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Quiz on Phamacodynamics and Pharmacokinetics, created by offersforalice on 01/05/2015.

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Phamacodynamics and Pharmacokinetics

Question 1 of 122

1

What is pharmacodynamics?

Select one of the following:

  • The effects of a drug on the body.

  • What the body does to a drug.

Explanation

Question 2 of 122

1

What is pharmacokinetics?

Select one of the following:

  • The effects of a drug on the body.

  • What the body does to a drug.

Explanation

Question 3 of 122

1

Pharmacodynamics allows us to...

Select one of the following:

  • determine the appropriate dose range for patients and compare how safe or effective different drugs are.

  • design and optimise treatment plans for individuals.

  • determine the best route and frequency of administration of a new drug.

Explanation

Question 4 of 122

1

What does ADME stand for?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Administration

  • Affect

  • Absorption

  • Distribution

  • Dissolving

  • Metabolism

  • Modification

  • Excretion

  • Editing

Explanation

Question 5 of 122

1

Absorption is...

Select one of the following:

  • how a drug gets from the site of administration into the blood.

  • how a drug moves from the blood to target cells.

  • how the drug elicits its effect on the body.

  • how a drug is eliminated from the body.

Explanation

Question 6 of 122

1

Distribution is...

Select one of the following:

  • how the drug moves in the body, for example leaving the blood stream and distributing non uniformly into intracellular fluids.

  • how long the drug moves around in the blood for.

  • how the drug is inactivated by the body.

  • how the drug is eliminated from the body, for example in bile.

Explanation

Question 7 of 122

1

Metabolism is...

Select one or more of the following:

  • how the body inactivates the drug.

  • enzymatic modification.

  • how the drug travels through the body.

  • how the drug passes cell walls.

Explanation

Question 8 of 122

1

Excretion is...

Select one of the following:

  • how the drug is eliminated from the body, for example in urine, bile or faeces.

  • how long the drug can stay in the body unchanged.

  • how the drug gets from the site of administration to the GI tract.

  • how the drug elicits a cellular response.

Explanation

Question 9 of 122

1

From what sources can we create drugs?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Completely synthetic materials.

  • Plants.

  • Synthetic materials but using the template of a naturally occurring compound.

  • Biologics (derived from growth factors and recombinant proteins).

  • Electricity.

  • Nitrogen gas.

  • Laptops.

Explanation

Question 10 of 122

1

How many types of proteins act as drug targets?

Select one of the following:

  • 1

  • 2

  • 3

  • 4

  • 5

Explanation

Question 11 of 122

1

What are the four types of proteins that can act as drug targets?

Select one of the following:

  • Receptors, Ion Channels, Enzymes and Carriers.

  • Hormonal Receptors, Gated Ion Channels, Metabolic Enzymes, Carriers.

  • Receptors, Ion Channels, Enzymes, Channels.

  • Ion Channels, Reception, Enzyme Inhibitors, Carriers.

  • Ion Channels, Receptors, Enzymes, Channels.

Explanation

Question 12 of 122

1

Drug interaction with the target is determined by two factors. What are they?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Shape

  • Charge Distribution

  • Colour

  • Name

  • Time

Explanation

Question 13 of 122

1

This determines the ability of a drug to bind to it's target. It it the right __________ to bind to the target or not? Lock and Key mechanism.

Select one of the following:

  • Shape

  • Charge

  • Colour

  • Mass

Explanation

Question 14 of 122

1

This determines the strength of associations between the drug and it's target, because it determines the bonds that the drug can make.

Select one of the following:

  • Charge Distribution

  • Shape

  • Colour

  • Mass

Explanation

Question 15 of 122

1

Order these forces, weakest to strongest.

Ionic Bonds
Hydrogen Bonds
Van der Waals Forces
Covalent Bonds

Select one of the following:

  • Van der Waals Forces, Hydrogen Bonds, Ionic Bonds, Covalent Bonds

  • Covalent Bonds, Ionic Bonds, Hydrogen Bonds, Van der Waals Forces

  • Van der Waals Forces, Ionic Bonds, Hydrogen Bonds, Covalent Bonds

  • Covalent Bonds, Hydrogen Bonds, Ionic Bonds, Van der Waals Forces

Explanation

Question 16 of 122

1

Why are antidotes, antacids and laxatives unusual drugs?

