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Question 1 of 75

1

When describing the male urinary anatomy, which information should the nurse include? The portion of the male urethra that is closest to the bladder is the _____ portion.

Select one of the following:

  • Vas Deferens

  • Cavernous

  • Prostatic

  • Membranous

Explanation

Question 2 of 75

1

While planning care for a patient with urinary problems, the nurse recalls that the renin­angiotensin system will be activated by:

Select one of the following:

  • Renal hypertension

  • Decreased blood pressure in the afferent arterioles

  • Elevated sodium concentrations

  • Increased blood volume

Explanation

Question 3 of 75

1

When the nurse is discussing the functional unit of the kidney, what other term should the nurse use?

Select one of the following:

  • Pyramid

  • Collecting duct

  • Calyx

  • Nephron

Explanation

Question 4 of 75

1

A 35­year­old hypertensive male begins taking a diuretic. Which of the following common side effects of this medication should the nurse monitor?

Select one of the following:

  • Hyponatremia

  • Increased Uric Acid Secretion

  • Hypokalemia

  • Hypermagnesemia

Explanation

Question 5 of 75

1

When the nurse is discussing the sodium­sensing cells of the glomerulus, what term should the nurse use?

Select one of the following:

  • Macula densa

  • Podocytes

  • Mesangial Cells

  • Loop of Henle

Explanation

Question 6 of 75

1

A 28-­year-­old female presents with fever, chills, and flank pain. She is diagnosed with pyelonephritis. A nurse recalls the patient’s infection is located in the:

Select one of the following:

  • Bladder

  • Glomerulus

  • Renal Tubules

  • Renal Pelvis

Explanation

Question 7 of 75

1

A 42­year­old male is involved in a motor vehicle accident during which he loses a lot of blood. The nurse realizes he is in acute renal failure caused by:

Select one of the following:

  • Obstruction of the proximal tubule

  • Kidney stones

  • Immune complex deposition in the glomerulus

  • Inadequate renal blood flow

Explanation

Question 8 of 75

1

A 60­year­old male is diagnosed with renal failure. While the nurse is reviewing lab results, which of the following lab values would be most consistent with this diagnosis?

Select one of the following:

  • Increased urea clearance

  • Decreased plasma potassium level

  • Metabolic alkalosis

  • Elevated plasma creatinine level

Explanation

Question 9 of 75

1

A 45­year­old female presents with hypertension, anorexia, nausea and vomiting, and anemia. She is diagnosed with chronic renal failure. When the patient asks what caused this anemia, how should the nurse respond? Your anemia is caused by:

Select one of the following:

  • Red blood cells being lost in the urine

  • Inadequate production of erythropoietin

  • Red blood cells being injured as they pass through the glomerulus

  • Inadequate iron absorption in the gut

Explanation

Question 10 of 75

1

A 42­year­old female is diagnosed with chronic renal failure, and the nurse is discussing dietary treatment. Which information indicates the nurse understands dietary regimen? Treatment includes restricting:

Select one of the following:

  • Fats

  • Proteins

  • Sugars

  • Complex Carbohydrates

Explanation

Question 11 of 75

1

When a patient asks what the most common type of renal stones is composed of, how should the nurse respond? The most common type of renal stone is composed of:

Select one of the following:

  • Phosphate

  • Struvite

  • Calcium

  • Magnesium

Explanation

Question 12 of 75

1

A 25­year­old female presents with burning urination. She was diagnosed with a urinary tract infection. When the nurse checks the culture results, which of the following organisms is most likely infecting her urinary tract?

Select one of the following:

  • Chlamydia

  • Escherichia coli

  • Streptococcus

  • Candida albicans

Explanation

Question 13 of 75

1

Upon examination of a male infant, it is determined that the urethral meatus is located on the undersurface of the penis. The nurse will document this condition as:

Select one of the following:

  • Hypospadias

  • Cryptorchidism

  • Hydroureter

  • Epispadias

Explanation

Question 14 of 75

1

Which of the following clusters of symptoms would make a clinician suspect a child has developed glomerulonephritis?

Select one of the following:

  • Dysuria, urinary frequency, and abdominal tenderness

  • Proteinuria, hypotension, and ascites

  • Gross hematuria, flank pain, and hypertension

  • Pyuria, fever, and abdominal pain

Explanation

Question 15 of 75

1

A 7­year­old male presents to his primary care provider for incontinence. His mother indicates that he has never been continent. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis the nurse will observe on the chart?

