Contemporary Lab Skills - Exam 2

Question 1 of 100

1

What does PCR stand for?

Select one of the following:

Polymerase Chain Reaction
Polyamorous Consensual Relationship
Polymorphic Chain Reaction
Polymorphic Contrasting Reaction

Explanation

Question 2 of 100

1

Select from the dropdown list to complete the text.

PCR is typically the ( first, second, third, last ) step in DNA analysis.

Explanation

Question 3 of 100

1

What is the main significance of PCR vs other methods?

Select one of the following:

PCR avoids the DNA cloning process
PCR promotes the DNA cloning process
PCR promotes the RNA cloning process
PCR avoids the RNA cloning process

Explanation

Question 4 of 100

1

PCR amplifies all included DNA segments, which allows us to measure general information about the DNA, such as length and total composition.

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 5 of 100

1

What determines the segment of DNA that is amplified by PCR?

Select one of the following:

Primers
Template DNA
Buffer
dNTPs

Explanation

Question 6 of 100

1

Select from the dropdown lists to complete the text.

DNA amplification after PCR is ( less, greater ) than 10^( 6, 5, 10, 12 )x

Explanation

Question 7 of 100

1

Select from the dropdown lists to complete the text.

PCR amplification requires ( little, a large amount of ) template DNA, but is highly ( susceptible, resistant ) to contamination.

Explanation

Question 8 of 100

1

______________ is a thermostable DNA polymerase used to automate the repetitive steps in the polymerase chain reaction (PCR) technique.

Select one of the following:

Taq polymerase
Qat polymerase
Thermopolymerase
Therm polymerase

Explanation

Question 9 of 100

1

Which of the following is a requirement of PCR?

Select one or more of the following:

Thermocycler
Template DNA
Primers
Thermostable DNA polymerase
Agarose Gel
Electric Current

Explanation

Question 10 of 100

1

What kind of primers are used in PCR?

Select one or more of the following:

Forward
Reverse
One-way
Two-way

Explanation

Question 11 of 100

1

Select from the dropdown lists to complete the text.

Using dNTP, or ( deoxynucleotide triphosphate, deoxynucleic triptophosphorous, deoxynucleotide triptophosphate, deoxynucleic triphosphate ), during the ( extension, replication, conditioning ) phase of PCR provides single bases ready to go into DNA and double it, like building blocks.

Explanation

Question 12 of 100

1

Select from the dropdown lists to complete the text.

DNA polymerases (DNAPs)...

- Add dNTPs to ( elongate, compress ) primer
- Require pre-existing ( oligonucleotide, phosphodiester ) (primer) with free ( 3' -OH, 5' -OH, 3' -PO4, 5' -PO4 )
- Read DNA template strand & inserts complementary ( deoxyribonucleotide (dNTP), DNA polymerase (DNAP), deoxyribose (dRTP) ) of the next unpaired nucleotide in the template
- Form ( phosphodiester, oligonucleotide, deoxyribonucleoide (dNTP) ) bond between ( 3' -OH, 5' -PO4, 5' -OH, 3' -PO4 ) of ( oligonucleotide, phosphodiester ) & ( 5' -PO4, 3' -OH, 3' -PO4, 5' -OH ) of ( deoxyribonucleotide (dNTP), oligonucleotide, phosphodiester )
- DNA synthesis proceeds ( 5'-->3', 3'-->5' )
- Template strand read ( 3'-->5', 5'-->3' )

Explanation

Question 13 of 100

1

Select all that apply to DNA polymerases for PCR

Select one or more of the following:

Thermostability is essential
Optimum polymerase activity at 72 degrees C, but can withstand up to 95 degrees C
Use exonuclease deficient forms
3'-->5' exonuclease activity may modify/degrade primers under initial sub-optimal conditions
Optimum polymerase activity at 65 degrees C, but can withstand up to 82 degrees C
Use endonuclease deficient forms
5'-->3' exonuclease activity may modify/degrade primers under initial sub-optimal conditions

