Tess Nicholson
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Practice Final part 3

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Tess Nicholson
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Final Exam Part 3: GBCC Nursing 112

Final Exam Part 3: GBCC Nursing 112

Question 1 of 64

1

Nurses who study the incidences of diabetes in the United States would most likely be what type of nurse?

Select one of the following:

  • Community Health nurse

  • WHO nurse

  • VNA nurse

  • Public Health Nurse

Explanation

Question 2 of 64

1

In community assessment transportation, water and sanitation and housing all fit under the category of

Select one of the following:

  • Structure

  • population

  • Social system

Explanation

Question 3 of 64

1

Mortality is to the measurement of deaths as morbidity is to the measurement of_______

Select one of the following:

  • pathogens

  • invasiveness

  • host factors

  • disease and injury

Explanation

Question 4 of 64

1

Ebola was a disease that had never occurred before in the USA. When Ebola broke out in Africa and moved to the United States through healthcare workers; The news was reporting on how many new people were getting the disease.....they were reporting the __________ of Ebola in America.

Select one of the following:

  • host factors

  • Prevalence

  • Incidence

  • colonization

Explanation

Question 5 of 64

1

Select all parts of the epidemiologic triangle

Select one or more of the following:

  • agent

  • epidemic

  • invasiveness

  • Host factors

  • virulence

  • environmental factors

Explanation

Question 6 of 64

1

Breast feeding has been shown too: (select 4)

Select one or more of the following:

  • decrease severity of diarrhea

  • decrease incidence of lower respiratory infection

  • prevent heart murmurs

  • be protective against allergies

  • prevent autism

  • decrease postpartum bleeding for mom

Explanation

Question 7 of 64

1

A well educated breast feeding mother 4 hours post delivery is very tired and is not able to sustain breastfeeding for a long time. She expresses concern that she won't let down milk because she can't breastfeed for a sustained period of time. A key thing to inform the mother about lactogenesis this early on is?

Select one of the following:

  • It is good for the baby to practice sucking even though you won't let down milk just yet.

  • Frequency of feedings not the duration of feedings is what is responsible for milk production.

  • We can give you medications to help with milk production since you're too tired to feed your baby.

Explanation

Question 8 of 64

1

Characteristics of colostrum that make it different from mature milk include: (pick3)

Select one or more of the following:

  • produced during pregnancy and 4 days pospartum

  • bluish-white

  • thick, creamy and yellow

  • rich in proteins and immunoglobulins

  • has higher fat then mature milk

Explanation

Question 9 of 64

1

An obese mother with very large breasts is having trouble breast feeding her infant. The nurse could suggest using the breast C hold and which position based on her body type?

Select one of the following:

  • Side lying

  • Cradle hold

  • Football hold

  • Cross-Cradle hold

Explanation

Question 10 of 64

1

A mother is very distraught that her baby isnt getting milk. The nurse is watching her breastfeed. Signs of milk transfer that the nurse should point out to ease the mother's concerns include all but which of the following?

Select one of the following:

  • When the mother gets thirsty

  • audible swallowing of infant

  • Milk leaking from the opposite breast while feeding

  • breast softening while feeding

  • Rooting Reflex

Explanation

Question 11 of 64

1

The T in LATCH stands for what?

Select one of the following:

  • Timing

  • Type of nipple

  • Torn skin

  • Tiredness

Explanation

Question 12 of 64

1

Mouth open wide with lips flanged outward and visible
complete seal formed by mouth on breast
troughed tongue
................... these are all assessments during which stage of SAIB (Systematic Assessment Of Infant At Breast)

Select one of the following:

  • SAIB 1: alignment/ positioning

  • SAIB 2: Areola Latchon

  • SAIB 3: Areola Compression/Sucking

  • SAIB 4: Audible Swallowing

Explanation

Question 13 of 64

1

A normal newborn feeds a minimum of ___________ in 24 hours and voids approximately _______ times a day

Select one of the following:

  • 10-12; 10

  • 9-12, 16

  • 8-12, 8

  • 20, 50

Explanation

Question 14 of 64

1

Prolonged Pregnancies (pregnancies greater than 40-42 weeks) are associated with which of the following (pick 4)

Select one or more of the following:

  • neonate born with excessive lanugo

  • decreased vernix leading to dry parchment-like skin

  • r/f uteroplacental insufficiency

  • r/f meconium aspiration

  • absent rooting reflex

  • hypoglycemia of newborn

Explanation

Question 15 of 64

1

Nursing interventions for Prolapsed Cord include:

Select one or more of the following:

  • When fetal bradycardia occurs, perform vaginal exam

  • Prolapse into vagina= exert upward pressure on presenting part to lift part off cord

  • If cord protrudes outside of vagina= gently replace cord

  • Hands and knees position for mom to get pressure off cord

  • Administer Oxygen

  • DONT call doctor

Explanation

Question 16 of 64

1

A labor has just been complicated by Turtle Sign of the infant... This is associated with ____________________ and the least invasive intervention to try first to correct he problem would be ___________________.