Select one of the following:

  • Diurnal enuresis

  • Secondary enuresis

  • Primary enuresis

  • Nocturnal enuresis

Explanation

Question 16 of 75

1

A 15­year­old female presents with flank pain, irritability, malaise, and fever. Tests reveal glomerulonephritis. When the parents ask what could have caused this, how should the nurse respond?

Select one of the following:

  • Nephrotic syndrome

  • Potter syndrome

  • Nephropathy

  • Poststreptococcal infection

Explanation

Question 17 of 75

1

Which information indicates the nurse has a good understanding of female anatomy? Having ejected a mature ovum, the ovarian follicle then develops into:

Select one of the following:

  • A theca cell

  • Scar tissue

  • An atretic follicle

  • A corpus luteum

Explanation

Question 18 of 75

1

Which information indicates the nurse has a good understanding of progesterone? Progesterone is primarily secreted by the:

Select one of the following:

  • Granulose cells

  • Anterior pituitary

  • Follicle

  • Corpus luteum

Explanation

Question 19 of 75

1

A clinician is preparing to teach about spermatogenesis. Which information should the clinician include? Spermatogenesis occurs in the:

Select one of the following:

  • Inguinal canals

  • Seminiferous tubules

  • Vas deferens

  • Epididymis

Explanation

Question 20 of 75

1

When a staff member asks the nurse what the thick middle layer of the uterine wall is called, what is the nurse’s best response? The:

Select one of the following:

  • Endometrium

  • Epithelial layer

  • Perimetrium

  • Myometrium

Explanation

Question 21 of 75

1

In the majority of cases delayed puberty is due to:

Select one of the following:

  • A disruption of the pituitary

  • Slow maturation

  • A disruption in the hypothalamus

  • Ambiguity in sex determination

Explanation

Question 22 of 75

1

A 21­year­old female is infected with human papillomavirus (HPV) following unprotected sexual intercourse with a male she recently met. She is now at higher risk of developing which of the following cancers?

Select one of the following:

  • Ovarian

  • Endometrial

  • Vulvar

  • Cervical

Explanation

Question 23 of 75

1

Cryptorchidism can be defined as:

Select one of the following:

  • Problems with testicular descent

  • An abnormal state in which the testes are overdeveloped

  • Lack of a scrotum

  • A normal developmental state of the testes

Explanation

Question 24 of 75

1

A middle­ aged male speaks to his physician about benign BPH. He reveals that his father was recently diagnosed with this condition, and he wants to know if he could have it. The physician tells him that a common complaint from men with mild to moderate BPH is:

Select one of the following:

  • Infertility

  • Sexual Dysfunction

  • Decreased Urinary Stream

  • Prostatodynia

Explanation

Question 25 of 75

1

The patient’s medication has a side effect of gynecomastia. The patient asks the nurse to define this term. The nurse would respond that gynecomastia is:

Select one of the following:

  • Overdevelopment of breast tissue in males

  • A type of breast cancer

  • Inflammation of the mammary glands in lactating women

  • Lack of breast development in women

Explanation

Question 26 of 75

1

A 25­year­old female presents with amenorrhea and hirsutism. She is diagnosed with PCOS. Lab testing will most likely reveal:

Select one of the following:

  • Genetic cancerous mutations

  • Estrogen deficit

  • Cortisol excess

  • Hyperinsulinemia

Explanation

Question 27 of 75

1

A 30­year­old female with newly diagnosed PCOS is being counseled by her OB­GYN. The physician indicates that this condition often results in:

Select one of the following:

  • Early menopause

  • Infertility

  • Ovarian cancer

  • Pelvic inflammatory disease

Explanation

Question 28 of 75

1

A 23­year­old sexually active female presents with white copious discharge and itch. She is diagnosed with yeast vaginitis caused by overgrowth of which microorganism?