Explanation

Question 14 of 100

1

Match the DNA polymerases with their description

❌
- Taq Polymerase
- In hot springs

❌
- deep ocean vents
...- extends templates >12kb
...- proofreading ability
- Manipulation of Vent -->Deep Vent
...- Greater thermostability
...-Lacks exonuclease (exo-) component

❌
- Extends long templates
- Proofreading ability

❌
- RT at 70 degrees C + Mn^2+
- similar to RNA-PCR without cDNA

❌
- Proofreading activity
- Efficiently incorporates radiolabeled dNTPs
- Good for generating DNA probes

Drag and drop to complete the text.

Thermus aquatics

Thermococcus litoralis

Thermus maritima (UITma)

Thermus thermophilus (Tth)

Pfu DNA polymerase (marine bacterium)

Explanation

Question 15 of 100

1

How long are typical PCR primers?

Select one of the following:

20-30 bp
30-40 bp
10-20 bp
40-50 bp

Explanation

Question 16 of 100

1

Select all that apply to a good PCR primer

Select one or more of the following:

complement flanking DNA
not self-complementary
avoids potential secondary structure
matched GC content
similar melting temp
higher melting temp
complements itself
cannot complement flanking DNA
avoids potential tertiary structure

Explanation

Question 17 of 100

1

Using software such as Oligo and Primer to calculate precise times and temperatures for PCR primer is an option, but calculations made by the researcher should be accurate enough.

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 18 of 100

1

Which of the following are major components in a PCR reaction mixture?

Select one or more of the following:

Target DNA
Primers
DNA Polymerase
dNTPs
Buffer appropriate for enzyme
dNADs
deoxyribonuclease

Explanation

Question 19 of 100

1

Which of the following should be considered when choosing a buffer for PCR?

Select one or more of the following:

enzyme activity
primer/template binding
effective incorporation of dNTPs
optimization for Mg^2+
optimization for P^+
DNA length

Explanation

Question 20 of 100

1

The PCR cycle has which three steps?

Select one or more of the following:

Denaturation
Annealing
Extension
Buffering
Contraction

Explanation

Question 21 of 100

1

What is the significance of the denaturing phase of PCR?

Select one of the following:

It allows the selected region for amplification to be accessible to enzymes
It allows primers to anneal to the template DNA
It extends the primers beyond the target DNA

Explanation

Question 22 of 100

1

Denaturation of DNA occurs at what temperature?

Select one of the following:

90 degrees C
80 degrees C
85 degrees C
75 degrees C

Explanation

Question 23 of 100

1

Which of the following occurs during the annealing phase of PCR?

Select one or more of the following:

reaction mixture cooled to 40-65 degrees C
Primers anneal to template DNA
precise temperature is critical and must be defined to avoid synthesis of other products
template dsDNA denatured by heating above 90 degrees C
temperature is raised to 72 degrees C
primers extended beyond target DNA
Primers extended from 3' -OH by thermostable DNA polymerase

Explanation

Question 24 of 100

1

Which of the following occurs during the extension phase of PCR

Select one or more of the following:

Temperature is raised to 72 degrees C
Primers extended from 3' -OH by thermostable DNA polymerase
Primers extended beyond target DNA
Sequence at 3' end contains sequence complementary to other primer
reaction mixture cooled to 40-50 degrees C
Primers anneal to template DNA
Template dsDNA denatured by heating above 90 degrees C

Explanation

Question 25 of 100

1

Successive PCR cycles yield fragments precisely delimited by the primer.

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 26 of 100

1

Which of the following applies to Agarose Gel electrophoresis (AGE) PCR?