Select one of the following:

  • They do not target proteins, they simply act by virtue of their physiochemical properties.

  • They target more than one type of protein.

  • They are never metabolised by the body, they stay unchanged in the liver forever.

  • They are always available as over the counter medicines.

  • They do not have to be licensed.

Explanation

Question 17 of 122

1

What is the target of an antidote?

Select one of the following:

  • Hormone

  • Ion Channel

  • Enzyme

  • Poison

Explanation

Question 18 of 122

1

Drugs that act on receptors...

Select one of the following:

  • always activate the receptor.

  • either activate the receptor or stop something else from activating it.

  • block the receptor.

  • denature the receptor.

Explanation

Question 19 of 122

1

Drugs that act on ion channels...

Select one or more of the following:

  • can block the channel.

  • can modulate the opening and closing of the channel.

  • can denature the channel.

  • can stimulate the production of many more channels than normal.

  • can break down the ion that normally uses the channel.

Explanation

Question 20 of 122

1

Drugs that act on enzymes...

Select one of the following:

  • either inhibit the enzyme or act as a false substrate.

  • block the enzymes active site.

  • denature the enzyme.

  • cause the release of neurotransmitter.

  • activate the enzyme.

Explanation

Question 21 of 122

1

Agonists are ligands. Which of these can be examples of ligands?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Drugs

  • Hormones

  • Neurotransmitters

  • Enzymes

  • Ion Channels

Explanation

Question 22 of 122

1

An antagonist is...

Select one of the following:

  • a drug which blocks the response to an agonist.

  • a drug that combines with a receptor to elicit a cellular response.

  • a drug that binds with an ion channel.

Explanation

Question 23 of 122

1

Receptors within a given family generally occur in several molecular varieties (subtypes). They often have similar structures but very different pharmacological responses.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 24 of 122

1

All drug targets can be considered generally as...

Select one of the following:

  • receptors.

  • ion channels.

  • enzymes.

  • carriers.

Explanation

Question 25 of 122

1

Receptor subtypes are identified on the basis of selectivity of agonists and/or antagonists. What technique is used to determine this?

Select one of the following:

  • ligand binding assay

  • plaque assay

  • ELISA

  • dose/response curve

Explanation

Question 26 of 122

1

Channel linked (ionotrophic) receptors can be...

Select one or more of the following:

  • ligand gated

  • voltage gated

  • temperature gated

  • concentration gated

  • time centred

Explanation

Question 27 of 122

1

Ligand gated ion channels require...

Select one of the following:

  • an agonist to open the channel.

  • energy (in the form of ATP) to open the channel.

  • an antagonist to open the channel.

Explanation

Question 28 of 122

1

Voltage gated ion channels are not linked to receptors.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 29 of 122

1

Which of these are true of voltage gated ion channels?

Select one or more of the following:

  • They are not linked to receptors.

  • They require a change in electrical charge across a membrane in order to open and close.

  • They can be blocked by antagonist drugs.

  • There are binding sites for agonist drugs.

  • They are linked to G-protein coupled receptors.

  • They require an agonist to open the channel.

Explanation

Question 30 of 122

1

How many transmembrane helices do G-Protein coupled receptors have?

Select one of the following:

  • 1

  • 3

  • 5

  • 7

  • 9

Explanation

Question 31 of 122

1

What is another name for G-Protein coupled receptors?

Select one of the following:

  • Ionotrophic

  • Metabotrophic

  • Kinase

Explanation

Question 32 of 122

1

How many subunits do G-Protein coupled receptors have?

Select one of the following:

  • 1

  • 3

  • 5

  • 7

  • 9

Explanation

Question 33 of 122

1

What are the subunits of a G-Protein coupled receptor?

Select one or more of the following:

  • alpha

  • beta

  • gamma

  • theta

  • delta

  • eta

  • zeta

  • omega

Explanation

Question 34 of 122

1

Which subunit of a G-Protein receptor alters between different receptors, giving variation?

Select one of the following:

  • Alpha

  • Beta

  • Gamma

  • Eta

  • Zeta

Explanation

Question 35 of 122

1

What do Gs receptors do?

