General Pathoanatomy Final MCQs (201-300)- 3rd Year- PMU

Question 1 of 100

1

Indicate the correct statement(s) for anemic infarction.

Select one or more of the following:

the term is synonym of white infarction
the term is synonym of red infarction
it develops as a result of absolute ischemia after total obstruction of an "end-type artery"
it mainly affects the lungs and liver

Explanation

Question 2 of 100

1

Indicate the correct statement(s) for hemorrhagic infarction.

Select one or more of the following:

it develops in organs with double circulation
it mainly affects the brain and the heart
it affects organs which have contact with the outside environment
it may affect the small intestine

Explanation

Question 3 of 100

1

Indicate the correct statement(s) for gangrene.

Select one or more of the following:

it is ischemic necrosis which develops in organs with contact with the external environment
it can be wet or dry
the dry gangrene is accompanied by severe bacterial infection
it can develop on the extremities, intestines, spleen and kidney

Explanation

Question 4 of 100

1

Which of the following terms are used to describe liquefactive necrosis of the brain?

Select one or more of the following:

ramolicio cerebri
encephalomalacia
infarctus anemicus cerebri
hydrocephalus

Explanation

Question 5 of 100

1

Which of the followings are not affected by gangrene?

Select one or more of the following:

lower limb
liver
lung
intestines

Explanation

Question 6 of 100

1

What type of necrosis develops in the spleen?

Select one or more of the following:

liquefactive necrosis
caseous necrosis
coagulative necrosis
fibrinoid necrosis

Explanation

Question 7 of 100

1

What type of necrosis develops in the brain?

Select one or more of the following:

caseous necrosis
coagulative necrosis
steatonecrosis
liquefactive necrosis

Explanation

Question 8 of 100

1

What type of necrosis develops in the pancreas?

Select one or more of the following:

steatonecrosis/fat necrosis
coagulative necrosis
liquefactive necrosis
caseous necrosis

Explanation

Question 9 of 100

1

What type of necrosis develops in the specific granuloma in tuberculosis?

Select one or more of the following:

liquefactive necrosis
coagulative necrosis
caseous necrosis
steatonecrosis

Explanation

Question 10 of 100

1

Indicate the correct statement(s) for coagulative necrosis.

Select one or more of the following:

it develops in organs composed mainly of proteins and containing less water and enzymes
"shadows" of previous structures can be seen microscopically
it develops as a result of acute pancreatitis
there is total effacement of the previous structures microscopically

Explanation

Question 11 of 100

1

Indicate the correct statement(s) for liquefactive necrosis.

Select one or more of the following:

it develops in organs composed mainly of proteins and containing less water and enzymes
it develops in organs which have less proteins but more water and enzymes
it can be seen in the spleen, kidneys, heart
it is most commonly seen in the brain

Explanation

Question 12 of 100

1

In which type of necrosis deposition of sodium, calcium and potassium salts (soaps) can be seen in the cytoplasm of the affected cells?

Select one or more of the following:

fibrinoid necrosis
coagulative necrosis
steatonecrosis
liquefactive necrosis

Explanation

Question 13 of 100

1

What is decubitus/bed sore?

Select one or more of the following:

clinicoanatomical form of necrosis
it develops in bed-ridden patients because of the damaged circulation caused by long-term pressure
it develops most commonly at the sacro-lumbar region and on the heels d) it develops usually on the abdomen, chest and knees
it develops ususally on the abdomen, chest and knees

Explanation

Question 14 of 100

1

Indicate the correct type of cells according to their capacity of proliferation.

Select one or more of the following:

cardiomyocites and striated muscle cells are labile cells
hepatocytes are permanent cells
the epithelial cells of the gastrointestinal tract are labile cells
the epithelial cells of the respiratory tract are stable cells

Explanation

Question 15 of 100

1

What is pseudo-hypertrophy?

Select one or more of the following:

when there is hypertrophy of the parenchymal cells but the organ looks smaller in size
when the organ looks bigger in size but there is only hypertrophy of the stromal elements
when the organ is normal in size but there is hypertrophy of the parenchymal cells
when the organ is normal in size but there is atrophy of the parenchymal cells

Explanation

Question 16 of 100

1

Indicate the correct statement(s) for metaplasia.

Select one or more of the following:

it has two subtypes — prosoplasia and anaplasia
it can be direct and indirect
it is the transformation of one differentiated tissue into another related tissue type
it is the transformation of on tissue into cancerous tissue

Explanation

Question 17 of 100

1

Indicate the correct statement(s) for dyspasia.