Select one or more of the following:

  • precipitous labor

  • shoulder dystocia

  • Wood's screw maneuver

  • McRobert's Position

Explanation

Question 17 of 64

1

Assessment Findings associated with anaphylactoid Syndrome of Pregnancy (ASP) include all but which of the following

Select one of the following:

  • Sudden onset respiratory distress

  • htn

  • hypotension

  • cyanosis

  • pulmonary edema

  • Signs and Symptoms of Shock

Explanation

Question 18 of 64

1

Premature rupture of membranes, Postmature pregnancy, preeclampsia/eclampsia, and diabetes in a labor with no Cephalopelvic disproportions are all....

Select one of the following:

  • conditions that require emergency C-sections

  • indications for induction of labor

  • conditions that put the baby at severe risk for chromosomal anomalies

Explanation

Question 19 of 64

1

Identify the two women with Bishop Scores that would be most successful

Select one or more of the following:

  • Mom with 4 previous pregnancies with a bishop score of 4

  • Mom with 2 previous pregnancies with a bishop score of 6

  • First time mom with a bishop score of 5

  • First time mom with a bishop score of 9

Explanation

Question 20 of 64

1

Amnitomy is procedure to artificially rupture membranes

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 21 of 64

1

Dinoprostone (Prepidil) select the right information associated with this cervical ripening drug: (pick 3)

Select one or more of the following:

  • Contraindicated with asthma, htn, glaucoma

  • Contraindicated in women with C-section hx

  • Dose: 2.5mg vaginalls or .5mg to cervix, repeat 6-12hours

  • Dose: 10mg vaginally

  • Delay oxytocin for 6-12 hours

  • Oxytocin given with med

Explanation

Question 22 of 64

1

A non-FDA approved medication that should be cut by the pharmacy and has a maximum dose of 25 mcg for cervical ripening would be....

Select one or more of the following:

  • Terbutaline

  • Dinoprostone (prepidil)

  • Dinoprostone (Cervidil)

  • Misoprostol (cytotec)

Explanation

Question 23 of 64

1

Pro's to using dinprostone (cervidil) for cervical ripening include:

Select one or more of the following:

  • adverse effects decrease within 15 min after removal of insert

  • hypertonic contractions begin 1 hour after adminstration

  • Oxytocin may be started 30-60min after removal

  • Pill is scored for easier cutting of dose

Explanation

Question 24 of 64

1

Higher doses of Sinoprostone (prepidil), DInoprostone (cervidil) and Misoprostol (cytotec) can be given in the in the instance of....

Select one of the following:

  • fetal distress and need for baby to get out immediately

  • preeclampsia

  • fetal demise

  • paralysis of uterus

Explanation

Question 25 of 64

1

A doctor rights an order for a dose .5 mU/min of increased if tolerated to 1mU/min at 50 min intervals until a regular pattern of ctx is established.
What medication do you expect to be ordered with these parameters/doseing

Select one of the following:

  • Misoprostol (cytotec)

  • Magnesium sulfate

  • Ptiocin (oxytocin)

  • furosemide (lasix)

Explanation

Question 26 of 64

1

Which two pts would you question an order of Pitocin (oxytocin) for?

Select one or more of the following:

  • MOm experiencing hypotonic contractions for past 6 hours

  • Mom with CPD

  • Mom with total placenta previa

  • Mom who's baby is showing frequent accelerations with contractions

Explanation

Question 27 of 64

1

Major indications for C-section (pick 4)

Select one or more of the following:

  • previous vaginal births

  • previous cesarean births

  • CPD

  • fetal distress

  • breech presentation

  • Accelerations of FHR

Explanation

Question 28 of 64

1

A mother is in labor and suddenly screams and says that she feels a "sharp" pain in her stomach, you assess contractions and realize her contractions have stopped. When you call the doctor you tell him that you believe she is suffering from?

