APU 2: What is the location of the APU GEN pb-sw?
The AIR Panel
The FIRE Panel
The ELEC Panel
The FUEL Panel
ENG 5: During a manual starting sequence, the FADEC:
Starts the engine when ignition is manually activated.
Starts the opposite engine.
Defeathers the propellers in order to save time.
Provides passive monitoring of the starting sequence.
PRESS 3.1: Can the flight crew perform a fast de-pressurization?
No, in all cases.
Yes, through the V/S sw in automatic mode.
Yes, but only in MAN mode.
Yes, but only in TAC DEPRESS mode.
PRESS 3.2: The ENG BLEED valve:
Isolates its associated engine when required.
Enables to bleed the air from the HP ports.
Opens and closes the engine air intake.
Regulates the temperature of each engine bleed air.
PRESS 4: According to the air conditioning SD, on ground before engine start:
The overboard and the inboard should be closed.
The inboard valve and the depollution valve should be opened.
The overboard valve and the inboard valve should be opened.
The inboard valve should be closed and the overboard valve should be opened.
ICE 1: The water/waste heating system:
Uses electrical heating and thermal insulation.
Prevents frost in drain mast.
Uses hot bleed air.
Prevents mist on water tanks and water lines.
ICE 1.1: The engine anti-ice system prevents:
Engine nacelle from ice accretion.
Engine air inlets from ice accretion.
Propeller blades from ice accretion.
Wing leading edge from ice accretion.
OXY 0: Select the true statement about the Oxygen System:
Oxygen is never supplied in case of fire, smoke or toxic gases.
Oxygen is supplied during MEDEVAC missions.
Oxygen is never supplied during high altitude missions.
There is no oxygen supply to the LMWS.
OXY 1: The oxygen panel is located on the overhead panel. The PAX MASKS guarded pb:
Avoid the supplemental passenger oxygen masks drop, in all cases.
Enables the flight crew to manually drop the supplemental passenger oxygen masks.
When activated, in HIGH AIRFIELD position masks will automatically drop if the cabin pressure exceeds 8.000ft.
When activated, in INHIB position masks will automatically drop if the cabin pressure exceeds 20.000ft.
OXY 2: There are two types of oxygen masks: the full face quick donning mask and the military mask. Select the true statement:
The CM1, CM2 and LM have one of each close to its respective working area.
The military mask is not usable with the OBOGS.
The LM has only the military mask.
The full face quick donning mask can be used with the OBOGS.
Doors 2.1: The crew entrance door:
Is located in the rear of the aircraft fuselage.
Is located on the left and right side of the rear fuselage of the aircraft.
Is located on the left side of the nose fuselage.
Is located on the right side of the nose fuselage.
Doors 2.2: The purpose of the two stabilizer struts is:
To secure the ramp at the horizontal position.
To stabilize the aircraft during loading and off-loading operations.
To provide a bridge for loading and off-loading with the ramp.
To deflect the airflow to ease in flight exit of the paratroops.
FIRE / SMOKE 3: The ENG FIRE pb-sw provides fire indication to the flight crew. Select the correct statement:
When released out, an ENG FIRE pb-sw isolates its corresponding engine and arms its corresponding fire extinguisher agent.
When released out, an ENG FIRE pb-sw isolates its corresponding engine and discharges automatically the extinguisher agent.
When released out, an ENG FIRE pb-sw inhibits aural and visual engine fire alerts of its corresponding engine.
When released out, an ENG FIRE pb-sw isolates all the engines and the APU and discharges automatically the extinguisher agent in everyone.
FIRE / SMOKE 2.1: The FIRE detection is provided for:
The engines and the avionics bay.
The engines and the cockpit.
The engines, the APU, the Main Landing Gear (MLG) bays.
The engines and the cargo area.
FIRE / SMOKE 2.2: With reference to the ENG fire system, which statement is correct?
On ground only, if a fire is detected, the fire extinguishing bottle immediately discharges.
On ground and in flight, if a fire is detected, the flight crew has to manually discharge the fire extinguishing bottle.
On ground and in flight, if a fire is detected, the fire extinguishing bottle immediately discharges.
In flight only, if a fire is detected, the fire extinguishing bottle immediately discharges.
FIRE / SMOKE 1: In case that one loop of the engine fire detection fails:
The extinguishing agent discharges automatically.
The engine shuts down and an aural alert is trigger.
On the EWD appears the corresponding failure but the fire detection is still operative.