Select one or more of the following:

it is a process of disordered cellular development
it can develop in soft tissues
it can develop in tissues of epithelial origin
it is an adaptive process

Explanation

Question 18 of 100

1

Which of the following tissues can undergo hypertrophy?

Select one or more of the following:

heart muscle
brain membranes
striated muscles
endothelium of big vessels

Explanation

Question 19 of 100

1

Which of the following tissues can undergo hyperplasia?

Select one or more of the following:

glandular mucosa of the uterus
glandular structures of the prostate
red bone marrow
smooth muscle cells of the uterus

Explanation

Question 20 of 100

1

Corpora amylacea can be seen microscopically in?

Select one or more of the following:

the glands of uterine mucosa
the glands of prostate
the kidney's convoluted tubules
the follicles of thyroid gland

Explanation

Question 21 of 100

1

How does the hypertrophic myocardium look like grossly?

Select one or more of the following:

enlarged in size
smaller in size
papillary muscles are hypertrophic
increased heart weight

Explanation

Question 22 of 100

1

Hyperplasia of the endometrium can be:

Select one or more of the following:

direct and indirect
typical and atypical
with formation of cysts or with formation of pseudo-cysts
diffuse and localized

Explanation

Question 23 of 100

1

What are the complications of prostate hyperplasia?

Select one or more of the following:

urinary retention, frequent urinary tract infections
sexual dysfunction
transitional cell carcinoma
hydronephrosis

Explanation

Question 24 of 100

1

Indicate the correct statement(s) for brown atrophy of the liver.

Select one or more of the following:

it can happen because of aging
it can happen because of infection diseases or starvation
it can happen because of chronic right sided heart failure
it can be result of Budd-Chiari syndrome

Explanation

Question 25 of 100

1

Which is the pigment of aging?

Select one or more of the following:

bilirubin
hemosiderin
lipofuscin
hematoidin

Explanation

Question 26 of 100

1

Which is the main complication after squamous metaplasia of the respiratory bronchial epithelium?

Select one or more of the following:

squamous carcinoma of the bronchus
chronic bronchitis
small-cell carcinoma
adenocarcinoma of the bronchus

Explanation

Question 27 of 100

1

Post-ischemic, post-compressive, collateral and angioneurotic are types of:

Select one or more of the following:

chronic systemic venous congestion
acute venous congestion
arterial hyperemia
non of the above

Explanation

Question 28 of 100

1

Which is the term used for edematous fluid?

Select one or more of the following:

exudate
transudate
haemorrhage
cyst

Explanation

Question 29 of 100

1

Which are the main characteristics of the transudate?

Select one or more of the following:

specific gravity is less than 1016
specific gravity is more than 1016
protein content is less than 3%
protein content is more than 3%

Explanation

Question 30 of 100

1

Epistaxis and melena are examples for:

Select one or more of the following:

edema
exudate
haemorrhages
venous congestion

Explanation

Question 31 of 100

1

What is hemascos?

Select one or more of the following:

blood in the urine
blood in the peritoneal cavity
blood in the excrement
blood vomiting

Explanation

Question 32 of 100

1

What is hematemesis?

Select one or more of the following:

blood vomiting
blood in the excrements
nose bleeding
bleeding from the lungs

Explanation

Question 33 of 100

1

What is hemoptoe

Select one or more of the following:

bleeding from the nose
bleeding from the lungs
blood vomiting
blood in the pleural cavity

Explanation

Question 34 of 100

1

Which are the causes for liver cyanosis?

Select one or more of the following:

shock
chronic right sided heart failure
acute right sided heart failure
thrombosis of the hepatic veins

Explanation

Question 35 of 100

1

Which are the causes for nutmeg liver?

Select one or more of the following:

acute right sided heart failure
chronic left and right sided heart failure
chronic left sided heart failure
chronic right sided heart failure

Explanation

Question 36 of 100

1

Which of the following organ changes might be of straight or reverse type?

Select one or more of the following:

nutmeg liver
cyanosis of the liver
cyanosis of the kidneys
brown induration of the lungs

Explanation

Question 37 of 100

1

Which of the following liver changes is reversible?

Select one or more of the following:

liver cirrhosis
liver cyanosis
nutmeg liver
liver amyloidosis

Explanation

Question 38 of 100

1

Pin-point hemorrhages in the brain have usually the following pathogenesis:

Select one or more of the following:

per diapedesin
per rhexin
per diabrosin
all of the above

Explanation

Question 39 of 100

1

Can thrombosis develop after death?

Select one or more of the following:

yes, this is why we can see blood clots in the vessels after death
no, thrombosis is a pathological process which develops only during lifetime
it can develop both during life and after death
It develops in the agony preceding death

Explanation

Question 40 of 100

1

What is characteristic for the thrombus?