Select one of the following:

  • activate adenyl cyclase and Ca2+ channels

  • inhibit adenyl cyclase and activate K+ channels

  • activate phospholipase C

Explanation

Question 36 of 122

1

What do Gi G-Protein receptors do?

Select one of the following:

  • activate adenyl cyclase and Ca2+ channels

  • inhibit adenyl cyclase and activate K+ channels

  • activate phospholipase C

Explanation

Question 37 of 122

1

What do Gq receptors do?

Select one of the following:

  • activate adenyl cyclase and Ca2+ channels

  • inhibit adenyl cyclase and activate K+ channels

  • activate phospholipase C

Explanation

Question 38 of 122

1

Another name for enzyme linked receptors is kinase linked receptors.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 39 of 122

1

How many transmembrane domains do kinase linked receptors have?

Select one of the following:

  • 1

  • 3

  • 5

  • 7

  • 9

Explanation

Question 40 of 122

1

Guanylyl cyclase-linked and cytokine are types of...

Select one of the following:

  • G-Protein linked receptor

  • Kinase linked receptor

  • Ion channel

Explanation

Question 41 of 122

1

There are four main types of kinase linked receptor, these are:
receptor tyrosine kinase
serine/threonine kinase
cytokine
guanylyl cyclase - linked

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 42 of 122

1

The mode of action of kinase linked receptors is:

Select one of the following:

  • ligand binding ➨ dimerisation ➨ autophosphorylation

  • dimerisation ➨ ligand binding ➨ autophosphorylation

  • ligand binding ➨ autophosphorylation ➨ dimerisation

  • change in membrane potential ➨ autophosphorylation ➨ dimerisation

  • change in membrane potential ➨ dimerisation ➨ autophosphorylation

Explanation

Question 43 of 122

1

Nuclear receptors are insoluble receptors.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 44 of 122

1

There are two classes of nuclear receptors. Class 1 receptors...

Select one or more of the following:

  • are located in the cytoplasm

  • are located in the nucleus

  • form homodimers (dimers with other receptors of the same type)

  • form heterodimers

  • have endocrine ligands (steroids/hormones)

  • have lipid (fatty acid) ligands

  • have a positive feedback effect

Explanation

Question 45 of 122

1

Nuclear receptors are harder to target with drugs because...

Select one of the following:

  • they are intracellular.

  • they are extracellular.

  • they require ATP to be activated.

  • they are millions of different types of them.

Explanation

Question 46 of 122

1

The binding of hormone response elements to nuclear receptors directly initiates changes in what process?

Select one of the following:

  • Gene Transcription

  • Gene Translation

  • Protein Degredation

  • Apoptosis

  • Acidosis

Explanation

Question 47 of 122

1

Drug binding to nuclear receptors has rapid and dramatic effects.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 48 of 122

1

Most receptors have multiple binding sites, what are the two kinds of sites that drugs can target?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Orthosteric

  • Allosteric

  • Metabotrophic

  • Ionotrophic

  • Left side

  • Primary

Explanation

Question 49 of 122

1

Orthosteric binding sites...

Select one of the following:

  • house full and partial agonists, and reversible competitive antagonists.

  • bind positive and negative, non competitive antagonists.

Explanation

Question 50 of 122

1

Allosteric binding sites...

Select one of the following:

  • house full and partial agonists, and reversible competitive antagonists.

  • bind positive and negative, non competitive antagonists.

Explanation

Question 51 of 122

1

An agonist is...

Select one of the following:

  • a ligand that combines with receptors to elicit a cellular response.

  • a ligand that served to block the effect of other ligands which combine with receptors to elicit a cellular response.

Explanation

Question 52 of 122

1

Dose/response curves are similar to concentration/effect curves.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 53 of 122

1

Dose/response curves are semi logarithmic. The correct set up of the graph is...

Select one of the following:

  • X axis : [log] drug dose
    Y axis : % response

  • X axis : [log] agonist concentration
    Y axis : measure of response

  • X axis : % response
    Y axis : [log] drug dose

  • X axis : measure of response
    Y axis : [log] agonist concentration

Explanation

Question 54 of 122

1

Graded relationships use Concentration/Effect curves and are used to show...