On the EWD appears the corresponding failure but the fire detection is no longer operative.
SURV 3: Select the correct statement about the Traffic Collision Avoidance System (TCAS):
The SYS 1 provides the TCAS function when in below mode and the SYS 2 provides the TCAS function when in above mode.
The SYS 1 provides always the TCAS function, even if SYS 2 is selected.
The TCAS function is hosted in the SYS 2.
The SYS 1 do not provide the TCAS function if SYS 2 is selected.
SURV 4.1: Windshear alerts are inhibited:
In cruise, when the aircraft is below 1.500ft.
At takeoff, when the aircraft speed is above 60kts, and up to 50ft.
At landing, when the aircraft is above 50ft.
At landing, when the aircraft is below 1.500ft.
SURV 4.2: The TCAS divides the airspace into:
Three volumes: Above intruders, below intruders and lateral intruders.
Four volumes: Resolution Advisory (RA), Traffic Advisory (TA), proximate intruders and other intruders.
Two volumes: friend intruders and foe intruders.
Three volumes: Traffic Advisory (TA), Air-to Air Refueling Intruders and other intruders.
SURV 5: In standby (STBY) mode, the Traffic Collision Avoidance System (TCAS):
Triggers vertical speed guidance in order to avoid collision, but does not trigger any aural alert.
Does not perform any TCAS function, and does not trigger any alert.
Takes into account all the zones, and thus, provides four levels of alert.
Triggers only an advisory “TRAFFIC, TRAFFIC” message.
SURV 6.1: What happens when the aircraft penetrates the TCF alert envelope?
The visual and aural “TERRAIN, TERRAIN” caution alert triggers.
The visual and aural “TOO LOW FLAPS” caution alert triggers.
The visual and aural “TOO LOW TERRAIN” caution alert triggers.
The visual and aural “PULL UP” warning alert triggers.
SURV 6.2: The weather awareness and windshear avoidance function are provided by:
The weather (WXR), TURBulance (TURB) and Predictive Windshear (PRED W/S) functions of the radar.
The Ground Mapping (MAP) function of the radar.
The Terrain Awareness and Warning System (TAWS).
The Traffic Collision Avoidance System (TCAS).
SURV 7: The weather display has several modes that enable the radar pictures:
Along the vertical axis only.
Along the vertical and horizontal axis.
Along the horizontal axis only.
Only around the intended vertical flight plan.
LIGHTS 1: Can the emergency lights be switched on from the LMWS?
No, emergency lights operate automatically and cannot be manually controlled.
Yes, with the EMER EXIT LT guarded sw, whatever the position of the cockpit EMER EXIT LT sw.
Yes, with EMER EXIT LT guarded sw, but only when the cockpit EMER EXIT LT sw is set to ARM position.
No, emergency lights are controlled only from the cockpit.
LIGHTS 4: The integral lights knob is located on:
The LIGHTING panel on the pedestal.
The LIGHTING panel on the overhead panel.
The cockpit window – frame of each pilot zone.
The exterior lighting panel.
REC 1: The Cockpit Voice Recorder (CVR) records:
The last 2 hours of operation.
The last 25 hours of operation.
The last 12 hours of operation.
The last hour of operation.
REC 2.1: The flight crew can manually activate the recorders:
Never.
Only in flight.
By pressing the GND CTL pb to on.
By pressing the EVENT pb.
REC 2.2: The recorders will automatically stop:
After electrical power up.
5 minutes after the last engine shut down.
When the Auxiliary Power Unit (APU) is not running.
After takeoff.
REC 3: The data recording function is ensured by:
The Emergency Locator Transmitter.
The Aircraft Multipurpose Terminal (AMAT).
The Digital Flight Data Recording System (DFDRS).
The Cockpit Voice Recorder (CVR).
REC 4.1: The EVENT pb on the VOICE & DATA RECORDING panel on the overhead panel enables the flight crew:
To insert an event mark on the DFDRS records.
To pause all data recording for 5 minutes.
The inhibition of sensitive data recording.
To manually start recording on ground.
REC 4.2: The communications recording function is ensured by:
The Aircraft Multipurpose Access Terminal (AMAT).
REC 5: The purpose of the recording functions is to record…
A set of significant parameters to be used during aircraft maintenance, repair or overhaul.
All cockpit internal & external communications to be used as evidence in case of any workplace bullying.
A set of significant parameters to be used in airworthiness investigations.
A set of significant parameters for early detection of system malfunctioning, so preventive maintenance can be scheduled.
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