Select one or more of the following:

dry, crumbly, layered structure
moist, homogenous strucure
attached to the vessel's wall
unattached to the vessel's wall

Explanation

Question 41 of 100

1

What is characteristic for the post-mortem blood clot?

Select one or more of the following:

dry, crumbly, layered structure
moist, homogenous structure
attached to the vessel's wall
unattached to the vessel's wall

Explanation

Question 42 of 100

1

Indicate types of embolism depending on the content of embolus.

Select one or more of the following:

gas, air, amniotic
thromboembolism, fat embolism
arterial, venous
orthograde, retrograde, paradoxal

Explanation

Question 43 of 100

1

Indicate types of embolism according to the way of blood flow.

Select one or more of the following:

gas, air, thromboembolism, amniotic, fat, parasite
orthograde, retrograde
arterial, venous
paradoxical

Explanation

Question 44 of 100

1

Indicate types of embolism according to the character of the obturated blood vessel

Select one or more of the following:

thromboembolism, amniotic, fat, gas, air embolism
arterial
venous
orthograde, retrograde, paradoxical

Explanation

Question 45 of 100

1

Is it possible to prevent embolism?

Select one or more of the following:

no, it is something we cannot control or prevent
yes, by using anticoagulants
yes, by exercise in bed ridden patient and early getting up from bed after operation
yes, by staying in bed without moving after operation

Explanation

Question 46 of 100

1

In which organ hemorrhagic infarction can develop?

Select one or more of the following:

in organs with nutritive and functional blood circulation
in organs with nutritive circulation only
in organs with many anastomoses
hemorrhagic infarction can develop in any organ

Explanation

Question 47 of 100

1

Indicate the organ(s) where hemorrhagic infarction is possible.

Select one or more of the following:

liver
heart
lung
intestine

Explanation

Question 48 of 100

1

How can we prove amniotic embolism?

Select one or more of the following:

microscopically, by finding amniotic fluid in the left heart ventricle
grossly, by finding amniotic fluid in the right heart ventricle
microscopically, by finding amniotic particles such as lanugo, meconium etc. in the lungs
grossly, by finding amniotic particles in the lungs

Explanation

Question 49 of 100

1

Why does gas embolism develop?

Select one or more of the following:

because of the dissolution of blood gases, especially azotic oxide, caused by fast decompression
because of the dissolution of bood gases, especially type, caused by fast compression
because the negative pressure of the opened blood vessels on the neck and head can lead to air entry
because the positive pressure of the opened blood vessels on the neck and head can lead to air entry

Explanation

Question 50 of 100

1

What is needed for the development of hemorrhagic infarction the lung?

Select one or more of the following:

double circulation of the lung
thrombosis of a branch of a. broncialis
thrombosis of a branch of a. pulmonalis
chronic venous stagnation

Explanation

Question 51 of 100

1

What is the most common cause for the development of anemic infarction of the brain?

Select one or more of the following:

thrombosis or embolism of a. cerebri anterior
thrombosis or embolism of a. cerebri media
thrombosis or embolism of a. cerebri posterior
thrombosis or embolism of a. basillaris

Explanation

Question 52 of 100

1

What is the gross appearance of a previous anemic infarction of the brain?

Select one or more of the following:

fresh liquefactive necrosis
brain cyst
brain pseudocyst
irregular red-coloured area

Explanation

Question 53 of 100

1

In which cases inflammation is injuring the tissues instead of protecting them?

Select one or more of the following:

in autoimmune diseases
in neoplastic diseases
in immunodeficiency diseases
in congenital anomalies

Explanation

Question 54 of 100

1

Indicate the correct statements

Select one or more of the following:

gangrene of the appendix and gangrenous appendicitis are synonyms of one same disease
severe inflammation in gangrenous appendicitis leads to necrosis, while in gangrene of the appendix the necrosis is ischemic
gangrene of the appendix means necrosis of the appendix while gangrenous appendicitis means severe purulent inflammation of the appendix without necrosis
inflammation in gangrenous appendicitis is a primary process, while in gangrene the inflammation is secondary after the necrosis

Explanation

Question 55 of 100

1

What is catarrhal inflammation?

Select one or more of the following:

type of acute inflammation
subtype of serous inflammation in the respiratory tract
subtype of fibrinous inflammation in the respiratory tract
subtype of serous inflammation in the gastrointestinal tract

Explanation

Question 56 of 100

1

What is putrefactive inflammation?

Select one or more of the following:

synonym of gangrenous inflammation
type of acute inflammation
type of chronic inflammation
subtype of purulent inflammation

Explanation

Question 57 of 100

1

Which are the subtypes of fibrinous inflammation?