Select one of the following:

  • the response of a particular system to a drug at varying concentrations.

  • the drug dose required to produce a specified response in each member of a population.

Explanation

Question 55 of 122

1

Quantal relationships use Dose/Response curves and are used to show...

Select one of the following:

  • the drug dose required to produce a specified response in each member of a population.

  • the response of a particular system to varying concentrations of an agonist.

Explanation

Question 56 of 122

1

Why plot a concentration effect curve?

Select one or more of the following:

  • you can estimate Emax

  • you can estimate EC50 and ED50

  • you can compare the efficacy and potency of different drugs

  • you can calculate Emax

  • you can calculate half life

  • you can estimate clearance

Explanation

Question 57 of 122

1

KD is a physiochemical constant and is the same for a drug/receptor combination in any species, anywhere in the universe.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 58 of 122

1

KD can be used to determine an unknown receptor.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 59 of 122

1

KD can be used to quantitatively compare the ___________ of different drugs on the same receptor.

Select one of the following:

  • affinity

  • efficacy

Explanation

Question 60 of 122

1

The ________ the KD the greater the potency.

Select one of the following:

  • lower

  • higher

Explanation

Question 61 of 122

1

The lower the EC50 the ________ the potency.

Select one of the following:

  • greater

  • lower

Explanation

Question 62 of 122

1

Efficacy describes...

Select one of the following:

  • the ability of an agonist to activate a receptor (refers to the maximum effect an agonist can produce regardless of dose).

  • the likelihood the an agonist will bind to a receptor (refers to the maximum binding of an agonist regardless of dose).

Explanation

Question 63 of 122

1

Full agonists have...

Select one of the following:

  • high efficacy (AR* is very likely)

  • low efficacy (AR* is unlikely)

Explanation

Question 64 of 122

1

Partial agonists have...

Select one of the following:

  • low efficacy (AR* is less likely).

  • high efficacy (AR* is very likely)

Explanation

Question 65 of 122

1

Antagonists are...

Select one of the following:

  • drugs which block the response to an agonist.

  • the same as agonists.

  • endogenous molecules like hormones and neurotransmitters.

Explanation

Question 66 of 122

1

Pure agonists cause a cellular effect by binding to a receptor.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 67 of 122

1

There three classes of antagonist. What are they?

Select one or more of the following:

  • chemical

  • physiological

  • pharmacological

  • enterohepatic

  • primary

  • active site

Explanation

Question 68 of 122

1

Pharmacological antagonists are also known as "receptor antagonists".

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 69 of 122

1

Which class of antagonists are also known as "chelating agents"?

Select one of the following:

  • chemical

  • physiological

  • pharmacological

Explanation

Question 70 of 122

1

Competitive antagonists bind to the ____________ site of a receptor.

Select one of the following:

  • active

  • allosteric

Explanation

Question 71 of 122

1

Non competitive antagonists bind to the ___________ site of receptors.

Select one of the following:

  • allosteric

  • active

Explanation

Question 72 of 122

1

Reversible competitive antagonists...

Select one of the following:

  • directly compete with agonists for binding at the active site.

  • block the active site permanently because they form covalent bonds with it. The receptor must be replaced before more agonist can bind.

  • reversibly bind to an allosteric site on the receptor, altering binding at the active site.

  • irreversibly bind at an allosteric site, permanently altering the active site.

Explanation

Question 73 of 122

1

Irreversible competitive antagonists...

Select one of the following:

  • reversibly bind to an allosteric site on the receptor, altering binding at the active site.

  • irreversibly bind at an allosteric site, permanently altering the active site.

  • block the active site permanently because they form covalent bonds with it. The receptor must be replaced before more agonist can bind.

  • directly compete with agonists for binding at the active site.

Explanation

Question 74 of 122

1

Non competitive reversible antagonists...

Select one of the following:

  • reversibly bind to an allosteric site on the receptor, altering binding at the active site.

  • irreversibly bind at an allosteric site, permanently altering the active site.

  • block the active site permanently because they form covalent bonds with it. The receptor must be replaced before more agonist can bind.

  • directly compete with agonists for binding at the active site.