Select one or more of the following:

Run PCR products on gel alongside size standards
Look for band of predicted size
Original method
Semi-quantitative at best
Monitor accumulation of PCR products
Quantitative
Use fluorescent-labeled primers, probes, or fluorochromes
Based on Fluorescent Resonance Energy Transfer (FRET)

Explanation

Question 27 of 100

1

Which of the following applies to Real-time PCR

Select one or more of the following:

Monitor accumulation of PCR products during cycling
Quantitative
Use fluorescent-labeled primers, probes, or fluorochromes
Based on fluorescent Resonance Energy Transfer (FRET)
Run PCR products on gel alongside size standards
Look for band of predicted size
Orignal method
Semi-quantitative at best

Explanation

Question 28 of 100

1

Label the types of Real-Time PCR

Drag an answer into the correct orange point.

Light Cycler Primers

Molecular Beacons

UFO PCR

Photon Cycler Primers

Taqman PCR Assay

Reporter-Quencher Assay

Scorpion Assay

Inchworm Assay

Explanation

Question 29 of 100

1

What is the main benefit of using PCR over cloning?

Select one of the following:

PCR is faster
PCR produces more accurate results
PCR requires less preparation
PCR is generally cheaper

Explanation

Question 30 of 100

1

Select from the dropdown lists to complete the text.

In PCR, "RAPD" stands for...

( Rapid, Renentive ) ( Amplification, Annealing ) of ( Polymorphic, Phosphodiester ) DNA

Explanation

Question 31 of 100

1

Which of the following applies to RAPD PCR Analysis?

Select one or more of the following:

One or both primers are random sequences
Yields discrete bands on gel
Alteration in fragment length due to insertions/deletions between primer sites
Reproducibly identify and organism/species
Differentiate between various mutants
Based on insertions/deletions in gene sequence among individuals/genes
Amplification using 1 primer

Explanation

Question 32 of 100

1

Which of the following applies to AFLP PCR analysis?

Select one or more of the following:

Based on insertions/deletions in gene sequence among individuals/species
PCR amplification of specific gene(s)
Type of DNA fingerprint analysis
Amplification using 1 primer
One or both primers are random sequences
Yields discrete bands on gels
Alteration in fragment length due to insertions/deletions between primer sites

Explanation

Question 33 of 100

1

PCR is an effective replacement for cloning

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 34 of 100

1

Cloning PCR products involves which of the following?

Select one of the following:

In vitro protein synthesis
In vivo protein synthesis
In vitro DNA synthesis
In vivo DNA synthesis

Explanation

Question 35 of 100

1

What are the initial problems associated with Direct PCR sequencing?

Select one or more of the following:

sequencing requires ssDNA
Short PCR products re-anneal rapidly
Prevent annealing of sequencing primers
Bias amplification for 1 strand (primer ratio 100:1)
Use denaturants
Selectively remove 1 strand after sequencing

Explanation

Question 36 of 100

1

What are the solutions for problems associated with direct PCR sequencing?

Select one or more of the following:

Bias amplification for 1 strand (primer ratio 100:1)
Use denaturants
Selectively remove 1 strand after synthesis
Sequencing requires ssDNA
Short PCR products reanneal rapidly
Prevent annealing of sequencing primers

Explanation

Question 37 of 100

1

Select all the denaturants used for direct PCR sequencing

Select one or more of the following:

Formamide
Dimethylsulfoxide
Formaldehyde
Dihydrogen monoxide

Explanation

Question 38 of 100

1

How is one strand selectively removed after synthesis during direct PCR sequencing?
(Select 2)

Select one or more of the following:

Incorporate biotin into 1 primer
Affinity chromatography with bound streptavidin removes biotinylated strand
Incorporate formamide into 1 primer
HPLC chromatography with bound streptavidin removes biotinylated strand
HPLC chromatography with bound straptovitamin removes biotinylated strand

Explanation

Question 39 of 100

1

This is a depiction of which kind of PCR sequencing?

Select one of the following:

Direct PCR sequencing
PCR cycle sequencing

Explanation

Question 40 of 100

1

This is a depiction of which type of PCR sequencing?

Select one of the following:

PCR cycle sequencing
Direct PCR sequencing

Explanation

Question 41 of 100

1

Which of the following applies to PCR cycling?