Select one or more of the following:

phegmona
hemorrhagic
superficial (crouposa)
deep (diphtheria)

Explanation

Question 58 of 100

1

Which are the subtypes of purulent inflammation?

Select one or more of the following:

limited, called abscess
limited, called phegmona
diffuse called abscess
diffuse called phlegmona

Explanation

Question 59 of 100

1

Hemorrhagic, purulent, fibrinous, gangrenous, serous are types of:

Select one of the following:

acute inflammation
chronic inflammation

Explanation

Question 60 of 100

1

Indicate type(s) of acute inflammation.

Select one or more of the following:

polyp
specific granuloma and non specific granuloma
purulent, serous, fibrinous
productive

Explanation

Question 61 of 100

1

The gross appearance "Ribbon-like fibrin deposits on the pericardium" describes:

Select one or more of the following:

chronic pericarditis
fibrinous myocarditis
fibrinous pericarditis
acute pericarditis

Explanation

Question 62 of 100

1

Which are the cells that infiltrate the whole thickness of the appendix in phlegmonous appendicitis?

Select one or more of the following:

lymphocytes and plasma cells
basophiles
neutrophils
giant multinucleated cells

Explanation

Question 63 of 100

1

What is typical for purulent lepto-meningitis?

Select one or more of the following:

hyperemic vessels, infiltration of the soft brain membranes by lymphocytes
hyperemic vessels, infiltration of the soft brain membranes by neutrophils
yellow-green exudate seen usually on the convex side of the brain
clear cerebro-spinal fluid

Explanation

Question 64 of 100

1

Which are the cells of acute inflammation?

Select one or more of the following:

giant cells
macrophages
lymphocytes
neutrophils

Explanation

Question 65 of 100

1

Which are the systemic signs of inflammation?

Select one or more of the following:

leukocytosis
fever
rubor, dolor, calor
tumor, funcio laesa

Explanation

Question 66 of 100

1

Which are the local signs of acute inflammation?

Select one or more of the following:

calor, tumor, rubor
fever
dolor, funcio laesa
shock

Explanation

Question 67 of 100

1

Which cells are the first line of defense in acute inflammation?

Select one or more of the following:

lymphocytes
macrophages
neutrophils
monocytes

Explanation

Question 68 of 100

1

Which are the main histological signs for chronic inflammatory process?

Select one or more of the following:

presence of exudate
lack of exudate
abundance of cells — lymphocytes, plasma cells, epitheloid cells, giant cells, fibroblasts
abundance of cells —neutrophils

Explanation

Question 69 of 100

1

Granulation tissue develops:

Select one or more of the following:

after necrosis
because of chronic inflammation
because of catarrhal inflammaton
in relation to wound-healing

Explanation

Question 70 of 100

1

Indicate the correct answer.

Select one or more of the following:

Lipo-granuloma and oleo-granuoma are examples of foreign body granulomas
Lipogranuloma and oleograuloma are examples of specific granulomas
Oleogranuloma means granuloma against exogenous lipids, while lipogranuloma means granuloma against endogenous lipids
Oleogranuloma means granuloma against endogenus Ipids while lipogranuloma means granuloma against exogenous lipids

Explanation

Question 71 of 100

1

Indicate the correct statement(s).

Select one or more of the following:

the acute abscess doesn't have its own membrane
the chronic abscess has specific membrane called pyogenic
both acute and chronic abscess have pyogenic membranes
pyogenic membrane is typical only for acute abscess

Explanation

Question 72 of 100

1

Which of the following is not microscopic characteristic of granulation tissue?

Select one or more of the following:

abundance of capillaries with plump endothelial cells
abundance of strong fibrin fibers
abundance of lymphocytes, plasma cells, macrophages, fibroblasts
abundance of neutrophils, eosinophils and basophiles

Explanation

Question 73 of 100

1

Indicate the types of chronic inflammation

Select one or more of the following:

diffuse (interstitial)
fibrinous
polypoid
granulomatous

Explanation

Question 74 of 100

1

What is the outcome of granulation tissue?

Select one or more of the following:

necrosis
scar
tumor
abscess

Explanation

Question 75 of 100

1

What is a nasal polyp?

Select one or more of the following:

chronic inflammation of the nasal mucosa
acute inflammation of the nasal mucosa
it is usually related to allergy
it is a benign tumor developing in the nose

Explanation

Question 76 of 100

1

The giant cells type "foreign body" are derived from:

Select one or more of the following:

lymphocytes
neutrophiles
macrophages
epitheloid cells

Explanation

Question 77 of 100

1

Which of the following cannot cause foreign body granuloma?

