IBS Set 2 Quiz - Cell proliferation and Fluid compartments

Question 1 of 49

1

G1 describes what stage of the cell cycle?

Select one of the following:

Preparation for DNA synthesis
DNA synthesis
Proofreading of DNA synthesis
Mitosis

Explanation

Question 2 of 49

1

S phase describes what stage of the cell cycle?

Select one of the following:

Preparation for DNA synthesis
DNA synthesis
Proofreading of DNA synthesis
Mitosis

Explanation

Question 3 of 49

1

G2 describes what stage of the cell cycle?

Select one of the following:

Preparation for DNA synthesis
DNA synthesis
Proofreading of DNA synthesis
Mitosis

Explanation

Question 4 of 49

1

M phase describes what stage of the cell cycle?

Select one of the following:

Preparation for DNA synthesis
DNA synthesis
Proofreading of DNA synthesis
Mitosis

Explanation

Question 5 of 49

1

What is mitotic spindle composed of?

Select one or more of the following:

Microtubules
MTAP's
Intermediate filaments
Actin filaments
Centrioles

Explanation

Question 6 of 49

1

When does chromosome packaging occur?

Select one of the following:

In S phase after DNA replication
After S phase
In M phase
In G1

Explanation

Question 7 of 49

1

There are many histone genes that can make lots of histones to match the production of DNA during S phase.

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 8 of 49

1

What is the process of mitosis?

Select one of the following:

Prophase (microtubules disassemble and reassociate at centrioles) -> Metaphase (nuclear envelope breaks down and kinetochores develop and spindle fibres attach to them) -> Anaphase (chromosomes seperate and chromatids are pulled to opposite ends of the cell) -> Telophase (new nuclear envelope forms, condensed chromatin expands and nucleoli reappear).
Metaphase (nuclear envelope breaks down and kinetochores develop and spindle fibres attach to them) -> Prophase (microtubules disassemble and reassociate at centrioles) -> Anaphase (chromosomes seperate and chromatids are pulled to opposite ends of the cell) -> Telophase (new nuclear envelope forms, condensed chromatin expands and nucleoli reappear).

Explanation

Question 9 of 49

1

SPACER - CELL PROLIF 1,2,3 CONTINUE AFTER FLUID COMPARTMENTS

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 10 of 49

1

What are the three main fluid compartments in the body?

Select one or more of the following:

Interstitial fluid
Blood plasma
Intracellular fluid
Intercellular fluid
Red blood cells

Explanation

Question 11 of 49

1

[K+] in interstitial fluid > [K+] in the intracellular fluid

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 12 of 49

1

Osmolarity takes into the concentration of what two types of solutes?

Select one or more of the following:

Non-permeable
Permeable
Ionising
Suspending

Explanation

Question 13 of 49

1

In normal conditions the ICF and ECF tend to be in equilibrium at an osmolarity of around ~289mOsmol/L

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 14 of 49

1

A 300Mm solution of glucose = A 300Mm solution of NaCl

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 15 of 49

1

If there is not osmotic balance, how can the cell try to bring back balance?

Select one of the following:

Selective opening and closing of ion channels
Opening all the ion channels
Pumping water out via active transport pumps

Explanation

Question 16 of 49

1

Tonicity only considers which type of solute?

Select one of the following:

Non-permeable
Permeable
Ionising
Suspending

Explanation

Question 17 of 49

1

The osmotic pressure is dependent on the total concentration of all solutes.

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 18 of 49

1

The osmotic pressure is the pressure applied to prevent inward flow of water across a semi-permeable membrane.

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 19 of 49

1

With osmolarity problems, the permeable solute will move to concentrations of lower permeable solute. With tonicity problems, water will move to the area with the highest concentration of non-permeable solute.

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 20 of 49

1

A small change in the concentration of organic ions creates a small potential difference across the membrane.

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 21 of 49

1

If K+ leaves the cell, the negative charge created in the cell will attract the positive K+ back into the cell and therefore there is typically no net movement of ions.

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 22 of 49

1

Why is Goldmann's equation more useful than Nernst's?

Select one of the following:

Goldmann's equation takes into account all of the organic ions that are involved in the resting membrane potential and also their permeabilities whereas Nernst's only takes into account one type of ion and not the permeability.
Nernst's equation takes into account all of the organic ions that are involved in the resting membrane potential and also their permeabilities whereas Goldmann's only takes into account one type of ion and not the permeability.

Explanation

Question 23 of 49

1

Ions with a greater concentration outside of the cell always have a negative equilibrium potential.

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 24 of 49

1

Ions with a greater concentration inside the cell always have a negative equilibrium potential.