Select one or more of the following:

Amplification using 1 primer
Uses about 20 PCR cycles to complete
Detected using Fluorescent ddNTPs
Detected using Radiolabeled ddNTPs
BIas amplification for 1 strand (primer ratio 100:1)
Use denaturants

Explanation

Question 42 of 100

1

RT-PCR stands for...

Select one of the following:

Reverse Transcriptase PCR
Reverse Terminal PCR
Repeating Transcriptase PCR
Repeating Terminal PCR

Explanation

Question 43 of 100

1

Select from the dropdown lists to complete the text.

Reverse Transcriptase converts ( mRNA, cDNA, ddDNA, rRNA ) to ( cDNA, mRNA, rRNA, ddDNA ) during RT-PCR.

Explanation

Question 44 of 100

1

What are the steps of RT-PCR in the correct order?

❌
❌
❌
❌--Use cDNA in PCR

Drag and drop to complete the text.

Isolate Poly(A)-mRNA

Anneal Poly(dT) Primer to mRNA

Reverse Transcriptase Synthesis of cDNA

Remove RNA

Explanation

Question 45 of 100

1

Electrophoresis is...

Select one of the following:

the separation of molecules using an electric field
the separation of molecules using a magnetic field
the visualization of molecules using an electric field
the visualization of molecules using a magnetic field

Explanation

Question 46 of 100

1

The migration distance is primarily determined by the ___________ ratio

Select one of the following:

charge:mass
charge:size
density:mass
density:size

Explanation

Question 47 of 100

1

What is the primary reason we use a matrix in electrophoresis?

Select one of the following:

It increases resolution of molecules with a similar charge:mass ratio
It decreases the time it takes to complete electrophoresis
It allows the charges from the positive and negative ends to traverse the entire mechanism
It gives the molecules something to adhere to

Explanation

Question 48 of 100

1

A matrix imposes a size constraint on molecule movement during electrophoresis

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 49 of 100

1

Select all that are common matrices for electrophoresis

Select one or more of the following:

Agarose (AGE)
Polyacrylamide (PAGE)
Starch
Cellulose (TLE)
Silica (TLE)
Paper
Sodium hydrogen carbonate (SHC)

Explanation

Question 50 of 100

1

Drag the types of electrophoresis to their applications

❌
- Proteins

Paper electrophoresis
- Small molecules

❌
- Small Molecules

❌
- Molecules dissolved in liquid

❌
- DNA (>2 kb)
- RNA (>2 kb)

❌
- DNA
- RNA
-Proteins
- Small molecules

❌ (PAGE)
- Small DNAs (<2 kb)
- Small RNAs (<2 kb)

Drag and drop to complete the text.

Starch gel electrophoresis

Thin-layer electrophoresis (TLE)

Free-flow electrophoresis

Agarose gel electrophoresis (AGE)

Capillary electrophoresis

Polyacrylamide gel electrophoresis

Explanation

Question 51 of 100

1

Select from the dropdown lists to complete the text.

For nucleic acid gel electrophoresis (separation of DNA and RNA), an ( agarose, polyacrylamide ) matrix is used for general applications while ( polyacrylamide, agarose ) is used for sequencing and footprinting.

Explanation

Question 52 of 100

1

Select from the dropdown lists to complete the text.

The phosphate in a nucleic acid's backbone has a strong ( negative, positive ) charge proportional to the ( number of base pairs (bp), size of base pairs (bp), proportion of bases (A/G/T/C) ), so it runs towards the ( positive, negative ) end of the electrophoresis matrix.

Explanation

Question 53 of 100

1

Why is denaturing part of agarose electrophoresis?