Select one or more of the following:

surgical threads
parasites
fungi
lipids

Explanation

Question 78 of 100

1

Hydatid cysts affect most commonly:

Select one or more of the following:

the brain
the heart
the spleen
the liver

Explanation

Question 79 of 100

1

Which is the second most commonly affected organ by hydatid cysts?

Select one or more of the following:

brain
liver
lung
kidney

Explanation

Question 80 of 100

1

The following description indicates: Focal aggregates in the form of nodules of cells with phagocytic ability. The diameter of these nodules is no more than 1-2mm, in many cases they are seen only microscopically.

Select one or more of the following:

granulomas
metastases
polyps
granulation tissue

Explanation

Question 81 of 100

1

Which are the main signs of granulomatous inflammation?

Select one or more of the following:

formation of specific exudate and granulation tissue
diffuse infiltration of lymphocytes and pasma cells
formation of specific or non-specific granulomas
formation of polyps

Explanation

Question 82 of 100

1

Which are the factors that lead to formation of granulomas?

Select one or more of the following:

difficulties in phagocytosis of the pathological agent
the immune reaction of the organism
specific structures of the pathological agents
all of the listed above

Explanation

Question 83 of 100

1

What does the term 'specific inflammation' mean?

Select one or more of the following:

type of granulomatous inflammation which characterizes with specific arrangement of the chronic inflammatory cells, pathognomonic for a particular etiologic agent
type of granulomatous inflammation with disordered arrangement of the inflammatory cells
diffuse infiltration of lymphocytes and plasma cells
type of granulomatous inflammation which characterizes with specific arrangement of the acute inflammatory cells, pathognomonic for a particular etiologic agent

Explanation

Question 84 of 100

1

What type of productive inflammation develops around parasites?

Select one or more of the following:

specific granulomatous inflammation
non-specific granulomatous inflammation
polypoid inflammation
diffuse inflammation

Explanation

Question 85 of 100

1

What type of necrosis develops in the tuberculous granuloma?

Select one or more of the following:

caseous necrosis
liquefactive necrosis
coagulative necrosis
fibrinoid necrosis

Explanation

Question 86 of 100

1

Which of the following cells are seen in tuberculomas?

Select one or more of the following:

Giant cells type Langhans
Epitheloid cells
Tuton giant cells
Lymphocytes

Explanation

Question 87 of 100

1

The giant cells type Langhans are derived from:

Select one or more of the following:

macrophages
epitheloid cells
lymphocytes
monocytes

Explanation

Question 88 of 100

1

Which giant cells have specific peripheral arrangement of the nuclei like horse-shoe

Select one or more of the following:

Tuton giant cells
Foreign body giant cells
Langhans giant cells
none of the above

Explanation

Question 89 of 100

1

In which stage of syphilis do the specific luetic granulomas develop?

Select one or more of the following:

first
second
third
they develop in all stages

Explanation

Question 90 of 100

1

What type of necrosis develops in luetic granulomas?

Select one or more of the following:

clay-like
caseous
liquefactive
coagulative

Explanation

Question 91 of 100

1

What type of necrosis develops in the cat-scratch disease?

Select one or more of the following:

caseous
coagulative
liquefactive
gummous

Explanation

Question 92 of 100

1

Mark the correct answer(s) about actinomycosis.

Select one or more of the following:

has three stages of development
has cervical, abdominal and thoracic forms
grossly, granular substance might be seen in the pus
grossly, rubbery lesions with central necrosis are seen in the affected organs

Explanation

Question 93 of 100

1

Mark the correct diagnosis according to the following microscopic description of a granuloma. Lack of necrosis, abundance of epitheloid cell, Langhans cells, collagen fibres, Shaumann bodies.

Select one or more of the following:

tuberculosis
sarcoidosis
rheumatism
syphilis

Explanation

Question 94 of 100

1

Mark the correct diagnosis according to the following microscopic description of a grauloma: Gummous necrosis, surrounded by epitheloid cells, single Langhans cells, abundance of plasma cells, less lymphocytes, fibroblasts.

Select one or more of the following:

tuberculosis
sarcoidosis
rheumatism
syphilis

Explanation

Question 95 of 100

1

The sulfur granule is characteristic for:

Select one or more of the following:

tuberculosis
felinosis
actinomycosis
leprosy

Explanation

Question 96 of 100

1

Mark the correct diagnosis according to the following microscopic description Of a granuloma. Fibrinoid necrosis, surrouned by abundant lymphocytes, plasma cells, many cells of Anichkov and pathognomonic cells of Aschoff.

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