Explanation

Question 75 of 122

1

Irreversible non competitive antagonists...

Select one of the following:

  • reversibly bind to an allosteric site on the receptor, altering binding at the active site.

  • block the active site permanently because they form covalent bonds with it. The receptor must be replaced before more agonist can bind.

  • irreversibly bind at an allosteric site, permanently altering the active site.

  • directly compete with agonists for binding at the active site.

Explanation

Question 76 of 122

1

Antagonists have no efficacy.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 77 of 122

1

The effect of reversible competitive antagonists...

Select one or more of the following:

  • can be overcome with increased agonist concentration.

  • causes a shift to the right on the agonist response curve.

  • causes reduced maximum response on the agonist response curve.

  • reduces slope of the agonist response curve.

  • is due to covalent binding with the active site.

Explanation

Question 78 of 122

1

The effect of irreversible competitive antagonists...

Select one or more of the following:

  • can be overcome with increased agonist concentration.

  • causes a shift to the right on the agonist response curve.

  • causes reduced maximum response on the agonist response curve.

  • is due to covalent bonding at the active site.

  • reduces slope on the agonist response curve.

Explanation

Question 79 of 122

1

Non-competitive antagonist effects...

Select one or more of the following:

  • cause reduced slope of the agonist response curve.

  • cause a shift to the right of the agonist response curve.

  • cause reduced maximum response on the agonist response curve.

Explanation

Question 80 of 122

1

Water soluble molecules cross membranes easier so are more rapidly absorbed than their lipid soluble counterparts.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 81 of 122

1

Uncharged molecules are absorbed easier than charged molecules.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 82 of 122

1

The route of administration of a drug is determined by...

Select one or more of the following:

  • physiochemical/pharmacokinetic properties of the drug

  • therapeutic objectives

  • patient preference

Explanation

Question 83 of 122

1

The parenteral route of administration (injected) is used for...

Select one or more of the following:

  • drugs that are poorly absorbed by or are unstable in the GI tract.

  • drugs that require rapid onset of action.

  • drugs that require slow onset of action.

  • for drugs that require a high level of control over dose.

Explanation

Question 84 of 122

1

Select the correct definitions:

Select one or more of the following:

  • bolus: all at once

  • infusion: over time

  • depot: solid/oil

  • bolus: over time

  • bolus: solid/oil

  • infusion: solid/oil

  • infusion: all at once

Explanation

Question 85 of 122

1

Sub routes of the parenteral route include...

Select one or more of the following:

  • intravenous

  • intramuscular

  • subcutaneous

  • submuscular

  • thyroidal

  • femural

Explanation

Question 86 of 122

1

What is the most important site of absorption in the body?

Select one of the following:

  • Stomach

  • Small Intestine

  • Large Intestine

Explanation

Question 87 of 122

1

Which of the following are properties of the small intestine that help it to absorb drugs?

Select one or more of the following:

  • large, highly permeable surface area

  • varies in pH along it's length

  • constant pH

  • enterocytes contain drug metabolising enzymes

  • enterocytes contain transporters in their membranes

  • tought, flat surface area

  • contains stomach acid

  • it is very short in length

Explanation

Question 88 of 122

1

The rectal route of administration is used when...

Select one or more of the following:

  • the drug causes vomiting

  • the patient is vomiting

  • the drug is excreted in the urine

  • the patient has a low blood count

Explanation

Question 89 of 122

1

Which of these is true of the vaginal route of drug administration?

Select one or more of the following:

  • It bypasses first pass metabolism.

  • It bypasses 2/3 of first pass metabolism.

  • It has a rich blood supply.

  • pH can vary.

  • pH is always around 8.

Explanation

Question 90 of 122

1

Which of these is true of the transdermal route of drug administration?

Select one or more of the following:

  • It has very slow absorption giving a continuous slow release of drug.

  • It has very fast local absorption giving a rapid release of the drug to a small area.

Explanation

Question 91 of 122

1

Drugs given as an inhaled substance are generally intended to be distributed via the systemic circulation.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 92 of 122

1

How well a drug is absorbed when it is inhaled, depends strongly on particle size.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 93 of 122

1

First pass metabolism occurs in both the _________ and ___________ . It occurs when a drug is metabolised before entering the ________________ .