Select one of the following:

  • Candida albicans

  • Lactobacillus acidophilus

  • Neisseria gonorrhoeae

  • Escherichia coli

Explanation

Question 29 of 75

1

The descent of the bladder and the anterior vaginal wall into the vaginal canal is called a:

Select one of the following:

  • Varicocele

  • Urethrocele

  • Rectocele

  • Cystocele

Explanation

Question 30 of 75

1

A 40­year­old female presents with cramping and excessive vaginal bleeding. Ultrasound reveals benign uterine tumors in the smooth muscle cells of the myometrium. These tumors are commonly called:

Select one of the following:

  • Endometriosis

  • Adenomas

  • Adenomyosis

  • Leiomyomas

Explanation

Question 31 of 75

1

Which sphincter prevents reflux of digested material from the colon into the small intestine?

Select one of the following:

  • Lower esophageal

  • Pyloric

  • Ileocecal valve

  • Haustral

Explanation

Question 32 of 75

1

The ileum and jejunum are suspended by folds of the peritoneum known as the _____ that contains an extensive vascular and nervous network.

Select one of the following:

  • Mesentery

  • Meissner plexus

  • Myenteric plexus

  • Auerbach fold

Explanation

Question 33 of 75

1

In the liver, free bilirubin moves from the plasma in the sinusoids into the hepatocytes, where it is converted into:

Select one of the following:

  • Conjugated bilirubin

  • Urobilinogen

  • Unconjugated bilirubin

  • Biliverdin

Explanation

Question 34 of 75

1

The exocrine portion of the pancreas contains:

Select one of the following:

  • Beta cells

  • Islets of Langerhans

  • Ducts

  • Alpha Cells

Explanation

Question 35 of 75

1

The nursing student is teaching a class to second graders. The student would correctly identify that food moves down the esophagus via the process termed:

Select one of the following:

  • Haustral segmentation

  • Peristalsis

  • Retropulsion

  • Defecation

Explanation

Question 36 of 75

1

A 10­month­old is brought to the pediatrician by the mother who states the baby has been experiencing colicky pain followed by vomiting, sweating, nausea, and irritability. Testing reveals a condition in which one part of the intestine telescopes into another. From which type of intestinal obstruction is he suffering?

Select one of the following:

  • Ileus

  • Torsion

  • Hernia

  • Intussusception

Explanation

Question 37 of 75

1

A 20­year­old male was recently diagnosed with lactose intolerance. He eats an ice cream cone and develops diarrhea. His diarrhea can be classified as _____ diarrhea.

Select one of the following:

  • Hypotonic

  • Osmotic

  • Secretory

  • Motility

Explanation

Question 38 of 75

1

Clinical manifestations of bile salt deficiencies are related to poor absorption of:

Select one of the following:

  • Fats and fat­soluble vitamins

  • Minerals

  • Water­soluble vitamins

  • Proteins

Explanation

Question 39 of 75

1

A 30­year­old obese female underwent gastric resection in an attempt to lose weight. Which of the following complications could the surgery cause?

Select one of the following:

  • Hiccups

  • Constipation

  • Anemia

  • Acid Reflux Gastritis

Explanation

Question 40 of 75

1

Which of the following symptoms would help a health care provider distinguish between ulcerative colitis and Crohn disease?

Select one of the following:

  • Diarrhea

  • Malabsorption

  • Pattern of remission/exacerbations

  • Abdominal Pain

Explanation

Question 41 of 75

1

A 16­year­old female presents with abdominal pain in the right lower quadrant. Physical examination reveals rebound tenderness and a low­grade fever. A possible diagnosis would be:

Select one of the following:

  • Pancreatitis

  • Hepatitis

  • Appendicitis

  • Colon cancer

Explanation

Question 42 of 75

1

A 54­year­old male complains that he has been vomiting blood. Tests reveal portal hypertension. Which of the following is the most likely cause of his condition?

Select one of the following:

  • Cirrhosis of the liver

  • Thrombosis in the spleen

  • Renal stenosis

  • Left ventricular failure

Explanation

Question 43 of 75

1

Manifestations associated with hepatic encephalopathy from chronic liver disease are the result of:

Select one of the following:

  • Decreased cerebral blood flow

  • Fluid and electrolyte imbalances

  • Hyperbilirubinemia and jaundice

  • Impaired ammonia metabolism

Explanation

Question 44 of 75

1

An increase in the rate of red blood cell breakdown causes which form of jaundice?

