David Ranz
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Quiz on BCC Embryology 1, created by David Ranz on 19/03/2019.

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BCC Embryology 1

Question 1 of 30

1

Haploid nuclei that fuse at fertilization are called:



Select one of the following:

  • homunculi


  • mitotic figures

  • centrioles

  • nucleoli

  • pronuclei

Explanation

Question 2 of 30

1

The first week of human development is characterized by formation of the:

Select one of the following:

  • inner cell mass

  • hypoblast

  • trophoblast

  • blastocyst

  • all of the above

Explanation

Question 3 of 30

1

During implantation, the blastocyst:

Select one of the following:

  • implants in the endometrium

  • usually attaches to endometrial epithelium at its embryonic pole

  • usually implants in the posterior wall of the body of the uterus

  • causes change in the endometrial tissues

  • all of the above are correct

Explanation

Question 4 of 30

1

Capacitation of the sperm:

Select one of the following:

  • is caused by the zona pellucida

  • occurs in the male

  • prevents polyspermy

  • is essential for fertilization

  • removes the head of the sperm

Explanation

Question 5 of 30

1

The early stages of cleavage are characterized by:

Select one of the following:

  • formation of a hollow ball of cells

  • formation of the zona pellucida

  • increase in the size of the cells in the zygote

  • increase in the number of cells in the zygote

  • none of the above

Explanation

Question 6 of 30

1

The amniotic cavity develops:

Select one of the following:

  • on the tenth day

  • within the outer cell mass

  • within the inner cell mass near the cytotrophoblast

  • in extraembryonic mesoderm

  • none of the above

Explanation

Question 7 of 30

1

During the second week of development, the trophoblast differentiates into:

Select one of the following:

  • syncytiotrophoblast

  • ectoderm

  • intraembryonic mesoderm

  • yolk sac (secondary)

Explanation

Question 8 of 30

1

The first two intraembryonic germ layers to differentiate are the:

Select one of the following:

  • ectoderm and hypoblast

  • epiblast and hypoblast

  • ectoderm and endoderm

  • ectoderm and mesoderm

Explanation

Question 9 of 30

1

The blastocoele becomes the:

Select one of the following:

  • amniotic cavity

  • extraembryonic coelom

  • primary yolk sac

  • chorionic cavity

  • secondary cavity

Explanation

Question 10 of 30

1

The bilaminar germ disc:

Select one of the following:

  • consists of epiblast and mesoblast

  • is derived from the outer cells of the morula

  • forms the embryo proper

  • synthesizes human chorionic gonadotropin, HCG

Explanation

Question 11 of 30

1

The primitive streak first appears at the beginning of the _____ week.

Select one of the following:

  • first

  • second

  • third

  • fourth

  • fifth

Explanation

Question 12 of 30

1

Which of the following structures is believed to be a primary organizer or inducer during organogenesis?

Select one of the following:

  • somites

  • notochord

  • metanephric blastema

  • lens placode

  • none of the above

Explanation

Question 13 of 30

1

Cells from the primitive streak DO NOT become:

Select one of the following:

  • endoderm

  • intermediate mesoderm

  • paraxial mesoderm

  • lateral plate mesoderm

  • amnioblasts

Explanation

Question 14 of 30

1

The primitive streak:

Select one of the following:

  • is derived from the outer cells of the morula

  • is formed during the second week in development

  • persists as the cloacal membrane

  • is the site of involution of epiblast cells to form mesoderm

  • was done in a bathing suit, for those who remember streaking

Explanation

Question 15 of 30

1

In the third week of human embryonic development:

Select one of the following:

  • the amnion appears

  • a bilaminar embryonic disc is formed

  • the body stalk moves ventrally and joins with the yolk sac stalk to form the umbilical cord

  • the neural plate is induced by the notochordal process and associated mesoderm

  • the uteroplacental circulation is established

Explanation

Question 16 of 30

1

During development, the notochordal process:

Select one of the following:

  • arises from involuting endodermal cells

  • extends from the prochordal plate to the primitive node

  • is involved in the induction of the primitive gut

  • becomes the appendicular skeleton

Explanation

Question 17 of 30

1

The following organs are derived from mesoderm EXCEPT:

Select one of the following:

  • skeletal musculature

  • musculature of blood vessels

  • cardiac musculature

  • suprarenal cortex

  • suprarenal medulla

Explanation

Question 18 of 30

1

Somites:

Select one of the following:

  • differentiate into myotomes which give rise to skeletal muscle in trunk and limbs

  • differentiate into sclerotomes which give rise to vertebrae

  • arise from segmentation of the paraxial mesoderm

  • differentiate into myotomes which give rise to skeletal muscle of the limbs

  • all of the above are correct

Explanation

Question 19 of 30

1

Almost all of the internal organs are well laid down at _____ months.

Select one of the following:

  • 1

  • 2

  • 3

  • 4

  • 5

Explanation

Question 20 of 30

1

The notochord is replaced by the:

Select one of the following:

  • ependyma

  • nucleus pulposus

  • spinal canal

  • dorsal roots

  • spinal cord

Explanation

Question 21 of 30

1

After folding of the head region, the structure lying just caudal to the pericardial cavity is the:

Select one of the following:

  • developing heart

  • connecting stalk

  • primitive streak

  • liver

  • septum transversum

Explanation

Question 22 of 30

1

The fact that general and special sensory information from the posterior part of the tongue is carried by glossopharyngeal nerve indicates that this part of tongue is from branchial arch _____.

Select one of the following:

  • I

  • II

  • III

  • IV

  • VI

Explanation

Question 23 of 30

1

As a resident in pediatrics, you are called to see a newborn who has a unilateral cleft lip and a unilateral cleft of the primary palate. This condition is most likely the result of:

Select one of the following:

  • failure of fusion of the mandibular prominences

  • failure of fusion of the medial nasal processes

  • failure of fusion of the maxillary prominence with the medial nasal prominence

  • failure of fusion of the lateral palatine processes with the nasal septum

  • failure of fusion of the paired lateral palatine processes.

Explanation

Question 24 of 30

1

Which of the following structures is NOT part of the first branchial arch?

Select one of the following:

  • malleus

  • mandibular process

  • sphenomandibular ligament

  • stylohyoid ligament

  • maxillary process

Explanation

Question 25 of 30

1

Which structures are derived from the intermaxillary segment of the embryonic face?

Select one of the following:

  • philtrum

  • anterior portion of the palate

  • anterior portion of the upper jaws

  • upper incisor teeth

  • all of the above are correct

Explanation

Question 26 of 30

1

The foramen cecum of the adult tongue:

Select one of the following:

  • marks the point of embryonic evagination of the thymus gland

  • divides the tongue into two parts, an anterior one-third and a posterior two-thirds

  • marks the point of embryonic evagination of the thyroid gland

  • develops into taste buds

  • has no embryologic significance

Explanation

Question 27 of 30

1

Each pharyngeal arch includes:

Select one of the following:

  • derivatives of ectodermal neural crest cells

  • an aortic arch artery

  • a mesodermal core from paraxial mesoderm

  • a cranial nerve

  • all of the above

Explanation

Question 28 of 30

1

Which of the following are associated with the 2nd pharyngeal arch?

Select one of the following:

  • the malleus bone

  • facial nerve

  • glossopharyngeal muscle

  • the lower portion of the hyoid bone

  • anterior belly of digastric

Explanation

Question 29 of 30

1

The tracheoesophageal septum separates the:

Select one of the following:

  • laryngotracheal tube and nasopharynx

  • esophagus and nasopharynx

  • laryngotracheal tube and esophagus

  • laryngotracheal tube and oropharynx

  • esophagus and oropharynx

Explanation

Question 30 of 30

1

A 28-year-old woman who does not know that she is pregnant undergoes a chemotherapy treatment at the end of her 1st week of pregnancy. Chemotherapy is associated with slowing the rate of mitosis in exposed cells, which is good in cancer treatment. However, this treatment may also have a negative influence on the implantation and growth of an embryo. In which of the following layers would a lowered rate of cell division be most likely to hinder implantation of the blastocyst?

Select one of the following:

  • Amnioblast

  • Epiblast

  • Hypoblast

  • Cytotrophoblast

  • Syncytiotrophoblast

Explanation

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