Select one or more of the following:

  • liver

  • intestine

  • systemic circulation

  • pulmonary circulation

  • heart

  • kidneys

Explanation

Question 94 of 122

1

Factors affecting absorption include:

Select one or more of the following:

  • Formulation of the drug

  • Charge on the drug

  • Blood flow to the site of absorption

  • Surface area of the site of absorption

  • Contact time at absorptive surface

  • Gastric emptying

  • Cost of drug

  • Kidney function

Explanation

Question 95 of 122

1

Which of the correct description of this pharmacokinetic parameter?

Cmax

Select one of the following:

  • maximum concentration of a compound after administration

  • time at which Cmax is reached

  • area under the concentration/time curve

  • measure of the extent of absorption

  • absorption rate constant

Explanation

Question 96 of 122

1

Which of the correct description of this pharmacokinetic parameter?

Tmax

Select one of the following:

  • maximum concentration of a compound after administration

  • time at which Cmax is reached

  • area under the concentration time curve (considered a measure of systemic exposure)

  • measure of the extent of absorption compared to IV

  • absorption rate constant (a measure of the speed of absorption)

Explanation

Question 97 of 122

1

Which of the correct description of this pharmacokinetic parameter?

AUC

Select one of the following:

  • maximum concentration of a compound after administration

  • time at which Cmax is reached

  • area under the concentration/time curve (considered a measure of systemic exposure)

  • measure of the extent of absorption compared to IV

  • absorption rate constant (a measure of the speed of absorption)

Explanation

Question 98 of 122

1

Which of the correct description of this pharmacokinetic parameter?

F (Bioavailability)

Select one of the following:

  • maximum concentration of a compound after administration

  • time at which Cmax is reached

  • area under the concentration/time curve (considered a measure of systemic exposure)

  • measure of extent of absorption compared to IV

  • absorption rate constant (a measure of the speed of absorption)

Explanation

Question 99 of 122

1

Which of the correct description of this pharmacokinetic parameter?

Ka

Select one of the following:

  • maximum concentration of compound after administration

  • time at which Cmax is reached

  • area under the concentration/time curve (considered a measure of systemic exposure)

  • measure of extent of absorption compared to IV

  • absorption rate constant (a measure of the speed of absorption)

Explanation

Question 100 of 122

1

What is the correct equation for calculating Bioavailability?

Select one of the following:

  • F = (AUC oral/AUC IV) x (dose IV/dose oral)

  • F = (AUC IV/AUC oral) x (dose oral/dose IV)

Explanation

Question 101 of 122

1

A drugs ability to distribute around the body depends on...

Select one or more of the following:

  • it's ability to cross cell membranes (based on physiochemical properties)

  • the amount of blood flow to individual tissues (perfusion)

  • the extent of its plasma protein binding

  • the site of administration

  • CYP polymorphisms

Explanation

Question 102 of 122

1

Drugs with a high molecular weight and/or high degree of binding to plasma proteins will...

Select one of the following:

  • distribute quickly into tissues and organs.

  • tend to stay in the systemic circulation rather than distribute into tissues and organs.

Explanation

Question 103 of 122

1

Albumin...

Select one or more of the following:

  • is produced by the liver

  • binds mostly acidic and some neutral drugs

  • concentration is decreased in malnutrition and cirrhosis

  • is normally present at around 3.5-5g/L

  • binds basic and some neutral drugs

  • is normally present at around 0.4-1.1mg/L

Explanation

Question 104 of 122

1

Alpha 1 acid glycoprotein...

Select one or more of the following:

  • is a plasma protein

  • is produced by the kidneys

  • is produced by the liver

  • binds basic and some neutral drugs

  • binds acidic drugs

  • is present at around 0.4-1.1mg/L

  • is present at around 3.5-5g/L

  • is an acute phase protein which elevated in some diseases such as cancer

Explanation

Question 105 of 122

1

Albumin is also known as HSA.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 106 of 122

1

Only unbound (free) fraction of drug in the plasma is free to partition into cells.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 107 of 122

1

What distribution parameter is being described below?

