool

  • Any time

Explanation

Question 82 of 200

1

What is the minimum DO that must be present in order for obligate aerobes to function properly?

Select one of the following:

  • 0.5 mg/L

  • 1.0 mg/L

  • 1.5 mg/L

  • 2.0 mg/L

Explanation

Question 83 of 200

1

When using a belt filter press to dewater sludge, water is forced between the belts and:

Select one of the following:

  • Pumped to the effluent line

  • Pumped with the RAS

  • Collected in filtrate trays

  • Allowed to evaporate

Explanation

Question 84 of 200

1

What are some of the properties of alum?

Select one of the following:

  • It reduces alkalinity and supports bacterial growth

  • It is very acidic

  • It increases alkalinity and pH

  • It reduces alkalinity and supports bacterial growth and it is very acidic

Explanation

Question 85 of 200

1

If the nitrate level in the effluent of the first anoxic basin during the 4 stage Bardenpho process is too high, what process control adjustment should be made?

Select one of the following:

  • Increase influent flow rate

  • Increase recycle rate

  • Increase air rate

  • Decrease recycle rate

Explanation

Question 86 of 200

1

What type of microorganism accomplishes denitrification by converting nitrate to nitrogen gas?

Select one of the following:

  • Autotrophic

  • Heterotropic

  • Eutropic

  • Thermotropic

Explanation

Question 87 of 200

1

Why do pH levels drop during nitrification

Select one of the following:

  • Acid formers predominate

  • Nitrate is acidic in nature

  • Alkalinity is destroyed

  • High sludge age

Explanation

Question 88 of 200

1

Why must pH of water be raised to between 10.8 and 11.5 during ammonia stripping?

Select one of the following:

  • To reduce microorganism population

  • So that all of the ammonia ion is converted to ammonia gas

  • To strengthen the buffering capacity

  • For odor control

Explanation

Question 89 of 200

1

When using odor removal towers to control odors, the pH of the wastewater being treated should not drop below:

Select one of the following:

  • 10.0

  • 8.0

  • 7.0

  • 6.0

Explanation

Question 90 of 200

1

What is the desired water column pressure in pure oxygen system?

Select one of the following:

  • 4"-6"

  • 2"-8"

  • 3"-10"

  • 1"-4"

Explanation

Question 91 of 200

1

What may be indicated by a high residual DO and low oxygen uptake rate in an anaerobic digester?

Select one of the following:

  • Toxic substances are present

  • Low pH

  • Low detention times

  • Toxic substances are present, Low pH, and Low detention times

Explanation

Question 92 of 200

1

How can lime be recovered for reuse?

Select one of the following:

  • Gravity belt press

  • Flocculation

  • Centrifuges

  • Floatation

Explanation

Question 93 of 200

1

What are nitrosomonas and nitrobacter?

Select one of the following:

  • Heterotophs that metabolize organic substances such as nitrate

  • Microorganisms that predominate in young sludge

  • Autotrophs that metabolize inorganic substances such as carbon dioxide and bicarbonate alkalinty

  • Two forms of nitrogen

Explanation

Question 94 of 200

1

What may be indicated by a high chlorine demand in the plant effluent when the plant requires nitrification?

Select one of the following:

  • Elevated nitrate levels

  • An imbalance of nitrobacter and nitrosomonas polulations

  • High pH levels

  • Elevated nitrate levels and an imbalance of nitrobacter and nitrosomonas polulations

Explanation

Question 95 of 200

1

When using the MCRT to determine process control adjustments, how long should you wait before making further changes if the desired MCRT is seven days?

Select one of the following:

  • 3 days

  • 10 days

  • 2 to 3 weeks

  • 4 to 6 weeks

Explanation

Question 96 of 200

1

What should an operator do when a high organic waste load enters the plant?

Select one of the following:

  • Decrease RAS flows and air input

  • Decrease WAS flow and air input

  • Increase RAS flow and air input

  • Increase WAS flow and air input

Explanation

Question 97 of 200

1

At what pH will carbon dioxide be stripped from water?

Select one of the following:

  • 8.0

  • 9.0

  • 10.0

  • 11.0

Explanation

Question 98 of 200

1

What is the recommended ratio of BOD: Nitrogen:Phosphorus (B:N:P) required for a treatment process?