Select one of the following:

Used to prevent the formation of secondary structure
Used to prevent the formation of tertiary structure
Used to prevent re-annealing
Used to prevent annealing

Explanation

Question 54 of 100

1

Which of the following is used in denaturing agarose gels (DNA)

Select one or more of the following:

alkaline buffers
formamide
formaldehyde
methylmercuric hydroxide
Detergents (e.g. SDS)

Explanation

Question 55 of 100

1

Which of the following is used in denaturing agarose gels (RNA)

Select one or more of the following:

formamide
formaldehyde
methylmercuric hydroxide
alkaline buffers
Detergents (e.g. SDS)

Explanation

Question 56 of 100

1

Which of the following is used in denaturing acrylamide gels?

Select one or more of the following:

Detergents (e.g. SDS)
alkaline buffers
formamide
formaldehyde
methylmercuric hydroxide

Explanation

Question 57 of 100

1

Polyacrylamide gels permit the resolution of individual bases

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 58 of 100

1

Pulsed-field electrophoresis (or orthogonal field electrophoresis) does not permit the separation of large DNAs.

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 59 of 100

1

Which of the following applies to pulsed-field electrophoresis?

Select one or more of the following:

effectively separates small chromosomes >10^6 bp
uses electric field conducted through a stiff rod snaking through the gel
one can alter the orientation of the field
effectively separates large chromosomes <10^10 bp
uses electric field conducted through a liquid phase via two small rods on either end (one cathode, one anode)
the field is fixed and can only go in one direction

Explanation

Question 60 of 100

1

Which of the following are general stains for nucleic acids?

Select one or more of the following:

Ethidium bromide (EtBr)
SYBRgreen
Psorelen
Methylene blue

Explanation

Question 61 of 100

1

During electrophoresis staining of nucleic acids, the stain intercalates between the ___________ of the nucleic acids.

Select one of the following:

bases
phosphodiester bonds
-OH bonds

Explanation

Question 62 of 100

1

Select from the dropdown list to complete the text.

Alignment of stain molecules to DNA after electrophoresis permits a strong fluorescent signal when stimulated with ( UV, gamma radiation, an electric field ).

Explanation

Question 63 of 100

1

Proteins are typically separated by what kind of electrophoresis?

Select one of the following:

Polyacrylamide gel electrophoresis (PAGE)
Agarose gel electrophoresis (AGE)
Capillary electrophoresis
Free-flow electrophoresis

Explanation

Question 64 of 100

1

PAGE gels can come in what formats?

Select one or more of the following:

Slab gels
Rod (tube) gels
Box gels

Explanation

Question 65 of 100

1

Select from the dropdown list to complete the text.

PAGE buffer systems can either be ( continuous or discontinuous, high or low charge, long or short, simple or complex ).

Explanation

Question 66 of 100

1

Which of the following are components of a polyacrylamide gel?

Select one or more of the following:

Acrylamide
BIs-acrylamide
Buffer
Denaturants (optional)
Agarose

Explanation

Question 67 of 100

1

Which of the following are catalysts used for polymerization of PAGE preparation?

Select one or more of the following:

Ammonium persulfate (APS)
N,N,N'N'-Tetramethylenediamine (TEMED)
Bis-acrylamide
Acrylamide

Explanation

Question 68 of 100

1

What are the functions of the catalysts used during PAGE preparation?

Select one of the following:

TEMED forms free radicals from APS
APS forms free radicals from TEMED
Bis-acrylamide forms free radicals from acrylamide
Acrylamide forms free radicals from bis-acrylamide

Explanation

Question 69 of 100

1

Select from the dropdown lists to complete the text.

In PAGE gel preparation the free radicals made from the catalysts form form linkages from ( acylamide, TEMED, APS ) to acrylamide and ( acrylamide, TEMED, APS ) to ( bis-acrylamide, TEMED, APS ).

Explanation

Question 70 of 100

1

Which of the following can inhibit APS/TEMED catalysts during PAGE gel preparation?