A measure of the extent of distribution.
A 'dilution factor', representing the relationship between the amount of compound in the body and the plasma concentration.
Expressed in units of volume or volume per weight e.g. L/Kg.
Many ways to calculate but basically it is equal to: total amount of drug in the body/drug blood plasma concentration.

Select one of the following:

  • Volume of Distribution (VD)

  • Clearance (CL)

  • Cmax

  • Tmax

  • AUC

  • F

Explanation

Question 108 of 122

1

Volatile gases are eliminated...

Select one of the following:

  • by exhalation

  • in the urine

  • in faeces

  • after metabolism forming water soluble metabolites

Explanation

Question 109 of 122

1

Water soluble compounds are...

Select one of the following:

  • often eliminated unchanged in the urine.

  • eliminated in the urine or bile after metabolism to make them more water soluble.

  • always stored in the body.

  • eliminated by exhalation.

Explanation

Question 110 of 122

1

Lipid soluble compounds...

Select one of the following:

  • typically undergo metabolism to form water soluble metabolites before elimination.

  • are eliminated unchanged.

  • are stored as starch.

  • are eliminated by a process called first pass metabolism.

Explanation

Question 111 of 122

1

The best measure of the ability of eliminating organs to remove a drug from the body is...

Select one of the following:

  • Clearance (CL)

  • Elimination Rate Constant (Ke)

  • Half-life

Explanation

Question 112 of 122

1

Clearance can be defined as...

Select one of the following:

  • the volume of plasma (or blood) cleared of the compound in a given time. (e.g. L/hr)

  • how long it takes for half of the drug to be eliminated.

  • the process by which the body metabolises a drug.

Explanation

Question 113 of 122

1

The elimination rate constant...

Select one or more of the following:

  • is known as Ke.

  • is the slope of the logged concentration-time graph.

  • has units of 1/time.

  • is linked to Ka.

  • is not relevant in humans.

Explanation

Question 114 of 122

1

Half-life is...

Select one of the following:

  • the time it takes for the concentration of active drug to reach half its current value.

  • half the time taken for all of the drug to be eliminated.

Explanation

Question 115 of 122

1

Cytochrome P450 enzymes...

Select one or more of the following:

  • are a large superfamily of heme-cofactor containing enzymes.

  • metabolise thousands of endogenous and exogenous compounds.

  • are abbreviated to CYPs.

  • are mostly highly concentrated in the heart and lungs.

  • are found in the cytoplasm of cells.

Explanation

Question 116 of 122

1

CYPs are only found in the endoplasmic reticulum of cells.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 117 of 122

1

The largest concentration of CYPs in the human body is in the liver, in hepatocytes.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 118 of 122

1

In phase 1 drug metabolism...

Select one of the following:

  • CYPs add a reactive functional group (e.g. -OH) to the active drug compound.

  • CYPs cleave active drug compounds to make them unreactive.

  • CYPs are not involved.

Explanation

Question 119 of 122

1

Inhibition of CYPs causes:

Select one or more of the following:

  • reduced metabolism of substrate drug

  • increased metabolism of substrate drug

  • increased drug exposure

  • reduced drug exposure

  • risk of toxicity

  • risk of lacking therapeutic effect

Explanation

Question 120 of 122

1

Induction of CYPs causes:

Select one or more of the following:

  • increase in biosynthesis of the enzymes (due to increased gene transcription)

  • increased metabolism of substrate

  • decreased metabolism of substrate

  • increased drug exposure

  • decreased drug exposure

  • toxicity risk

  • risk of lack of therapeutic effects

Explanation

Question 121 of 122

1

If phase 1 metabolites are too lipophilic they cannot be retained in kidney tubular fluid. They must be reacted with an endogenous substrate to make them more water soluble. What is the name of this reaction?

Select one of the following:

  • Conjugation

  • Acid/Base

  • Esterification

  • Elimination

Explanation

Question 122 of 122

1

If phase 1 metabolites are too lipophilic they cannot be retained in kidney tubular fluid. They must be reacted with an endogenous substrate to make them more water soluble. Which of these are examples of those endogenous substrates?

Select one or more of the following:

  • sulphuric acid

  • amino acids

  • glucuronic acid

Explanation

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