Select one of the following:

  • Uterine inversion

  • hypertonic contractions

  • uterine rupture

  • Placenta previa

Explanation

Question 29 of 64

1

seriously powerful carbonic anhydrase inhibitor, lowers intraoptic pressure fast also used to treat acute moutain sickness

Select one of the following:

  • mqnnitol (osmitrol)

  • acetazolamide (diamox)

  • hydrochlorothiazide (hydrodiuril)

  • Sodium polystyrene sulfonate (kayexalate)

Explanation

Question 30 of 64

1

Sodium plystyrene sulfonate (kayexalate) is an antihyperkalemic

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 31 of 64

1

K+ and HPO4- are to intracellular as ____ & _____ are to extracellular

Select one or more of the following:

  • Na+

  • mg

  • K+

  • K-

  • cl-

Explanation

Question 32 of 64

1

A pt's electrolyte panel in the ICU is as follows: (identify the abnormal labs)
Sodium: 125
K+: 3.7
Ca+: 9.0
Cl: 120
Po4-: 2.1
Mg: 1.6

Select one or more of the following:

  • Mg: 1.6

  • PO4-: 2.1

  • Cl-: 120

  • Ca2+: 9.0

  • K+: 3.7

  • Sodium: 125

Explanation

Question 33 of 64

1

Hypercalcemia associated with : (pick 4)

Select one or more of the following:

  • flaccid paralysis

  • muscle weakness

  • prolonged S

  • lethargy

  • incoordination

  • Calcium level above 10.2

  • Calcium level above 8.6

Explanation

Question 34 of 64

1

Prominent _____ wave is to hypokalemia as prominent _____ wave is to hyperkalemia

Select one of the following:

  • U, T

  • QRS,U

  • U, P

Explanation

Question 35 of 64

1

What would the most likely lab value be for a pt. who has hypoactive deep tendon reflexes

Select one of the following:

  • Mg: 4.0

  • Mg: 1.3

  • Mg: 1.7

  • K+ 5.3

Explanation

Question 36 of 64

1

Never give more than 120 mEq of K+ in 24 hours unless.....

Select one of the following:

  • The pt really needs it

  • The pt. is a diabetic

  • The pt. is monitored in the ICU

  • The pt. doesn't have a seizure condition

Explanation

Question 37 of 64

1

If a pt had a high phosphorus level (>4.4) you might expect to find that this pt is also suffering from

Select one of the following:

  • hypernatremia

  • hypocalcemia

  • hypercalcemia

  • hypokalemia

Explanation

Question 38 of 64

1

Tachypnea---- respiratory alkalosis
Dyspnea---- respiratory acidosis

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 39 of 64

1

The symptoms of hyponatremia are associated with a fluid shift into brain cells
They include (pick 5)

Select one or more of the following:

  • tetany

  • irritability

  • confusion

  • Headache

  • seizure

  • tremors

  • shallow t-wave

Explanation

Question 40 of 64

1

Choose only the Side effects of opioids, disregard any toxic effects

Select one or more of the following:

  • cognitive dysfunction

  • Constipation

  • urinary retention

  • delirium

  • hyperalgesia/allodynia

  • respiratory depression

  • dry mouth

Explanation

Question 41 of 64

1

Naloxone (narcan) is used to

Select one of the following:

  • treat mild to moderate pain

  • to treat moderate to sever pain

  • as an antidote to narcotics

  • to help with the constipation side effect of narcotics

Explanation

Question 42 of 64

1

An appropriate medication to use for the third step on the WHO ladder of pain treatment would be?

Select one of the following:

  • acetaminophen (tylenol)

  • ultram

  • Codeine

  • morphine

Explanation

Question 43 of 64

1

Epidural pain control side effects include all of the following except...

Select one of the following:

  • legs feel heavy

  • may not feel urge to void

  • drop in BP

  • spinal headache

  • vasoconstriction

Explanation

Question 44 of 64

1

Incompetent Cervical Os treatment includes

Select one of the following:

  • oxytocin

  • PROM

  • Cerclage

  • medically induced abortion

Explanation

Question 45 of 64

1

Ectopic pregnancy symptoms: (pick 4)

Select one or more of the following:

  • abdominal pain that may localize to one side

  • positive pregnancy test

  • higher than normal levles of HCG

  • Hcg levels lower than normal pregnancy

  • rupture usually occurs before 12 wks

  • lochia serosa

Explanation

Question 46 of 64

1

All of the following are associated with hydatiform mole except?

Select one of the following:

  • symptoms of preexlampsia before usual time of onset

  • absence of fetal hear rate

  • high levels of HCG with excessive Nausea and vomitting

  • Would be okay for a women to get pregnant again 6 weeks after the hydatidiform mole pregnancy

Explanation

Question 47 of 64

1

What medications is given IM to mom to improve enhance the production of lung surfactants in a mother showing signs or at risk for preterm labor

Select one of the following:

  • tirodrine (yutopar)

  • Terbutaline (brethine)

  • nifedipine (adalat)

  • betamethasone (celestone)

Explanation

Question 48 of 64

1

the 3 most important nursing assessments for a mother who is suspected to have magnesium toxicity from administration as an attempt to halt labor would be?