Select one or more of the following:

low pH
oxygen
high pH
water

Explanation

Question 71 of 100

1

Select all that apply to %T

Select one or more of the following:

= Total acrylamides in gel (w/v)
= % Acrylamide + % Bis-acrylamide
Increased %T --> decreased pore size
= Cross-linkers in gel (w/v)
= % Bis-acrylamide
Increased %T --> increased pore size

Explanation

Question 72 of 100

1

Select all that apply to %C

Select one or more of the following:

= Cross-linkers in gel (w/v)
= % Bis-acrylamide
Increased %C --> decreased pore size
= Total acrylamides in gel (w/v)
= % Acrylamide + % BIs-acrylamide
Increased %C --> increased pore size

Explanation

Question 73 of 100

1

Select from the dropdown lists to complete the text.

In a discontinuous buffer system...

Velocity of Migration = ( Effective Mobility, Size ) x ( Voltage, Mass )
- Proportion of charged molecules determines effective mobility

Voltage = ( Current, Charge ) x ( Resistance, Reactability )
- V = I x R

Proteins accumulate in a ( narrow, wide ) band (i.e. ( Stack, Resolution )) before entering the ( resolving, stacking ) gel

Stacking gels have ( large, small ) pores (( low, high ) %T, ( no molecular sieving, molecular sieving )) and a pH of ( 6.8, 8.8, 8.6, 6.6 ).
Glycine is ( protonated, deprotonated, differentially deprotonated ), so it has a ( slow, fast, intermediate ) migration and is the ( trailing, leading ) ion. Proteins are ( differentially deprotonated, protonated, deprotonated ), so they have an ( intermediate, slow, fast ) migration. Chloride (Cl-) has ( high, low ) mobility and is the ( leading, trailing ) ion.

Cl- moves ( away from, towards ) the glycine, creating a ( low, high ) conductivity zone. The ( low, high ) conductivity zone attains a ( higher, lower ) voltage gradient. At its steady-state, glycine and Cl- are moving at ( the same rate, different rates ) with a ( sharp, undefined ) boundary between them. As the glycine moves through the stacking gel, the ( Cl-, proteins )overtakes the ( proteins, Cl- ) ( in front of, behind ) the boundary. Proteins have ( higher, lower ) mobility than glycine in the trailing ( high-voltage, low-voltage ) gradient, so they move ( at, behind, in front of ) the boundary.

Resolving gels have ( smaller, larger ) pores (( higher, lower ) %T, ( molecular sieving, no molecular sieving )) and a pH of ( 8.8, 6.8, 6.6, 8.6 ). At the resolving gel, glycine ( deprotonates, protonates ) and ( increases, decreases ) mobility. The ( glycine, proteins ) overtakes the ( proteins, glycine ) and moves just behind the Cl-. Then the Proteins separate based on their ( charge:mass ratio, mass ) and molecular sieving due to gel composition (%T, %C).

Explanation

Question 74 of 100

1

Denaturing protein electrophoresis is generally conducted using _________ to separate proteins.

Select one of the following:

SDS-PAGE
Urea gels
Starch gels
Sucrose gels

Explanation

Question 75 of 100

1

The "SDS" in SDS-PAGE stands for...

Select one of the following:

sodium dodecylsulfate
sodium dioxycarbonate
sodium dioxysulfate
sodium dodecylcarbonate

Explanation

Question 76 of 100

1

Select all that apply to the SDS detergent used in SDS-PAGE

Select one or more of the following:

Linearizes protein
Coats protein with negative charges
Coats protein with positive charges
Compresses protein

Explanation

Question 77 of 100

1

SDS-PAGE requires __________ for complete disruption of secondary structure

Select one of the following:

a reducing agent
a buffer
a catalyst

Explanation

Question 78 of 100

1

Which of the following are examples of reducing agents used during SDS-PAGE?

Select one or more of the following:

beta-Mercaptoethanol (BME)
Dithiothreitol (DTT)
Dithioerythritol (DTE)
Sodium dodecylsulfate
Ampholytes

Explanation

Question 79 of 100

1

Select from the dropdown list to complete the text.

When using an SDS detergent for PAGE...

