Quiz by Jose Antonio Vazquez, created more than 1 year ago

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	Created by Jose Antonio Vazquez almost 3 years ago

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11. OS Question CBT

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Question 1 of 30

1

FG 5.1: On the HUD, the lateral deviation indication of the navigation information indicates:

Select one of the following:

The left or right FMS cross track with respect to the active leg.
The next leg track.
The LOC (localizer) deviation.
The direct to track symbol.

Explanation

Question 2 of 30

1

FG 5.2: During takeoff roll and rotation, which of the next statements is true:

Select one of the following:

A “pitch target” symbol indicates to the pilot the pitch target to be achieved after rotation.
The FD symbol is displayed on the HUD and PFD.
The shape of the “pitch target” symbol remains unchanged.
The “pitch target” symbol is displayed during the climb phase.

Explanation

Question 3 of 30

1

FE 5: F-speeds are:

Select one of the following:

The recommended speed during approach for flaps extension.
The speeds which ensure that the aircraft speed remains above VLS and VFE.
The minimum recommended speeds for flaps retraction during takeoff.
The recommended speeds during a go-around for flaps extension.

Explanation

Question 4 of 30

1

FE 6: What is the VMAX equivalent in clean config?

Select one of the following:

VREF
VFE
VLE / MLE
VMO / MMO

Explanation

Question 5 of 30

1

FM 3: The FMS is able to manage up to … SEC F-PLNs.

Select one of the following:

3
4
5
2

Explanation

Question 6 of 30

1

FM 3: The NAV AP/FD DATA DISAGREE alert advises the flight crew that the following systems can be lost:

Select one of the following:

AP’s and FD’s only
AP’s, FD’s, PRIM’s and AFS CP
AP’s, FD’s, GADIRUS and AFS CP
AP’s, FD’s and AFS CP

Explanation

Question 7 of 30

1

FM 4: About the Temporary (TMPY) F-PLN:

Select one of the following:

It is a copy of the ACTIVE F-PLN that includes the F-PLN revisions.
Its color is green.
It is a copy of the SEC F-PLN.
It does not need to be confirmed by the crew.

Explanation

Question 8 of 30

1

FM 5.1: The Required Time of Arrival (RTA) is:

Select one of the following:

A lateral revision of the F-PLN.
Not taken into account by the FMS for F-PLN predictions.
A time error value information displayed on the HUD and NTD.
The estimated takeoff time.

Explanation

Question 9 of 30

1

FM 5: If the synchronization between both FMS is lost, the mode of operation is:

Select one of the following:

Dependent.
Independent.
Dual.
Single.

Explanation

Question 10 of 30

1

FM 6.1: After the creation of a Flight Plan (F-PLN), the flight crew:

Select one of the following:

Cannot revise, update or modify it in any case
Can revise it at any time.
Can revise it on ground only.
Can do lateral revisions only.

Explanation

Question 11 of 30

1

FM 6: The FMS can manage up to

Select one of the following:

4 flight plans.
2 flight plans.
3 flight plans.
5 flight plans.

Explanation

Question 12 of 30

1

FM 7.1: The lateral revisions are related to the modification of the following parameters:

Select one of the following:

Required time of arrival.
Altitude.
Speed.
Alternate route.

Explanation

Question 13 of 30

1

FM 9: Which of the next formats are interactive?

Select one of the following:

NTD and FM
PFD
HUD
HUD and PFD

Explanation

Question 14 of 30

1

FM 9: One of the Fuel and Load page parameters that can be modifiable are:

Select one of the following:

The estimated takeoff weight at departure airport (TOW).
The estimated fuel on board (EFOB) at destination.
The estimated trip fuel (TRIP).
The minimum fuel at destination (MIN FUEL AT DEST).

Explanation

Question 15 of 30

1

FM 10: The flight plan (F-PLN) defines

Select one of the following:

The intended vertical trajectory.
The intended lateral and vertical trajectory from the departure to the alternate airport.
The intended lateral trajectory.
The intended lateral and vertical aircraft trajectory from the departure to the destination airport and from the destination to the alternate airport (if any).

Explanation

Question 16 of 30

1

FM 10: A click on the “SURLY ERASE ALL” button…

Select one of the following:

Deletes only the ACTIVE flight plan.
Deletes all user data and switches both FMS off.
Switches only FMC 2 off.
Switches only FMC 1 off.