Select one of the following:

  • 100:5:1

  • 100:50:10

  • 10:5:1

  • 100:20:10

Explanation

Question 99 of 200

1

What process control adjustments should be made when greater nitrification is required?

Select one of the following:

  • Increase MCRT

  • Decrease sludge age

  • Decrease pH

  • Decrease MCRT

Explanation

Question 100 of 200

1

When removing odors using the electrolytic process, electrons convert the salt in the brine to:

Select one of the following:

  • Chlorine

  • Calcium carbonate

  • Sodium hypochlorite

  • Calcium hypochlorite

Explanation

Question 101 of 200

1

How deep should the sludge blanket be in the clarifier when using the activated sludge process?

Select one of the following:

  • 0.5 - 1 ft

  • 3 - 5 ft

  • 1 -3 ft

  • > 5 ft

Explanation

Question 102 of 200

1

Which modification of the activated sludge process uses two aeration tanks in which one of the tanks is used for seperate reaeration of the return sludge?

Select one of the following:

  • Extended aeration

  • Step feed aeration

  • Contact stabilization

  • Pure oxygen aeration

Explanation

Question 103 of 200

1

The use of metal salts for optimum enhanced chemical phosphorus removal is highly dependent on pH. Therefore, where is the optimum point for application of metal salts?

Select one of the following:

  • After denitrification when alkalinity levels are highest

  • Before denitrification because of the gain in alkalinity that occurs during anoxic reduction of nitrate-nitrogen

  • After nitrification because of the alkalinity depletion during the nitrification process

  • Before denitrification because of the gain in alkalinity that occurs during anoxic reduction of nitrate-nitrogen and after nitrification because of the alkalinity depletion during the nitrification process

Explanation

Question 104 of 200

1

For every pound of organic matter used by bacteria cells, approximately how many pounds of new bacteria cells are produced?

Select one of the following:

  • 2.5 lbs

  • 1.5 lbs

  • 0.5 lbs

  • > 2.5 lbs

Explanation

Question 105 of 200

1

What is a common problem associated with ammonia stripping?

Select one of the following:

  • Scale buildup on pipes and pumps

  • Strong odors

  • Increased pH

  • Microorganisms are destroyed

Explanation

Question 106 of 200

1

What condition must exist for proper nitrification?

Select one of the following:

  • Low BOD

  • Available oxygen

  • A detention time of at least 4 hours

  • Low BOD, Available oxygen, and A detention time of at least 4 hours

Explanation

Question 107 of 200

1

What percent of oxygen is present in air?

Select one of the following:

  • 20.9%

  • 22%

  • 23.5%

  • 19.6%

Explanation

Question 108 of 200

1

Odors can be controlled by ________ the pH

Select one of the following:

  • Raising then lowering

  • Lowering

  • Lowering then raising

  • Raising

Explanation

Question 109 of 200

1

What process control adjustment can be made to minimize denitrification in a clarifier?

Select one of the following:

  • Decrease RAS

  • Decrease WAS

  • Increase RAS

  • Increase DO

Explanation

Question 110 of 200

1

Why is the COD test not recommended for wastewater's containing high salt concentrations?

Select one of the following:

  • Algae may interfere with the test

  • Brine contains high organic levels

  • Chloride may interfere with the chemical reactions

  • Salt has no effect on COD tests

Explanation

Question 111 of 200

1

If cake solids that are produced by a gravity belt thickener are too wet, what adjustments should be made?

Select one of the following:

  • Decrease belt speed and or increase belt tension

  • Increase belt speed and or decrease belt tension

  • Increase belt speed and or increase belt tension

  • Decrease belt speed and or decrease belt tension

Explanation

Question 112 of 200

1

For every pound of ammonia-nitrogen that is oxidized during nitrification, how many pounds of alkalinity are destroyed?

Select one of the following:

  • 4.6 lbs

  • 7.2 lbs

  • 8.3 lbs

  • 10.0 lbs

Explanation

Question 113 of 200

1

Why must sludge be removed from a gravity thickener at a faster rate during warmer temperatures?

Select one of the following:

  • To prevent denitrification

  • To prevent sludge from rising

  • To prevent incomplete nitrification

  • To prevent denitrification and to prevent sludge from rising

Explanation

Question 114 of 200

1

Which of the following is the easiest to dewater?