Select one of the following:

  • Hemolytic

  • Hepatocellular

  • Metabolic

  • Obstructive

Explanation

Question 45 of 75

1

A 55­year­old female has general symptoms of gallstones but is also jaundiced. IV cholangiography would most likely reveal that the gallstones are obstructing the

Select one of the following:

  • Gallbladder

  • Common Bile Duct

  • Cystic Duct

  • Intrahepatic Bile canaliculi

Explanation

Question 46 of 75

1

Reflux esophagitis is defined as a(n):

Select one of the following:

  • Secretory response to hiatal hernia

  • Inflammatory response to gastroesophageal reflux

  • Congenital anomaly

  • Immune response to gastroesophageal reflux

Explanation

Question 47 of 75

1

Which of the following gastrointestinal (GI) clinical manifestations is subjective? (Select all that apply.)

Select one or more of the following:

  • Diarrhea

  • Retching

  • Nausea

  • Anorexia

  • Vomiting

Explanation

Question 48 of 75

1

Prolonged diarrhea is more serious in children than adults because:

Select one of the following:

  • Fluid reserves are lower in children

  • Children have lower adipose reserves.

  • Children are more resistant to antimicrobial therapy.

  • Children have a lower metabolic rate.

Explanation

Question 49 of 75

1

Which condition should the nurse assess for in mothers carrying fetuses affected by esophageal malformations?

Select one of the following:

  • Short umbilical cords

  • Enlarged placentas

  • Excessive amniotic fluid

  • Foul smelling vaginal discharge

Explanation

Question 50 of 75

1

A mother brings her 2­week­old infant to the pediatrician because he vomits forcefully for no apparent reason and food sometimes is regurgitated as though undigested. The infant is most likely suffering from:

Select one of the following:

  • Pyloric stenosis

  • Meconium ileus

  • Galactosemia

  • Esophageal atresia

Explanation

Question 51 of 75

1

A 2­month­old female with Down syndrome is diagnosed with Hirschsprung disease following family complaints of chronic constipation. The most likely cause of these symptoms is:

Select one of the following:

  • Absence of ganglia along the length of the colon

  • Excessive use of glycerin suppositories to promote bowel elimination

  • Additional ganglia throughout the length of the colon

  • The use of cow’s milk instead of formula

Explanation

Question 52 of 75

1

When a staff member asks the nurse about the contractile unit of a muscle, how should the nurse reply? The contractile unit of a muscle cell is called the:

Select one of the following:

  • Myofibril

  • Ribosome

  • Motor Unit

  • Basement membrane

Explanation

Question 53 of 75

1

When the nurse is using the term “sarcopenia,” what is the nurse describing? It is the:

Select one of the following:

  • Absence of muscle cells

  • Age­related loss in skeletal muscle

  • Muscles that are unable to contract

  • Fatigue of muscle cells

Explanation

Question 54 of 75

1

While planning care for a patient with muscle problems, which information should the nurse remember? _____ ions directly control the contraction of muscles.

Select one of the following:

  • Potassium

  • Sodium

  • Calcium

  • Magnesium

Explanation

Question 55 of 75

1

The nurse observed the patient’s muscle contracted, but the limb did not move. How should the nurse chart this muscle contraction?

Select one of the following:

  • Isotonic contraction

  • Concentric contraction

  • Eccentric contraction

  • Isometric contraction

Explanation

Question 56 of 75

1

Which of the following clinical findings would be expected in the patient with rhabdomyolysis?

Select one of the following:

  • Dark Urine

  • Sweating

  • Yellow Color to the Skin

  • Lower Extremity Swelling

Explanation

Question 57 of 75

1

A 70­year­old female presents with a hip fracture. She is diagnosed with osteoporosis. One factor that most likely contributed to her condition is:

Select one of the following:

  • Excessive dietary calcium

  • Strenuous exercise

  • Increased androgen levels

  • Decreased estrogen levels

Explanation

Question 58 of 75

1

A disorder similar to osteomalacia that occurs in growing bones of children is termed:

Select one of the following:

  • Osteomyelitis

  • Paget disease

  • Osteosarcoma

  • Rickets

Explanation

Question 59 of 75

1

A 54­year­old female was recently diagnosed with degenerative joint disease. This condition is characterized by loss of:

Select one of the following:

  • Synovial fluid

  • Articular cartilage

  • The epiphyses

  • The joint capsule

Explanation

Question 60 of 75

1

Researchers now believe that RA is:

Select one of the following:

  • Curable with antiviral agents

  • An autoimmune disease

  • A complication of rheumatic fever

  • Related superficial joint injury

Explanation

Question 61 of 75

1

A 46­year­old male presents with severe pain, redness, and tenderness in the right big toe. He was diagnosed with gouty arthritis. The symptoms he experienced are caused by the crystallization of _____ within the synovial fluid.