Separation is based on ( chain length, chain linearization, chain charge )
It has a slightly negative charge at pH 7, so the molecules run towards the positive pole

Explanation

Question 80 of 100

1

Which of the following applies to Urea gels during denaturing protein electrophoresis?

Select one or more of the following:

Disrupts hydrogen bonds (H-bonds) to for primary structure
Does not alter charges on protein for the given buffer system and pH
Separation is based on the charge:mass ratio
Alters charges on protein for the given buffer system and pH
Creates hydrogen bonds (H-bonds) for secondary structure
Separation is based on the chain length
Sometimes used for 1st dimension of 2D-PAGE

Explanation

Question 81 of 100

1

Which of the following are examples of gel matrices used for non-denaturing protein electrophoresis?

Select one or more of the following:

polyacrylamide
starch
Sucrose
Glucose

Explanation

Question 82 of 100

1

Which of the following are examples of native gels used for non-denaturing protein electrophoresis?

Select one or more of the following:

Sucrose
Glucose
Polyacrylamide
Starch

Explanation

Question 83 of 100

1

Select all that apply to native gels

Select one or more of the following:

Separation by charge:mass ratio
Maintain protein activity
Halt/dampen protein activity
Separation by chain length

Explanation

Question 84 of 100

1

Select all that apply to isoelectrofocussing (IEF) gels

Select one or more of the following:

Separation based on pI of protein
Ampholytes generate pH gradient
Proteins migrate to isoelectric point
Used during non-denaturing protein electrophoresis
Used during denaturing protein electrophoresis
Separation based on charge:mass ratio
Glycine and Cl- generate charge gradient

Explanation

Question 85 of 100

1

Which of the following are examples of protein stains? (Drag to correct spot)

Standard: ❌
❌
Most sensitive: ❌

Drag and drop to complete the text.

Coomassie Brilliant Blue

Methylene Blue

Ruby Red

Sybergreen

Silver

Explanation

Question 86 of 100

1

Select from the dropdown lists to complete the text.

( Protein stains, Autoradiography ) (is/are) used for total protein visualization in electrophoresis (steady-state).

( Autoradiography, Protein stains ) (is/are) used for visualizing newly synthesized proteins after electrophoresis.

Explanation

Question 87 of 100

1

Select all that apply to Autoradiography

Select one or more of the following:

Used for In vivo labeling
Visualizes bands with x-ray film
Intensifying screens
increased spot density means increased quantity in band
Increased spot density means decreased quantity in band
Visualizes bands with UV light

Explanation

Question 88 of 100

1

Select from the dropdown lists to complete the text.

Rf = Distance of ( Migrated Band, Migrated Dye ) / Distance of ( Migrated Dye, Migrated Band )

Explanation

Question 89 of 100

1

Migration in SDS-PAGE should be determined with a _________ function

Select one of the following:

linear
logarithmic

Explanation

Question 90 of 100

1

Rf is typically used when molecular weight markers (MWM's) run on the gel with the sample.

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 91 of 100

1

2D enhanses esolution over 1D PAGE.

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 92 of 100

1

Why do we use 2-Dimensional Gel Electrophoresis?

Select one of the following:

A 1D band may contain several proteins, so 2D resolves overlying proteins.
1D just seemed so boring that we had to add another dimension. It is the 21st century, after all.
1D band only transports the proteins halfway; 2D is needed for the proteins to travel the rest of the gel.

Explanation

Question 93 of 100

1

Select all that apply to protein separation in the first dimension (electrophoresis).

Select one or more of the following:

IEF or native gel
separation based on charge:mass ratio
ampholytes generate pH gradient
proteins migrate to isoelectric point
separate on SDS-PAGE gels
separation based on size
posttranslational modifications occur

Explanation

Question 94 of 100

1

Select all that apply to protein separation in the second dimension (electrophoresis).