Select one of the following:

  • Primary sludge

  • Secondary sludge

  • Digester sludge

  • Waste activated sludge

Explanation

Question 115 of 200

1

After microorganisms take in and store large amounts of phosphorus they are transferred to an anaerobic environment. What effect does this have on microorganisms?

Select one of the following:

  • They settle to the bottom of the tank and are removed

  • They release their stored phosphorus

  • They immediately die and are wasted

  • They continue to absorb phosphorus

Explanation

Question 116 of 200

1

The first 75% of phosphorus precipitation occurs before the pH drops below?

Select one of the following:

  • 10.0

  • 8.0

  • 7.0

  • 6.0

Explanation

Question 117 of 200

1

What term is used to describe the clogging of the filter medium in a microscreen or vacuum filter?

Select one of the following:

  • Polarization

  • Blinding

  • Plugging

  • Breakthrough

Explanation

Question 118 of 200

1

What instrument is used to measure the amount of water draining through soil?

Select one of the following:

  • Rotameter

  • Venturi

  • Lysimeter

  • Winkler probe

Explanation

Question 119 of 200

1

What is the methanol to nitrogen ratio that should be maintained when denitrification is required?

Select one of the following:

  • 1:2

  • 2:1

  • 3:1

  • 5:1

Explanation

Question 120 of 200

1

If an anaerobic selector is being used to achieve phosphorus removal and the the next priority is denitrification, what would be the next selector necessary to achieve this?

Select one of the following:

  • Aerobic

  • Anoxic

  • Same selector (Anaerobic)

  • Any of the above

Explanation

Question 121 of 200

1

For optimal phosphorus removal, pH should not drop below?

Select one of the following:

  • 4.0

  • 6.0

  • 8.0

  • 11.0

Explanation

Question 122 of 200

1

What condition must exist for ammonium to be converted to gaseous ammonia so it can be removed by ammonia stripping?

Select one of the following:

  • pH must be raised to the 10.5-11.5 range

  • pH must be lowered to 6.0

  • DO must be increased

  • Nitrobacter must be present

Explanation

Question 123 of 200

1

What is the term used to describe the boundary layer between two substances?

Select one of the following:

  • Concentrate

  • Interface

  • Substrate

  • Coning

Explanation

Question 124 of 200

1

What adverse effect can high levels of ammonia have on receiving waters?

Select one of the following:

  • Oxygen depletion

  • Increase DO

  • Algal blooms

  • Oxygen depletion and algal blooms

Explanation

Question 125 of 200

1

Which is an example of suspended growth denitrifaction?

Select one of the following:

  • Rotating biological contractor

  • Trickling filter

  • Extended aeration

  • None of the above

Explanation

Question 126 of 200

1

When operating an Advanced Treatment facility using chemical treatment for solids removal, you discover high flows entering the system. You should?

Select one of the following:

  • Inspect the chemical feeders to determine if the chemicals being added do NOT cause a great increase/decrease in pH

  • Plan on reducing the sludge removal system from the clarifier

  • Prepare to feed a greater quantity of chemicals

  • Watch for chemical overdoses that could produce toxic conditions in the biological

Explanation

Question 127 of 200

1

When using polymer in a gravity thickening process for sludge, when would more polymer dosages be required? When the:

Select one of the following:

  • Hydraulic loading rate increases

  • Hydraulic loading to the unit decreases

  • Sludge selector speed is decreased

  • Solids loading to the unit decreases

Explanation

Question 128 of 200

1

When bacteria laden with phosphorous are faced with apparent death, they:

Select one of the following:

  • Absorb phosphorous from wastewater in large quantities

  • Absorb phosphorous from wastewater slowly

  • Begin to reproduce to save the species

  • Release phosphorous from their cell structure in large quantities

Explanation

Question 129 of 200

1

Head loss in a gravity filter is determined by?

Select one of the following:

  • Eff. turbidity minus Inf. Turbidity

  • Flow minus the weir overflow rate

  • Inf. Turbidity minus Eff. Turbidity

  • Measuring the water pressure above and below the filter media

Explanation

Question 130 of 200

1

What dosage of chlorine can be fatal in just a few breaths?

Select one of the following:

  • 50 ppm

  • 100 ppm

  • 250 ppm

  • 1000 ppm

Explanation

Question 131 of 200

1

What statement best describes at which speed a belt filter press should be operated?