Select one of the following:

  • Uric acid

  • Pyrimidines

  • Acetic acid

  • Purines

Explanation

Question 62 of 75

1

A 32­year­old male was injured in a motor vehicle accident and confined to bed for 3 weeks. During this time, the size and strength of muscle fibers decreased, a condition referred to as:

Select one of the following:

  • Myodysplasia

  • Deconditioning hypoplasia

  • Ischemic Atrophy

  • Disuse Atrophy

Explanation

Question 63 of 75

1

A 70­year­old female with osteoporosis fractures her leg at a location of preexisting abnormality. She reports that the fracture occurred following a minor fall. Which of the following best describes the fracture?

Select one of the following:

  • Greenstick fracture

  • Fatigue fracture

  • Stress fracture

  • Pathologic fracture

Explanation

Question 64 of 75

1

Fibromyalgia is a chronic musculoskeletal disorder characterized by:

Select one of the following:

  • Diffuse pain, fatigue, and tender points

  • Neurologic pain in the skeletal muscles

  • Muscle pain in the back and gastrointestinal symptoms

  • Pain resulting from joint and muscle inflammation

Explanation

Question 65 of 75

1

Ewing sarcoma originates from:

Select one of the following:

  • The Spleen

  • Osteoblasts

  • The Bone Marrow

  • Epithelial Cells

Explanation

Question 66 of 75

1

Children with OI suffer from frequent:

Select one of the following:

  • Dislocations

  • Bone Infections

  • Bone Fractures

  • Joint Injuries

Explanation

Question 67 of 75

1

Tinea corporis (ringworm) is a _____ infection of the skin.

Select one of the following:

  • Nematode

  • Bacterial

  • Fungal

  • Viral

Explanation

Question 68 of 75

1

A 20­year­old female presents with vaginal itch and thin­walled pustular lesions. She is diagnosed with candidiasis. This condition is caused by a:

Select one of the following:

  • Virus

  • Bacterium

  • Yeast

  • Fungus

Explanation

Question 69 of 75

1

When assessing a patient with scleroderma, which changes in the skin will be observed?

Select one of the following:

  • Hardening

  • Thinning

  • Necrosis

  • Hyperpigmented

Explanation

Question 70 of 75

1

A 40­year­old female is diagnosed with skin cancer. Her primary care provider explains that the most important risk factor for skin cancer is:

Select one of the following:

  • Amount of sun exposure over age 50

  • Living in equatorial regions where the sun is most intense

  • Amount of direct sun exposure at a young age

  • Lifetime amount of sun exposure

Explanation

Question 71 of 75

1

In burn injury patients, the rule of nines and the Lund and Browder chart are used to estimate:

Select one of the following:

  • Degree of systemic involvement

  • Possibility of infection

  • Total body surface area burned

  • Depth of burn injury

Explanation

Question 72 of 75

1

A 30­year­old male firefighter is badly burned and is admitted to the emergency department. Which of the following would be expected in the first 24 hours?

Select one of the following:

  • Fluid Overload

  • Diuresis

  • Decreased Levels of Stress Hormones

  • Increased Capillary Permeability

Explanation

Question 73 of 75

1

Rubella, rubeola, and roseola are common communicable diseases caused by _____ infection.

Select one of the following:

  • Yeast

  • Fungal

  • Viral

  • Bacterial

Explanation

Question 74 of 75

1

If a woman has a 28 day menstrual cycle, when will ovulation occur?

Select one of the following:

  • Day 1

  • Last day

  • Day 14

  • Day 28

Explanation

Question 75 of 75

1

A 40 year old patient is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of acute pancreatitis? What lab values would you expect to find?

Select one of the following:

  • Elevated AST and ALT

  • Elevated amylase and lipase

  • Decreased bilirubin

  • Increased albumin

Explanation