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 25 of 49

1

The RMP of a cell is closest to potassium because potassium is the most permeable ion. RMP is determined by the membranes high permeability to potassium.

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 26 of 49

1

Necrosis damages surrounding cells because of hydrolytic enzyme release from what organelle?

Select one of the following:

Lysosomes
Peroxisomes
Mitochondria
Golgi apparatus

Explanation

Question 27 of 49

1

Apoptosis is...?

Select one of the following:

Controlled cell death
Uncontrolled cell death

Explanation

Question 28 of 49

1

What is happening in the first stage of apoptosis?

Select one or more of the following:

The cell shrivels
The nucleus fragments
The plasma membrane breaks down
Cytochrome C is released from the mitochondria
Apoptotic bodies are produced and macrophages engulf them via phagocytosis

Explanation

Question 29 of 49

1

What is happening in the second stage of apoptosis?

Select one or more of the following:

The cell shrivels
The nucleus fragments
The plasma membrane breaks down
Cytochrome C is released from the mitochondria
Apoptotic bodies are produced and macrophages engulf them via phagocytosis

Explanation

Question 30 of 49

1

What is happening in the third stage of apoptosis?

Select one or more of the following:

The cell shrivels
The nucleus fragments
The plasma membrane breaks down
Cytochrome C is released from the mitochondria
Apoptotic bodies are produced and macrophages engulf them via phagocytosis

Explanation

Question 31 of 49

1

The ECM are basement membrane are needed for development of cells. Without these factors, the cell has a disorganised structure.

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 32 of 49

1

Why do burns victims not have a good prognosis?

Select one of the following:

The basement membrane is sometimes destroyed which contains stem cells. Absence of these stem cells means that cell proliferation cannot take place and thus skin doesn't regrow.
The cytoskeleton is sometimes destroyed which contains stem cells. Absence of these stem cells means that cell proliferation cannot take place and thus skin doesn't regrow.
The granular layer of epidermis is sometimes destroyed which contains stem cells. Absence of these stem cells means that cell proliferation cannot take place and thus skin doesn't regrow.

Explanation

Question 33 of 49

1

Integrins are heterodimeric receptors that are bound to ECM trigger active intracellular responses that impact on cell proliferation / attachments.

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 34 of 49

1

Various cell factors may tell the cell to do which of the following things?

Select one or more of the following:

Proliferate (Growth factors)
Become dormant (Survival factors)
Differentiate (Differentiation factors)
Undergo apoptosis (Death signal)
Necrotise (Necrotic factors)
Expand (Expansive factor)

Explanation

Question 35 of 49

1

Mitogenic growth factors have effect from the start of G1 until which stage of the cell cycle?

Select one of the following:

S phase
G1
G2
M
R point - 3/4 through G1

Explanation

Question 36 of 49

1

When growth factors bind to tyrosine kinase receptors, what happens intracellularly?

Select one of the following:

Tyr residues are phosphorylated which generates internal effects
Tyr residues are dephosphorylated which generates internal effects

Explanation

Question 37 of 49

1

Phosphorylation of Tyr residues produces intracellular effects

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 38 of 49

1

Tyrosine phosphorylation is associated with cancer cell death.

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 39 of 49

1

Proteins recognise phosphorylated tyrosine domains. GDP is then substituted for GTP in RAS. Why is the hydrolysis of GTP important?

Select one of the following:

It terminates cell proliferation signals which prevents excessive cell proliferation.
GTP hydrolysis occurs in cancer and leads to excessive cell proliferation.

Explanation

Question 40 of 49

1

Without checkpoints that regulate the cell cycle, such as the role of TGF-b, loss of checkpoints occur and genomic instability and thus cell proliferation occurs.

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 41 of 49

1

Cyclin proteins increase the quantity of Cyclin dependent kinases.

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 42 of 49

1

Growth factors and Integrins result in Cyclin D production which helps to progress the cell through the cell cycle

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 43 of 49

1

pRb is the guardian of S phase.

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 44 of 49

1

The function of CDK inhibitors such as p21 is to inhibit the cell cycle and prevent excessive cell proliferation (e.g. if damaged DNA is detected).

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 45 of 49

1

If a CDK inhibitor is translocated from the cytoplasm to the nucleus, its inhibitory effect is stopped.

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 46 of 49

1

What are triggers for apoptosis to occur?

Select one or more of the following:

Breakages in DNA strands
Hypoxia
Unregulated growth factor signals
Hypercapnia
Hyperkalaemia

Explanation

Question 47 of 49

1

Which protein receives information about metabolic disorders and genetic damage within the cell and initiates repair (minor) or apoptosis (major)?

Select one of the following:

P53
pRb
P21

Explanation

Question 48 of 49

1

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