Select one of the following:

  • The area of the belt determines the speed

  • The ideal belt speed is the slowest the operator can maintain without washing out the belt

  • The concentration of the sludge eff. determines the speed

  • The material of which the belt is made determines the speed

Explanation

Question 132 of 200

1

What steps should the operator take if "washing out" occurs while operating a belt filter press?

Select one of the following:

  • Decrease tension on belt

  • Decrease wash water rate

  • Increase sludge rate and belt speed

  • Lower flow rate and increase belt speed

Explanation

Question 133 of 200

1

A problem with plastic pipe laterals resting on the surface in a spray irrigation system is?

Select one of the following:

  • The pipe can deteriorate due to exposure to sunlight

  • Snakes and other lethal animals can lurk under the pipe

  • The pipe will whip violently during system operation

  • Distribution of the effluent will not be as effective

Explanation

Question 134 of 200

1

FDEP approved continuous on-line analyzing of reclaimed water effluent includes analyzing for:

Select one of the following:

  • CBOD5

  • pH, chlorine, and turbidity

  • D.O. and temperature

  • Fecal Coliform and Total Coliform

Explanation

Question 135 of 200

1

Lime is used more frequently for phosphorous removal than Aluminum Sulfate because Aluminum Sulfate:

Select one of the following:

  • Does not settle as rapidly in clarifiers

  • Is more expensive than lime

  • Raises the pH too much

  • Requires anaerobic conditions and lime does not

Explanation

Question 136 of 200

1

What process control adjustment should be made when a 30 minute settleometer test shows fast solids settling leaving pin-point floc? Increase the:

Select one of the following:

  • Aeration rate

  • MLSS

  • RAS rate

  • WAS rate

Explanation

Question 137 of 200

1

According to Chapter 62-600, FAC, Domestic Wastewater facilities, the basic disinfection requirement (using chlorine) is a :

Select one of the following:

  • 0.5 mg/L total chlorine residual after 15 minutes contact time at average daily flow

  • 0.5 mg/L minimum total chlorine after 15 minutes contact time at peak hourly flow

  • 0.5 mg/L minimum total chlorine residual after 30 minutes contact time at maximum daily flow

  • 1.0 mg/L total chlorine residual after 15 minutes contact time at maximum daily flow

Explanation

Question 138 of 200

1

In an aerobic digester, excessive air rates can contribute to?

Select one of the following:

  • An increase in the activity of biomass

  • Foaming problems

  • High solids carry over

  • Reduction of the activity of biomass

Explanation

Question 139 of 200

1

A common operational problem that can occur with ammonia stripping towers involves:

Select one of the following:

  • Asphyxiation if personnel remain in the tower too long

  • Corrosion due to the chemical reaction forming acids

  • Reduction of capacity due to media breakdown

  • Scale formation due to calcium carbonate build-up

Explanation

Question 140 of 200

1

What causes a loss of vacuum in a vacuum filter?

Select one of the following:

  • Change in effluent characteristics

  • Drum speed too low

  • Filter media misalignment or tear

  • Insufficient conditioning

Explanation

Question 141 of 200

1

According to Chapter 62-620, FAC, Wastewater Facility Permitting, the permittee shall retain treatment facility operating records for how many calendar years?

Select one of the following:

  • 2 years

  • 3 years

  • 10 years

  • 15 years

Explanation

Question 142 of 200

1

In lakes and deeper rivers, cold waters tend to slip below warmer waters because?

Select one of the following:

  • Warmer waters always rise to the top due to atmospheric pressure

  • Thermo clines force them to

  • Cold water is heavier or has a greater density

  • Caused by wind action at the surface

Explanation

Question 143 of 200

1

According to Chapter 62-602, FAC, Drinking water and Domestic wastewater treatment plant operators. The operator must report to the department any serious plant breakdown or condition causing or likely to cause any discharge not in compliance with the treatment plant permit within how many hours of the occurrence?

Select one of the following:

  • 6 hours

  • 12 hours

  • 24 hours

  • 48 hours

Explanation

Question 144 of 200

1

The plant EFF coliform count has failed to meet the required standards for disinfection. The supply of disinfectant is not the problem. There is adequate chlorine residual. To confirm the cause, it is most relevant to check the:

Select one of the following:

  • Chlorine in the stream mixing zone

  • Chlorine Contact Chamber for short circuiting

  • Chlorine Contact Chamber for solids scouring

  • Total chlorine residual analysis

Explanation

Question 145 of 200

1

How is the Fecal Coliform parameter evaluated?