Select one of the following:

  • Respiratory rate, tendon reflexes, hourly urine output

  • Respiratory rate, calcium level, blood pressure

  • Tendon reflexes, pain level, Heart rate

  • uterine involution, blood pressure, heart rate

Explanation

Question 49 of 64

1

Hydraminos is too >2000 ml of amniotic fluid at term while _______________- is to <400ml of amniotic fluid at term

Select one of the following:

  • polyhdraminos

  • Barter's syndrome

  • oligohydramnios

  • polyhydramnios

Explanation

Question 50 of 64

1

The most important things to remember from nursing standpoint when a women has a P.R.O.M. includes:

Select one or more of the following:

  • identified with ferning/pooling or nitozene paper

  • continuous monitoring maternal/fetal vital signs

  • maternal temp every hour

  • delay vaginal exams

  • prepare for amniotomy

Explanation

Question 51 of 64

1

Painful Bleeding during pregnancy around the 20th week with a contracted uterus and fetal deceleration is indicative of _________ while bleeding around the 7th month, no contracted uterus and stable fetal heart rate is indicative of_____________

Select one of the following:

  • preeclampsia, eeclampsia

  • hyperemesis gravidarum, placenta previa

  • abruptio placenta, placenta previa

  • placenta previa, abruptio placenta

Explanation

Question 52 of 64

1

Select all symptoms that are associated with mild preeclampsia (select 4)

Select one or more of the following:

  • Blood Pressure: 150/100

  • Proteinu>.3 but <2

  • edema

  • onset at 20th week of labor

  • Bp >160 >/110

  • Pulmonary edema, Heart failure

Explanation

Question 53 of 64

1

A nurse would continue to observe for preeclampsia symptoms how many hours postpartum?

Select one or more of the following:

  • 48-72

  • 2 weeks

  • 24-48

  • 72

Explanation

Question 54 of 64

1

Aldomet (methyldopa) is prescribed for?

Select one of the following:

  • Gestational diabetes

  • severe preeclampsia

  • chronic hypertension

  • eeclampsia

Explanation

Question 55 of 64

1

Gestational hypertesnion is hypertension with the absence of what two symptoms?

Select one or more of the following:

  • edema

  • shock

  • proteinuria

  • bleeding

Explanation

Question 56 of 64

1

Placental accreta is

Select one of the following:

  • when vessels of umbilical cord divide some distance from the placenta

  • abnormal adherence, placenta grows into uterine wall

  • umbilical cord inserted at or near placental margin

  • extra lobe of placenta, as long as all lobes stay attached causes no complications

Explanation

Question 57 of 64

1

RhoGAM is given (300mg) to mom's at ______ weeks and within _______ hours after delivery for rh sensitization

Select one of the following:

  • 2 weeks, 24 hours

  • 28 weeks, 72 hours

  • 20 weeks, 2 hours

  • 40 weeks, 96 hours

Explanation

Question 58 of 64

1

At 2 days postpartum the uterus should be ?

Select one of the following:

  • midway between umbilicus and pubic symphysis

  • 2 cm below belly button

  • 4 cm below belly button

  • at the umbilicus

Explanation

Question 59 of 64

1

In a terms of analogy a contracted uterus functions like a ?

Select one of the following:

  • tourniquet

  • sieve

  • ice pack

  • bandaid

Explanation

Question 60 of 64

1

3 main interventions for a boggy uterus include all of the following EXCEPT?

Select one of the following:

  • baby to breast

  • pitocin

  • massage

  • tell mother to avoid peeing if possible

Explanation

Question 61 of 64

1

A VNA nurse is assessing a mother at home. She finds the uterus 6 cm below the umbilicus... What type of lochia would the nurse expect the mother to have?

Select one of the following:

  • lochia rubra

  • lochia alba

  • lochia serosa

Explanation

Question 62 of 64

1

A 3rd degree laceration extends through skin, mucous membrane, perineal body and involves the anal sphincter.... The difference between a 3rd degree laceration and a 4th degree laceration is?

Select one of the following:

  • 4th degree has rectal wall extension

  • 3rd degree includes perineal body involvment

  • 4th degree doesn't involve the sphincter

Explanation

Question 63 of 64

1

Breast feeding is good birthcontrol postpartum

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 64 of 64

1

Pospartum blues and obsession with bodily functions are usually found during which phase

Select one of the following:

  • taking in phase

  • taking hold phase

  • letting-go phase

Explanation

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