Select one or more of the following:

separate on SDS-PAGE gels
separation based on size
Look for reproducible results
Posttranslational modifications occur
IEF or native gel
Separation based on charge:mass ratio
Proteins migrate to isoelectric point

Explanation

Question 95 of 100

1

Why do posttranslational modifications occur after separation in the second dimension (electrophoresis)>

Select one of the following:

ARG & mature spot may not be the same
proteins don't follow the laws of physics during electrophoresis
proteins migrate to the isoelectric point, not based on size

Explanation

Question 96 of 100

1

Select all components of In vitro translation systems (electrophoresis)

Select one or more of the following:

ribosomes
protein synthesis factors
tRNAs
mRNA
Amino acids (one radiolabeled)
rRNA
cDNA
Ampholytes

Explanation

Question 97 of 100

1

What are the uses of In vitro translation of proteins?

Select one or more of the following:

Analyze major mRNAs present
Pro-protein production
Resolves overlying proteins

Explanation

Question 98 of 100

1

What is the basic procedure of In vitro translation of proteins?

1. ❌
2. ❌

Drag and drop to complete the text.

Extract mRNAs

Copy mRNAs

Translate mRNAs In vitro

Label mRNAs In vitro

Explanation

Question 99 of 100

1

___________ is the transfer of macromolecules from gel to membrane filter following electrophoresis.

Select one of the following:

Blotting
Translation
Visualization
Staining

Explanation

Question 100 of 100

1

What are some of the advantages of analyzing macromolecules using probes instead of in gels?

Select one or more of the following:

More sensitive detection
Need less DNA/RNA/protein to complete
Probe detects only molecule of interest (not all molecules on gel visualized)
Reduce volumes of expensive reagents
Probes make you feel like a cool alien
Faster visualization

	Created by Jo O'Bar about 3 years ago

Covering Polymerase Chain Reaction, Electrophoresis, and more

Contemporary Lab Skills - Exam 2

Question 1 of 100

What does PCR stand for?

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Question 2 of 100

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PCR is typically the first second third last( first, second, third, last ) step in DNA analysis.

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Question 3 of 100

What is the main significance of PCR vs other methods?

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Question 4 of 100

PCR amplifies all included DNA segments, which allows us to measure general information about the DNA, such as length and total composition.

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Question 5 of 100

What determines the segment of DNA that is amplified by PCR?

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Question 6 of 100

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DNA amplification after PCR is less greater( less, greater ) than 10^6 5 10 12( 6, 5, 10, 12 )x

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Question 7 of 100

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PCR amplification requires little a large amount of( little, a large amount of ) template DNA, but is highly susceptible resistant( susceptible, resistant ) to contamination.

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Question 8 of 100

______________ is a thermostable DNA polymerase used to automate the repetitive steps in the polymerase chain reaction (PCR) technique.

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Question 9 of 100

Which of the following is a requirement of PCR?

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Question 10 of 100

What kind of primers are used in PCR?

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Question 11 of 100

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Question 12 of 100

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Question 13 of 100

Select all that apply to DNA polymerases for PCR

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Question 14 of 100

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Question 15 of 100

How long are typical PCR primers?

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Question 16 of 100

Select all that apply to a good PCR primer

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Question 17 of 100

Using software such as Oligo and Primer to calculate precise times and temperatures for PCR primer is an option, but calculations made by the researcher should be accurate enough.

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Question 18 of 100

Which of the following are major components in a PCR reaction mixture?

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Question 19 of 100

Which of the following should be considered when choosing a buffer for PCR?

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Question 20 of 100

The PCR cycle has which three steps?

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Question 21 of 100

PCR is typically the ( first, second, third, last ) step in DNA analysis.

DNA amplification after PCR is ( less, greater ) than 10^( 6, 5, 10, 12 )x

PCR amplification requires ( little, a large amount of ) template DNA, but is highly ( susceptible, resistant ) to contamination.

In PCR, "RAPD" stands for...

( Rapid, Renentive ) ( Amplification, Annealing ) of ( Polymorphic, Phosphodiester ) DNA