Select one of the following:

  • The concentration is estimated by using the (MLN) Likely number method

  • The concentration is estimated by the TBEL method

  • The concentration is estimated by using the most probable number (MPN) method or the membrane filter (MF) method

  • The value is determined by microscopic examination

Explanation

Question 146 of 200

1

When reading the level of a column of liquid in a graduated cylinder, burette or manometer, you should?

Select one of the following:

  • Fill the glassware to 10 centimeters below the lip of the glassware and record

  • Hold a solid color sheet of paper behind the glassware and record the level to the nearest 10 millimeters

  • Record the level of the bottom of the meniscus of the liquid being measured

  • View the liquid level from an elevation equal to the liquid level and read the top of two liquid level lines

Explanation

Question 147 of 200

1

According to Chapter 62-601, FAC, Domestic W/W treatment plant monitoring, after July 1, 1993, the tests for on-site parameters pH and chlorine residual shall be performed by or under the direction of ?

Select one of the following:

  • A certified laboratory or a certified operator

  • Plant laborers

  • Plant Technicians

  • The permittee

Explanation

Question 148 of 200

1

What should be the pH in a rapid-mix basin for a maximum phosphorous removal efficiency when using lime?

Select one of the following:

  • 5.0

  • 6.0

  • 8.3

  • 11.0

Explanation

Question 149 of 200

1

Secondary clarifiers are showing straggler floc lost over weirs. Microscopic exam shows few free swimmers, majority of flagellates. SVI is increasing. What visual observation and test results would you expect?

Select one of the following:

  • Dark foam, increasing F/M and SRT, decreasing turbidity

  • Light brown foam, decreasing F/M and SRT, decreasing turbidity

  • Light brown to white foam, increasing F/M, dalling SRT and increasing turbidity

  • White foam, decreasing F/M, falling SRT, increased turbidity

Explanation

Question 150 of 200

1

The plant EFF coliform count has failed to meet the required standards for disinfection. The supply of disinfectant is not the problem. There is adequate chlorine residual. The best solution is to?

Select one of the following:

  • Chlorinate to breakpoint

  • Decrease the flow to the steam mixing zone

  • Increase the chlorinator capacity

  • Install additional baffling

Explanation

Question 151 of 200

1

Which statement is correct concerning confined spaces?

Select one of the following:

  • Confined spaces are defined as those that concurrently provide difficult access and/or exit combined with inadequate or deficient ventilation.

  • Monitoring the atmosphere within a confined space is required each hour and is logged into the confined space log book

  • You may enter a confined space only when oxygen levels are above 20%

  • You may process in a confined space only if air contamination exists

Explanation

Question 152 of 200

1

If a sand drying bed has a problem with the media becoming clogged, what should the operator do first?

Select one of the following:

  • Have the contractor replace all the media but leave the gravel intact

  • Investigate the type of sand being used and recommend a different type

  • Rake the surface of the bed, removing the upper 2 to 3 inches of sand, and replace the sand with fresh sand

  • Remove the sand, wash it, check the under-drain, then replace the sand

Explanation

Question 153 of 200

1

What should be the pH in a rapid-mix basin for maximum phosphorous removal efficiency when using lime?

Select one of the following:

  • 5.0

  • 6.0

  • 8.3

  • 11.0

Explanation

Question 154 of 200

1

What is the most common method of EFF disposal?

Select one of the following:

  • Evaporation/Percolation ponds1

  • In deep wells

  • In receiving waters

  • Land disposal

Explanation

Question 155 of 200

1

What would be the usual approach to measure the impact of a discharge to receiving waters?

Select one of the following:

  • Analyze the plants performance evaluations

  • Compare the in-plant measurements measurements to down stream receiving waters

  • Review the Grab sample measurements

  • Take a measurement in the upstream, unaffected area, and compare to a down stream affected area

Explanation

Question 156 of 200

1

What does not represent a potential hazard of working in a wastewater treatment laboratory?

Select one of the following:

  • Burns

  • Electrical shock

  • Hypothermia

  • Infectious materials

Explanation

Question 157 of 200

1

An instrument used in a laboratory that measures the intensity of color or particular wavelength is a ?