Explanation

Question 17 of 30

1

FM 11: How many phases is the vertical F-PLN divided into?

Select one of the following:

8
10
6
12

Explanation

Question 18 of 30

1

LDG GR/BRK 1: Select the correct statement:

Select one of the following:

The parking brake is only operative when engines are running.
The blue hydraulic system pressurizes the parking brake accumulator.
The yellow hydraulic system pressurizes the parking brake accumulator.
The parking brake decelerates the aircraft after touchdown or rejected takeoff.

Explanation

Question 19 of 30

1

COM 1: The AUDIO MODE sw in the AUDIO MODE panel on the main instrument panel:

Select one of the following:

Enables to switch between the Manual (MAN) mode, the Automatic Link Establishment (ALE) mode and the ALE AUTOmatic (ALE AUTO) mode.
Enables the flight crew to select between normal and emergency transmission.
Enables the flight crew to select between normal and tactical transmission.
Enables to manually force HF transmissions, mainly for secured transmissions.

Explanation

Question 20 of 30

1

COM 2: The Passenger Address (PA) system:

Select one of the following:

Has three modes of operation: general mode, private mode and emergency mode.
Enables any crewmember to make aural announcements to the passengers.
Enables any passenger to make aural announcements to the flight crew.
Enables secure external communications between the passengers and ground installations or other aircraft.

Explanation

Question 21 of 30

1

COM 3: The Emergency Locator Transmitter (ELT):

Select one of the following:

Cannot be removed from the aircraft
Determines the direction from which an incoming emergency signal is transmitted.
Cannot be manually activated nor manually deactivated.
Transmits an emergency signal over the three international distress frequencies.

Explanation

Question 22 of 30

1

NET 1: The Aircraft Multipurpose Access Terminal:

Select one of the following:

Is located on the right console in the cockpit.
Enables any user to access all data hosted on avionics equipment.
Is only operative on ground.
Enables maintenance and mission data operator interface with the NSS hosted applications.

Explanation

Question 23 of 30

1

NET 3.1: If a single IOM fails:

Select one of the following:

Communication between its connected aircraft systems and both avionics networks is lost.
There is no effect, as the redundant IOM ensures full functionality.
It causes a partial network loss.
There is an ECAM alert on the cockpit.

Explanation

Question 24 of 30

1

NET 3.2: The communication, navigation and identification management provides:

Select one of the following:

Monitoring only.
Control only.
Control, monitoring and interface between CDS and RMP.
Public address management.

Explanation

Question 25 of 30

1

NET 4: The loss of two switches on the same network:

Select one of the following:

Causes a total network loss
The redundancy is degraded.
Has no functional effect.
Causes the loss of interconnected systems.

Explanation

Question 26 of 30

1

FUEL 2: Select the correct statement about the vent network:

Select one of the following:

Any fuel spilled into the surge TKs is then returned to the center TK.
The vent network enables the surge TKs to collect the fuel that may overflow.
Any fuel spilled into the surge TKs is discharged overboard via the overpressure disks.
The vent network enables the transfer of fuel from the center TK to the inner TKs and from the inner TKs to the feed TKs.

Explanation

Question 27 of 30

1

FUEL 3.1: Which system controls and monitors the fuel system on ground and in flight?

Select one of the following:

The Full Authority Digital Engine Control (FADEC).
The Control and Display System (CDS).
The Fuel Quantity and Management System (FQMS).
The Flight Management System (FMS).

Explanation

Question 28 of 30

1

FUEL 3.2: The jettison function:

Select one of the following:

Minimizes the potential of an overweight landing.
Provides protection against fire and explosion.
Enables to collect any fuel spilled into the surge TKs and discharge it overboard via the vent outlets.
Enables to increase the aircraft range and endurance.

Explanation

Question 29 of 30

1

FUEL 3.3: According to the FUEL SD:

Select one of the following:

The standby and the main pumps 3 are OFF.
There is a fuel transfer failure.
The fuel of the FEED TK 3 is not usable.
The engine 3 is OFF.

Explanation

Question 30 of 30

1

FUEL 3.4: The aircraft is normally refueled on ground:

Select one of the following:

Using pressure fueling via the refuelling coupling unit.
Using pressue fueling via the jettison outlets located on the wing trailing edge.
Using pressure fueling via the refuelling point in the upper side of the left inner tank.
Using unpressurized fueling via the refuelling probe.

Explanation