Select one of the following:

  • Color standard

  • Nephelometer

  • Spectrophotometer

  • Turbidimeter

Explanation

Question 158 of 200

1

A gravity filter experiences rapid build-up of head loss. What could be a probable cause?

Select one of the following:

  • Applied water flow rate too low

  • Incomplete backwash cycle

  • Media breakthrough

  • Turbidimeter

Explanation

Question 159 of 200

1

What problems may develop during the injection of reclaimed wastewater into deep wells?

Select one of the following:

  • Contamination of groundwater

  • Lowering of groundwater table

  • Saltwater intrusion

  • Severe hydraulic overload

Explanation

Question 160 of 200

1

According to state regulations, a wastewater plant shall maintain a pH in the effluent after disinfection within what range?

Select one of the following:

  • 2.5 - 4.5

  • 4.5 - 6.0

  • 6.0 - 8.5

  • 8.5 - 10.5

Explanation

Question 161 of 200

1

In chapter 62-699, FAC, Treatment Plant Classification and Staffing, wastewater treatment plants are classified in order to prescribe the lowest class of certified operators who will be permitted to operate the treatment plant. This classification system is based on what (2) factors?

Select one of the following:

  • Design flow and treatment type

  • Flow and treatment efficiency

  • Population and flow

  • Population served and treatment type

Explanation

Question 162 of 200

1

Two inorganic gases giving off the most offensive odors and which is a main concern of operators when controlling odors are?

Select one of the following:

  • Ammonia and skatole

  • Hydrogen sulfide and ammonia

  • Mercaptans and indole

  • Methane and ammonia

Explanation

Question 163 of 200

1

The recovery of a stuck anaerobic digester can be accelerated be neutralizing the acids with a caustic material like?

Select one of the following:

  • Aluminum sulfate

  • Calcium hypochlorite

  • Lime

  • Sodium hypochlorite

Explanation

Question 164 of 200

1

When operating an advanced treatment facility using chemical treatment for solids removal, you discover high flows entering the system. The first step you should take is to?

Select one of the following:

  • Inspect the chemical feeder for proper output

  • Prepare jar tests to determine dosage that will be good for increased detention

  • Prepare jar tests to determine dosage that will be good for decreased detention time

  • Run influent turbidity tests hourly to see if the turbidity is actually increasing

Explanation

Question 165 of 200

1

Even though a process control test is accurately performed, which one of the following could result in meaningless findings?

Select one of the following:

  • The ambient temperature being several degrees cooler than normal

  • The analyst not being certified

  • The sample not being representative of the process stream being sampled

  • The use of class A glassware instead class B glassware

Explanation

Question 166 of 200

1

It takes about 22% less O2 to process 1 lb of carbonaceous waste than 1 lb of nitrogenous waste. What does this indicate?

Select one of the following:

  • Additional DO is required to nitrify

  • Carbonaceous material should be add to the MLVSS

  • Carbonaceous wastes take longer to digest

  • Nitrogenous wastes are easily oxidized

Explanation

Question 167 of 200

1

To determine the location and amount of lowest dissolved oxygen downstream from a wastewater effluent discharge, it is necessary to?

Select one of the following:

  • Conduct an annual measurment survey

  • Conduct an oxygen profile of the stream

  • Conduct an oxygen profile of the treatment plant

  • Observe the aquatic life

Explanation

Question 168 of 200

1

A sand and gravel filter had been working well, but eventually head loss occurred. Performance did not improve significantly following backwashing. What is the most probable cause?

Select one of the following:

  • The backwash water overloaded the system

  • The backwash time was too short

  • The backwash time was too long

  • There was excessive auxiliary scour

Explanation

Question 169 of 200

1

The floating cover on a primary anaerobic digester appears to be tilting. Inspection of the rollers indicates that they are not the problem. Probing the annular space results in finding a thick scum accumulation. What should be done at this point?

Select one of the following:

  • Attach a crane cable to one side and lift the corner

  • Decrease the mixing so the scum will be broken up

  • Use chemicals or degreasing agents, then hose down the scum bucket through the inspection ports

  • Immediately drain the tank before an explosion takes place

Explanation

Question 170 of 200

1

Nitrification in the activated sludge process?

Select one of the following:

  • Decreases alkalinity and increases pH

  • Decreases alkalinity and pH

  • Increases alkalinity and pH

  • Increases alkalinity and decreases pH

Explanation

Question 171 of 200

1

Which statement is most correct concerning dissolved oxygen content in water?

Select one of the following:

  • An increase in water temperature causes an increase in DO

  • Decreases in dissolved oxygen content in receiving water is immediately noticed

  • An increase in temperature causes a decrease in dissolved oxygen concentration

  • Temperature has no effect on dissolved oxygen concentrations

Explanation

Question 172 of 200

1

Rapid accumulation on the surface of a single media sand filter results in very rapid head loss. The solution is ?

Select one of the following:

  • Improve prior clarification

  • Increase chemical coagulation

  • Reduce filter backwash time

  • Reduce the filter air scrubbing time

Explanation

Question 173 of 200

1

In the microscopic exam of the mixed liquor, you observe a dominance of rotifers and nematodes. What would this be indicative of?

Select one of the following:

  • Bulking sludge that settles slowly leaving straggler floc

  • Old sludge that settles rapidly, leaving pin floc

  • Rising sludge that settles rapidly, leaving fluffy floc

  • Young sludge that settles slowly, leaving pin floc

Explanation

Question 174 of 200

1

When using break-point chlorination for ammonia removal, how many ppm of chlorine are needed to remove 1 ppm of ammonia?

Select one of the following:

  • 1

  • 5

  • 8

  • 10

Explanation

Question 175 of 200

1

Misalignment of a driver and a driven piece of equipment can cause?

Select one of the following:

  • Premature bearing failure

  • Excessive wear of the slip rings

  • The packing to leak

  • Valve chatter

Explanation

Question 176 of 200

1

Effluent quality has changed from excellent to poor. A microbial study indicates a decrease of stalked ciliates and rotifers. Now, the predominance is free swimming and flagellates. This observation indicates that the ?

Select one of the following:

  • MCRT is decreasing

  • MCRT is increasing

  • Process is moving toward a more stable condition

  • Treatment efficiency is increasing

Explanation

Question 177 of 200

1

In a suspended growth reactor used for Denitrification

Select one of the following:

  • A carbon food source is needed for proper metabolism of the organisms

  • A dissolved oxygen level of at least 2.0 mg/L should be maintained in the aeration tank at all times

  • Nitrate is first converted to ammonium, then to nitrite

  • Nitrite is first converted to nitrate then ammonium

Explanation

Question 178 of 200

1

The strategy of allowing chlorinated water to stand for 24 to 48 hrs in the rapid sand filter and thoroughly backwashing media is a remedy for?

Select one of the following:

  • Curing breakthroughs

  • Remove dissolved air which causes air binding

  • Removing grease and oil from the filter wells

  • Removing mud balls

Explanation

Question 179 of 200

1

When a 5 min observation of the settlability test indicates fast settling (e.g., 500 ml), what process change should be made?

Select one of the following:

  • Decrease the RAS

  • Increase the aeration and RAS

  • Increase the aeration

  • Increase the wasting rate

Explanation

Question 180 of 200

1

For ammonia stripping to be successful:

Select one of the following:

  • Nitrosmonas and Nitrobacters must be present

  • Chemicals must be added to convert nitrogen to nitrate

  • The pH must be raised to approximately 10.8 to 11.5

  • The wastewater to be treated must be stripped of its dissolved oxygen content first

Explanation

Question 181 of 200

1

Water quality criteria for wastewater reclaimed for public access includes:

Select one of the following:

  • Complete lack of BOD

  • High level disinfection

  • No dissolved inorganic solids

  • 50 mg/L TSS

Explanation

Question 182 of 200

1

What is the optimum temperature range for the nitrification process?

Select one of the following:

  • 70 ° and 100 ° F

  • 60 ° and 90 ° F

  • 65 ° and 85 ° F

  • 10 ° and 20 ° F

Explanation

Question 183 of 200

1

CO2 is stripped at pH below ___ and retained at a pH above ___

Select one of the following:

  • 7.0 and 10

  • 6.0 and 11

  • 8.3 and 9.5

  • 8.3 and 8.3

Explanation

Question 184 of 200

1

How much lime is required per ton of primary sludge?

Select one of the following:

  • 100-200 lbs / ton

  • 80-90 lbs / ton

  • 150-175 lbs / ton

  • 175-250 lbs / ton

Explanation

Question 185 of 200

1

What happens to phosphorus in a plant effluent when mixed with lime?

Select one of the following:

  • Phosphorus, calcium and hydroxyl ion compounds are formed

  • Phosphorus carbonate precipitate is formed

  • Phosphorus will cause a reaction that lowers the pH

  • Phosphorus will form a soluble sludge

Explanation

Question 186 of 200

1

What is utilized as a carbon source?

Select one of the following:

  • Nitrogen

  • Phosphorus

  • Methanol

  • Aerobic bacteria

Explanation

Question 187 of 200

1

In a centrifuge series, centrate from the ____ centrifuge contains most of the phosphorus?

Select one of the following:

  • First

  • Second

  • Third

  • Last

Explanation

Question 188 of 200

1

Using ION exchange for nitrogen removal; what is the name of the resin used?

Select one of the following:

  • Clinoptilolite

  • Zemalite

  • Miller lite

  • Red line resin

Explanation

Question 189 of 200

1

Supplemental phosphorus can be provided by using what items?

Select one of the following:

  • Phosphoric acid

  • Ammonia

  • Phosphate fertilizer

  • Phosphoric acid and Phosphate fertilizer

Explanation

Question 190 of 200

1

Filters should be back washed at what type of flow?

Select one of the following:

  • Slow so the filter material stays put

  • Fast just keeping the filter media in the bay

  • Adequate to fluidize the media

  • Fast just letting a small amount of media material to be washed away

Explanation

Question 191 of 200

1

What types of carbon food sources may be used in denitrification fixed film reactor to promote biological metabolism?

Select one of the following:

  • Hydrogen sulfide, primary effluent, source of high carbon food

  • Nitrate, primary effluent, source of high carbon food

  • Magnesium, primary effluent, source of high carbon food

  • Methanol, primary effluent, source of high carbon food

Explanation

Question 192 of 200

1

What may be used as a phosphorous supplement?

Select one of the following:

  • Dissolved triple superphosphate, phosphate fertilizer, phosphoric acid

  • Aqueous ammonia, anhydrous ammonia

  • Seed sludge

  • Cationic Polymers

Explanation

Question 193 of 200

1

What may be used as a nitrogen supplement?

Select one of the following:

  • Dissolved triple superphosphate, phosphate fertilizer, phosphoric acid

  • Aqueous ammonia, anhydrous ammonia

  • Seed sludge

  • Cationic Polymers

Explanation

Question 194 of 200

1

Methanol is?

Select one of the following:

  • An alcohol compound which can be ingested in small amounts without harm

  • A common component of many alcoholic beverages

  • Composed of hydrogen, oxygen, carbon and nitrogen - CH3OH

  • A fuel additive and it is highly flammable

Explanation

Question 195 of 200

1

What do autotrophic nitrifiers use as a carbon source?

Select one of the following:

  • Bicarbonate alkalinity

  • Lime

  • Algae

  • Nitrobacter bacteria

Explanation

Question 196 of 200

1

When denitrification is occurring, the microorganisms use methanol as a carbon food source. Where do they obtain the oxygen necessary to metabolize the methanol when there is no free oxygen present?

Select one of the following:

  • The microorganisms do not need oxygen to metabolize methanol

  • From the nitrate ion

  • From the ammonia-nitrogen

  • From the gaseous nitrogen

Explanation

Question 197 of 200

1

What may be added to wastewater when the nutrient levels are too low to support the microorganism population?

Select one of the following:

  • Nitrogen and phosphorus

  • Ammonia and phosphoric acid

  • Sodium acetate

  • All of the above

Explanation

Question 198 of 200

1

When treating high organic loads, what process control adjustments should be made?

Select one of the following:

  • Decrease RAS

  • Increase RAS

  • Increase wasting

  • Decrease DO

Explanation

Question 199 of 200

1

The DO should be kept at ____ in the first anaerobic and anoxic zones when using the Bardenpho process?

Select one of the following:

  • 2.0 mg/l

  • 1.5 mg/l

  • 0.5 mg/l

  • 0 mg/l

Explanation

Question 200 of 200

1

Why is the amount of food available to the microorganisms allowed to decrease during aerobic digestion?

Select one of the following:

  • To cause denitrification

  • To cause nitrification

  • To encourage endogenous respiration

  • To decrease turbidity

Explanation